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CDS I 2018 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2018 (Session I) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Science - Chemistry]

Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?

(a) Potassium
(b) Caesium ✓
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium

Explanation: Caesium-133 is used in atomic clocks because its electrons oscillate at a precise and stable frequency (9,192,631,770 Hz), which defines the SI second.

Q.2 [Science - Biology/Chemistry]

Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?

(a) Potassium ✓
(b) Lithium
(c) Rubidium
(d) Caesium

Explanation: Potassium (along with sodium) plays a key role in regulating osmotic balance and water content of blood through the sodium-potassium pump and kidney function.

Q.3 [Science - Chemistry]

Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?

(a) Carbon dioxide ✓
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen

Explanation: Carbon dioxide dissolves in water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), making the solution acidic; the other gases listed do not react with water to form acids under normal conditions.

Q.4 [Science - Biology]

Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?

(a) Calcium
(b) Iron
(c) Magnesium ✓
(d) Potassium

Explanation: Magnesium is the central atom in the porphyrin ring of the chlorophyll molecule, making it indispensable for chlorophyll synthesis.

Q.5 [Science - Chemistry]

Consider the following chemical reaction: aFe₂O₃(s) + bCO(g) → cFe(s) + dCO₂. In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c and d respectively?

(a) 3, 2, 3, 1
(b) 1, 3, 2, 3 ✓
(c) 2, 3, 3, 1
(d) 3, 3, 2, 1

Explanation: Balancing: Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂. Fe: 2=2, O: 3+3=6 on left, 6 on right, C: 3=3. So a=1, b=3, c=2, d=3.

Q.6 [Science - Physics]

Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?

(a) To increase the life of the bulb ✓
(b) To reduce the consumption of electricity
(c) To make the emitted light colored
(d) To reduce the cost of the bulb

Explanation: Argon is an inert gas that prevents the tungsten filament from oxidizing and slows its evaporation, thereby increasing the life of the bulb.

Q.7 [Science - Physics]

Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (tc)?

(a) These are two independent temperature scales
(b) T = tc
(c) T = tc – 273.15
(d) T = tc + 273.15 ✓

Explanation: The Kelvin scale is defined such that T(K) = tc(°C) + 273.15; absolute zero (0 K) corresponds to -273.15°C.

Q.8 [Science - Physics]

Sound waves cannot travel through a

(a) copper wire placed in air
(b) silver slab placed in air
(c) glass prism placed in water
(d) wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum ✓

Explanation: Sound requires a material medium to travel; a wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum has vacuum inside the hollow, through which sound cannot propagate.

Q.9 [Science - Physics]

Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?

(a) 10⁻³ cm
(b) 10⁻⁶ cm
(c) 10⁻⁷ cm ✓
(d) 10⁻⁹ cm

Explanation: 1 nanometer = 10⁻⁹ m = 10⁻⁷ cm, since 1 m = 100 cm, so 10⁻⁹ m × 10² cm/m = 10⁻⁷ cm.

Q.10 [Science - Physics]

Consider the following statements: 1. There is no net moment on a body which is in equilibrium. 2. The momentum of a body is always conserved. 3. The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 1 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (a body in equilibrium has no net torque). Statement 2 is correct as a principle (total momentum of an isolated system is conserved). Statement 3 is false — kinetic energy is not always conserved (e.g., inelastic collisions).

Q.11 [Science - Physics]

Working of safety fuses depends upon: 1. magnetic effect of the current 2. chemical effect of the current 3. magnitude of the current 4. heating effect of the current. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only ✓
(d) 4 only

Explanation: Safety fuses melt when excessive current flows due to the heating effect; the magnitude of current determines whether the heat produced is sufficient to melt the fuse wire. Points 3 and 4 are the relevant factors.

Q.12 [Geography]

Statement I: By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole. Statement II: Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are factually correct — sinkholes are indeed the most common karst landform and do vary greatly in depth — but the description of sinkhole depth in Statement II does not explain why sinkholes are the most common karst form.

Q.13 [Geography]

Statement I: Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river. Statement II: Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true ✓

Explanation: Statement I is false — incised meanders are formed when a river in its mature stage (with existing meanders) undergoes rejuvenation, not in the mature stage per se. Statement II is correct — incised meanders result from rejuvenation (upliftment of land or fall in base level).

Q.14 [Geography]

Statement I: Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors. Statement II: The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false ✓
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Statement I is correct — glacial troughs (U-shaped valleys) can have flat floors, often due to sediment infilling. Statement II is false — the flat floor is produced by sediment deposition (alluvium/outwash), not by uniform glacial erosion.

Q.15 [Geography]

Statement I: In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less. Statement II: Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are true: tundra has low biodiversity due to its extremely short growing/reproductive warm season, and that short warm period (Statement II) directly explains the low biodiversity (Statement I).

Q.16 [Geography]

Statement I: Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth. Statement II: The Earth rotates from west to east.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are individually true — tides are indeed caused by lunar/solar gravity combined with Earth's rotation, and Earth does rotate west to east — but Earth's west-to-east rotation does not explain the definition of tides.

Q.17 [Science - Biology]

Statement I: A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place. Statement II: Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are true: TB (caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis) spreads via airborne droplets from coughing/sneezing, and crowded places increase exposure to such droplets, explaining the risk.

Q.18 [Science - Biology/Environment]

Statement I: Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism. Statement II: Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are true: bioaccumulation (and biomagnification) leads to increasing pesticide concentrations up the food chain, so large fishes have higher concentrations than plankton, which directly illustrates Statement I.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.19 [Science - Biology]

Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?

(a) Silverfish
(b) Jellyfish
(c) Cuttlefish
(d) Flying fish ✓

Explanation: Flying fish belongs to class Actinopterygii (true bony fish). Silverfish is an insect, jellyfish is a cnidarian, and cuttlefish is a cephalopod mollusc — none are true fish.

Q.20 [Science - Biology]

In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored?

(a) Adipocyte ✓
(b) Chondrocyte
(c) Osteocyte
(d) Reticulocyte

Explanation: Adipocytes are fat cells specifically designed to store lipids (fat). Chondrocytes are cartilage cells, osteocytes are bone cells, and reticulocytes are immature red blood cells.

Q.21 [Biology]

Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?

(a) Euglena : Flagellum
(b) Paramecium : Cilia
(c) Nereis : Pseudopodia ✓
(d) Starfish : Tubefeet

Explanation: Nereis (a polychaete worm) uses parapodia for locomotion, not pseudopodia. Pseudopodia are used by Amoeba. All other pairs are correctly matched.

Q.22 [Biology]

Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?

(a) Nucleus
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi bodies ✓
(d) Ribosomes

Explanation: Lysosomes are formed by budding off from the Golgi apparatus (Golgi bodies), which package hydrolytic enzymes into membrane-bound vesicles.

Q.23 [Biology]

A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum-bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?

(a) 2
(b) 3 ✓
(c) 4
(d) 5

Explanation: The protein must cross: (1) the ER membrane into the ER lumen, then exit the ER; that is 1 double-membrane (ER). Then it must cross the chloroplast outer envelope (1 double-membrane) and the inner envelope (1 double-membrane), and finally the thylakoid membrane (1 membrane, not a double membrane). The chloroplast outer membrane, inner membrane count as 2 double-layered membranes, plus the ER membrane equals 3 double-layered membranes total to reach the thylakoid lumen.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.24 [Geography]

Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?

(a) Deflection and advection
(b) Latent heat of condensation
(c) Expansion and compression of the air ✓
(d) Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere

Explanation: Adiabatic temperature changes occur when air rises or descends without exchanging heat with surroundings — rising air expands and cools (adiabatic cooling) while descending air compresses and warms (adiabatic warming).

Q.25 [Geography]

Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence process of precipitation?

(a) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level ✓
(b) Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level
(c) All types of clouds
(d) Cirrocumulus cloud

Explanation: The collision-coalescence process operates in warm clouds (below the freezing level) where supercooled ice crystals are absent; larger droplets collide and coalesce with smaller ones to form raindrops. It does not require the Bergeron-Findeisen process operative above the freezing level.

Q.26 [Geography]

Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?

(a) Jaisalmer
(b) Leh ✓
(c) Chennai
(d) Guwahati

Explanation: During winter, a high-pressure system (Siberian High extension) dominates the northwest and high-altitude interior of the subcontinent. Leh, being at very high altitude in the cold interior, experiences the highest atmospheric pressure relative to other listed stations due to the prevailing continental high in the northern interior during winter.

Q.27 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Hypothesis/Theory): A. Planetesimal hypothesis B. Thermal contraction theory C. Geosynclinal orogen theory D. Hypothesis of sliding continent List-II (Propounder): 1. Kober 2. Chamberlin 3. Daly 4. Jeffreys

(a) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3 ✓
(b) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(c) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(d) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2

Explanation: Chamberlin proposed the Planetesimal hypothesis (A–2); Jeffreys proposed the Thermal contraction theory (B–4); Kober proposed the Geosynclinal orogen theory (C–1); Daly proposed the Hypothesis of sliding continent (D–3). This matches option (a).

Q.28 [Chemistry]

Bright light is found to emit from photographer's flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?

(a) Argon
(b) Xenon ✓
(c) Neon
(d) Helium

Explanation: Electronic flashguns (xenon flash lamps) use xenon gas, which produces an extremely bright white light when an electric current is passed through it, making it ideal for photography.

Q.29 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?

(a) Composition is variable. ✓
(b) All particles of compound are of only one type.
(c) Particles of compound have two or more elements.
(d) Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods.

Explanation: A compound has a fixed (not variable) composition by mass — this is the law of definite proportions. Variable composition is a characteristic of mixtures, not compounds.

Q.30 [Chemistry]

Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water? 1. Mg(HCO₃)₂ 2. Ca(HCO₃)₂ 3. CaCl₂ 4. MgSO₄ Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 ✓

Explanation: Temporary hardness is caused by dissolved bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium — Ca(HCO₃)₂ and Mg(HCO₃)₂ — which can be removed by boiling. CaCl₂ and MgSO₄ cause permanent hardness.

Q.31 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?

(a) Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons
(b) Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons
(c) Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons
(d) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons ✓

Explanation: Isobars have the same mass number. Calcium has mass number 40. Option (d): 18 protons + 22 neutrons = mass number 40. This element (Argon-40) is an isobar of Calcium-40.

Q.32 [Physics]

Which of the following represents a relation for 'heat lost = heat gained'?

(a) Principle of thermal equilibrium
(b) Principle of colors
(c) Principle of calorimetry ✓
(d) Principle of vaporization

Explanation: The Principle of Calorimetry states that in an isolated system, heat lost by the hot body equals heat gained by the cold body, which is the basis of calorimetric measurements.

Q.33 [Physics]

Two metallic wires made from copper have same length but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes

(a) 2R
(b) R
(c) 5R/4 ✓
(d) 3R

Explanation: Resistance is proportional to 1/A = 1/(πr²). Wire 1 has radius r, wire 2 has radius 2r. R₂ = R × (r²/(2r)²) = R/4. In series: R_total = R + R/4 = 5R/4.

Q.34 [Physics]

When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is

(a) Reflection of light
(b) Refraction of light
(c) Dispersion of light
(d) Scattering of light ✓

Explanation: At sunrise and sunset the sun's light travels through a greater thickness of atmosphere; shorter wavelengths (blue/violet) are scattered away more by Rayleigh scattering, leaving the longer wavelength red/orange light to reach the observer.

Q.35 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Cloud): A. Cirrus B. Stratus C. Nimbus D. Cumulus List-II (Characteristic): 1. Rain-giving 2. Feathery appearance 3. Vertically growing 4. Horizontally spreading

(a) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(b) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(c) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3 ✓
(d) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2

Explanation: Cirrus clouds have a feathery appearance (A–2); Stratus clouds spread horizontally (B–4); Nimbus clouds are rain-giving (C–1); Cumulus clouds grow vertically (D–3). This matches option (c).

Q.36 [Polity / International Law]

Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?

(a) Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits
(b) Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing
(c) Conservation and management of marine resources
(d) Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables ✓

Explanation: Under UNCLOS, navigation of ships and laying of submarine cables in the EEZ are freedoms of the high seas available to all states, not exclusive rights of the coastal nation. The coastal state has sovereign rights only over resource exploitation and management.

Q.37 [Geography / Environment]

In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project being implemented as a pilot investment?

(a) Gujarat, Kerala and Goa
(b) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal ✓
(d) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Explanation: The World Bank-assisted ICZM Project in India was implemented as a pilot in three states: Gujarat, Odisha, and West Bengal.

Q.38 [Polity / Governance]

Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct? 1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in-service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning. 2. The NWA is located in New Delhi. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — NWA's primary objective is training in-service engineers. Statement 2 is incorrect — the NWA is located in Pune, Maharashtra, not New Delhi.

Q.39 [Physics]

A wire of copper having length l and area of cross-section A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be

(a) P
(b) < P
(c) > P ✓
(d) 2P

Explanation: Power dissipated P = I²R = I²ρl/A. Aluminium has a higher resistivity than copper (ρ_Al ≈ 2.82×10⁻⁸ Ω·m vs ρ_Cu ≈ 1.72×10⁻⁸ Ω·m), so with the same dimensions and current, the aluminium wire dissipates more power (> P).

Q.40 [Physics]

The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = P₀ + ρgh, where ρ is the fluid density. This expression is associated with

(a) Pascal's law ✓
(b) Newton's law
(c) Bernoulli's principle
(d) Archimedes' principle

Explanation: The hydrostatic pressure equation P = P₀ + ρgh is a direct consequence of Pascal's law, which describes how pressure in a static fluid varies with depth.

Q.61 [History]

Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify: 1. Continuous link between the master and disciple 2. Unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad 3. The transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Sufi Silsilas signified all three: the master-disciple chain (silsila literally means chain), the spiritual genealogy traced back to Prophet Muhammad, and the transmission of baraka (spiritual blessings) to devotees.

Q.62 [History]

In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?

(a) Surya Sukta ✓
(b) Purusha Sukta
(c) Dana Stutis
(d) Uma Sutra

Explanation: The Surya Sukta in the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda is a hymn about Surya (the Sun-god's daughter) and reflects upon marriage ceremonies. The Purusha Sukta deals with creation of the universe.

Q.63 [History]

Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct? 1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka. 2. It was marked by non-Brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra. 3. It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras. 4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 only ✓

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct — non-Brahmin lower castes participated in Madras and Maharashtra. Statement 1 is incorrect (Karnataka peasant participation was not a notable feature). Statement 3 is incorrect as there was significant labour unrest in Assam, Bengal and Madras. Statement 4 is incorrect as Gandhi called off (not scaled down) the movement after Chauri Chaura.

Q.64 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following was a focus country of the 'World Food India', a mega food event held in November 2017 in New Delhi?

(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Denmark
(d) Italy ✓

Explanation: Italy was the focus country of World Food India 2017 held in New Delhi in November 2017, given Italy's global prominence in food processing and culinary heritage.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.65 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series—India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?

(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Goa ✓
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: Goa was selected to host the Nobel Prize Series—India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition, which was part of a series of science outreach events held across India.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.66 [Current Affairs]

The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school children called 'Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana'. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of

(a) Sports
(b) Philately ✓
(c) Music
(d) Web designing

Explanation: SPARSH stands for Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude and Research in Stamps as a Hobby. The Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana aims to promote philately (stamp collecting) among school children across India.

Q.67 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following temples of India has won the 'UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit, 2017' for cultural heritage conservation?

(a) Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati
(b) Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam ✓
(c) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
(d) Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath

Explanation: The Sri Ranganathaswami Temple at Srirangam, Tamil Nadu won the UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit 2017 for cultural heritage conservation, recognizing the restoration work done on the temple complex.

Q.68 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women's Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?

(a) Japan
(b) China ✓
(c) South Korea
(d) Pakistan

Explanation: India defeated China in the final of the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2017 to claim the title. The tournament was held in Kakamigahara, Japan.

Q.69 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?

(a) India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.
(b) 95 percent of India's trade by volume and 68 percent by value are moved through maritime transport.
(c) India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
(d) In the Maritime Agenda, 2010–2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020. ✓

Explanation: The Maritime Agenda 2010–2020 set a target of 3,130 MT (not 300 MT) port capacity for the year 2020, making option (d) incorrect. All other statements are factually accurate.

Q.70 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) India joined MTCR in 2016.
(b) India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.
(c) India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996.
(d) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta. ✓

Explanation: CHOGM 2015 was held in Malta, not 2016. The next CHOGM after that was held in 2018 in London. Therefore option (d) is incorrect. All other statements — India joining MTCR in June 2016, NSG application in 2016, and India proposing CCIT in 1996 — are correct.

Q.71 [Polity]

Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?

(a) 91st Amendment ✓
(b) 87th Amendment
(c) 97th Amendment
(d) 90th Amendment

Explanation: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 inserted Article 75(1A) and Article 164(1A) prescribing that the size of the Council of Ministers (at Centre and States) shall not exceed 15 percent of the total members of the House.

Q.72 [Defence]

Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct? 1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority 2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border 3. Coastal security in territorial waters Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

Explanation: All three roles are assigned to the Indian Coast Guard: it coordinates offshore security, serves as the lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea borders, and ensures coastal security in territorial waters, especially post 26/11 reforms.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.73 [Defence]

Which one of the following is India's first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?

(a) Astra
(b) Akash
(c) Nirbhay ✓
(d) Shankhnaad

Explanation: Nirbhay is India's first indigenously designed long-range subsonic cruise missile, capable of being launched from land, sea and air platforms. Astra is an air-to-air missile and Akash is a surface-to-air missile.

Q.74 [Current Affairs]

The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?

(a) Dr. L. D. Papney ✓
(b) Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar
(c) Shri Subir Chakraborty
(d) Shri P. D. Siwal

Explanation: Dr. L. D. Papney was appointed as the Chairman of the Committee constituted by the Ministry of Power to investigate the Unchahar thermal power plant accident of November 1, 2017.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.75 [Current Affairs]

In November 2017, an Indian short film The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the Director of the film?

(a) Anurag Kashyap
(b) Dheeraj Jindal ✓
(c) Sujoy Ghosh
(d) Samvida Nanda

Explanation: Dheeraj Jindal directed the Indian short film 'The School Bag' which won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival in Montreal in November 2017.

Q.76 [Current Affairs]

In November 2017, India's M. C. Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner?

(a) 48 kg
(b) 51 kg ✓
(c) 54 kg
(d) 57 kg

Explanation: M. C. Mary Kom won the gold medal in the 51 kg category at the Asian Boxing Championship 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam, adding to her illustrious boxing career.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.77 [Environment]

Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil Day, 2017?

(a) Soils and pulses, a symbol for life
(b) Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground ✓
(c) Soils, a solid ground for life
(d) Soils, foundation for family farming

Explanation: The theme of World Soil Day 2017 (December 5) was 'Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground', emphasizing the critical role of soil health in achieving sustainable development goals.

Q.78 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship (Men), 2017?

(a) Kidambi Srikanth
(b) H. S. Prannoy
(c) Ajay Jayaram
(d) Sai Praneeth ✓

Explanation: Sai Praneeth won the National Badminton Championship (Men's singles) in 2017, defeating his compatriots to claim the national title.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.79 [History]

Which of the following statements about the usage of the term 'barbarian' is/are correct? 1. It is derived from the Greek word 'barbaros' which means a non-Greek. 2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. 'Barbaros' in Greek originally meant anyone who did not speak Greek (a non-Greek), and the Romans adopted and applied the term 'barbarian' to Germanic tribes, Gauls, Huns and other groups they considered uncivilized.

Q.80 [History]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagavad Gita.
(b) According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali's Yoga Sutra.
(c) The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism.
(d) Hujwiri's conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body. ✓

Explanation: Hujwiri (author of Kashf-ul-Mahjub) was actually critical of the Yogis and not impressed by their theories; he disagreed with their concept of the division of the human body. The other statements about Al-Biruni and the Amrita Kunda are historically accurate.

Q.81 [History]

"So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs." Who among the following European travellers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?

(a) Francisco Pelsaert ✓
(b) Francois Bernier
(c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(d) Niccolao Manucci

Explanation: Francisco Pelsaert, a Dutch merchant/traveller, wrote vividly about the miserable condition of peasants and artisans under the Mughal Empire in his work 'Remonstrantie', describing how they were left with barely enough to survive after tax extraction.

Q.82 [History]

What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect?

(a) Ginan ✓
(b) Ziyarat
(c) Raag
(d) Shahada

Explanation: The Khojas, a community of South Asian Ismaili Muslims, developed a devotional literary tradition known as 'Ginans' — sacred hymns and poems composed by Ismaili preachers (pirs) in regional languages.

Q.83 [History]

Who was/were the 10th century composer(s) of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham?

(a) Alvars ✓
(b) Nayanars
(c) Appar
(d) Sambandar

Explanation: The Nalayira Divya Prabandham is a collection of 4,000 Tamil verses composed by the Alvars, who were Vaishnava saint-poets. Though the composition spanned several centuries, the Alvars are credited as the composers of this canonical text.

Q.84 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?

(a) Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General
(b) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
(c) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal ✓
(d) Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral

Explanation: In the Indian Air Force, Wing Commander ranks above Squadron Leader and below Group Captain; option (c) incorrectly places Group Captain before Wing Commander, making the ascending order wrong.

Q.85 [Polity]

Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct? 1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India. 2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament. 3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government. 4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only ✓
(d) 1 only

Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect — the Attorney General is not a whole-time counsel; he can take up private practice subject to restrictions. Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct per Articles 76 and related constitutional provisions.

Q.86 [Polity]

Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India? (a) 35th (b) 36th (c) 37th (d) 38th

(a) 35th
(b) 36th ✓
(c) 37th
(d) 38th

Explanation: The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 admitted Sikkim as the 22nd state of India by adding it to the First Schedule of the Constitution.

Q.87 [Geography]

Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of 'one country, two systems'? (a) Tibet (b) Hong Kong (c) Xinjiang (d) Inner Mongolia

(a) Tibet
(b) Hong Kong ✓
(c) Xinjiang
(d) Inner Mongolia

Explanation: Hong Kong was handed over by Britain to China on 1 July 1997 under the 'one country, two systems' framework, allowing Hong Kong to retain its capitalist system for 50 years.

Q.88 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct? (a) States in India cannot have their own Constitutions. (b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution. (c) States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India. (d) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

(a) States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.
(b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.
(c) States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India.
(d) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly. ✓

Explanation: Under the 91st Amendment Act, the size of the Council of Ministers in any state cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the lower house; however, Delhi's Legislative Assembly has 70 members, so the cap is 15% of 70. The statement itself is technically correct in wording, but note that the 91st Amendment applies to states; Delhi as a UT with legislature follows the same rule. Statement (a) is broadly correct as a general rule, but (b) was also correct (J&K had its own Constitution before Article 370 abrogation in 2019 — within the 2018 exam timeframe, J&K did have its own Constitution). Statement (d) is the odd one: the 15% rule applies uniformly; this statement is not incorrect per se but the question asks what is NOT correct. Actually, re-evaluating: statement (a) says states 'cannot' have their own constitutions — this is largely true except J&K which had one, making (a) an overstatement and potentially incorrect. However, the standard answer for this question is (d) because Delhi is a Union Territory, not a state, and the 91st Amendment's 15% rule applies to states and not specifically mentioned for Delhi in the same provision — Delhi's CM cabinet size is governed separately. The most clearly incorrect statement is (d).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.89 [Environment]

Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031: 1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan. 2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife. 3. The NWAP has ten components. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: The NWAP 2017-2031 is indeed the Third National Wildlife Action Plan (previous ones were 1983-2002 and 2002-2016); it is the first to address climate change impacts on wildlife, and it has ten thematic components.

Q.90 [Economy]

Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative? (a) Natural gas (b) Refinery products (c) Fertilizer (d) Coal

(a) Natural gas ✓
(b) Refinery products
(c) Fertilizer
(d) Coal

Explanation: During 2015-16, natural gas production in India recorded negative growth among the eight core industries, as output from major gas fields continued to decline. Natural gas was the only core sector with negative growth in that period.

Q.91 [Science & Technology]

eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Governance Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by (a) Tata Consultancy Services (b) Infosys Technologies Limited (c) Wipro (d) HCL Technologies

(a) Tata Consultancy Services ✓
(b) Infosys Technologies Limited
(c) Wipro
(d) HCL Technologies

Explanation: The eBiz project under the National e-Governance Plan was implemented by Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) as the selected system integrator under the DIPP, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.92 [Environment]

Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct? 1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. 2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans. 3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct — olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant sea turtles, inhabiting warm tropical and subtropical waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans. Statement 3 is incorrect; Gahirmatha Beach on the Odisha coast (not the Coromandel Coast) is the largest known mass nesting (arribada) site for olive ridley turtles in the world.

Q.93 [General Knowledge]

Consider the following statement: "A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service." The above statement is attributed to (a) Sardar Patel (b) Winston Churchill (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Baden-Powell

(a) Sardar Patel
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Mahatma Gandhi ✓
(d) Baden-Powell

Explanation: This quote about the body being a servant of the spirit is attributed to Mahatma Gandhi, reflecting his philosophy of physical discipline in service of spiritual and moral goals.

Q.94 [History]

Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi ✓
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Swami Vivekananda

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi founded the Phoenix Settlement near Durban, South Africa in 1904, inspired by John Ruskin's book 'Unto This Last'. It was his first communal living experiment and a precursor to his later ashrams in India.

Q.95 [History]

Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire.

(a) Mahanavami Dibba ✓
(b) Lotus Mahal
(c) Hazara Rama
(d) Virupaksha

Explanation: The Mahanavami Dibba (also called the Dussehra platform) is a massive platform at Hampi used by Vijayanagara kings for the great Mahanavami festival, where royal ceremonies, processions, and rituals were performed.

Q.96 [History]

The idea of 'Farr-i Izadi', on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?

(a) Shihabuddin Suhrawardi ✓
(b) Nizamuddin Auliya
(c) Ibn al-Arabi
(d) Bayazid Bistami

Explanation: The concept of 'Farr-i Izadi' (Divine Light/Grace) as a basis for kingship was developed by Shihabuddin Suhrawardi, the founder of the Suhrawardi Sufi order, and was later adopted by the Mughals to legitimize their rule through divine sanction.

Q.97 [History]

Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?

(a) Vinaya Pitaka
(b) Sutta Pitaka
(c) Abhidhamma Pitaka
(d) Mahavamsa ✓

Explanation: The Mahavamsa, a Sri Lankan Pali chronicle, contains a detailed account of Emperor Ashoka, including his conversion to Buddhism, his support for the Third Buddhist Council, and his role in spreading Buddhism. It is the primary literary source for Ashokan history beyond his own edicts.

Q.98 [History]

Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct? (a) Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult. (b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks. (c) They were located in rural areas. (d) They were located close to trade routes.

(a) Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult.
(b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.
(c) They were located in rural areas. ✓
(d) They were located close to trade routes.

Explanation: Buddhist stupas were NOT exclusively located in rural areas; many were situated along major trade routes and near urban centres to attract pilgrims and merchant patronage. Statements (a), (b), and (d) are all correct historically.

Q.99 [Polity]

Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?

(a) West Bengal ✓
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the largest Legislative Assembly (403 seats) but is not among the options. Among the given options, West Bengal has 294 seats, Bihar has 243, Madhya Pradesh has 230, and Tamil Nadu has 234. Therefore West Bengal has the largest number of seats among these four options.

Q.100 [Polity]

Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct? 1. It is a discretionary power. 2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — the Governor's Ordinance-making power under Article 213 is not a discretionary power; it is exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers (except in certain situations requiring Presidential instructions). Statement 2 is also incorrect — the Governor CAN withdraw an Ordinance at any time as per Article 213(2)(a). Hence neither statement is correct.

Q.101 [Economy / International Affairs]

Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?

(a) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide — 1985 ✓
(b) Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT — 1994
(c) Inauguration of the World Trade Organization — 1995
(d) Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange (Nasdaq) — 1971

Explanation: SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) was inaugurated in 1977, not 1985. The other three events are correctly matched with their years.

Q.102 [Defence / Security Forces]

Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP): 1. ITBP was raised in 1962 2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force. 3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty. 4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct — ITBP was raised in 1962 following the Sino-Indian War, is a mountain-trained force, and replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-05. Statement 4 is incorrect; ITBP has 60 service battalions, not 52.

Q.103 [International Relations / Human Rights]

Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?

(a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(b) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
(c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
(d) Declaration on the Right to Development ✓

Explanation: The Declaration on the Right to Development (1986) is a UN Declaration, not a legally binding international treaty. The other three — ICCPR, CEDAW, and CRPD — are binding international treaties.

Q.104 [Polity / Elections]

In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

(a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
(b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail
(c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail ✓
(d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail

Explanation: VVPAT stands for Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail — a mechanism that allows voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly by providing a printed slip.

Q.105 [Government Schemes / Agriculture]

Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?

(a) To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level
(b) To expand cultivable area under irrigation
(c) To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water
(d) To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities ✓

Explanation: Protecting farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities is the objective of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (crop insurance scheme), not PMKSY. PMKSY focuses on irrigation, water efficiency, and expanding irrigated area.

Q.106 [Government Schemes / Trade]

Which one of the following statements about 'Niryat Bandhu Scheme' is correct?

(a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs. ✓
(b) It is a scheme for crop protection.
(c) It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.
(d) It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.

Explanation: The Niryat Bandhu Scheme, launched by DGFT, is designed to mentor and guide first-generation exporters/entrepreneurs to explore export opportunities and make their businesses globally competitive.

Q.107 [Government Schemes / Skill Development]

Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?

(a) It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls. ✓
(b) It aims to convert India's demographic surplus into a demographic dividend.
(c) The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.
(d) It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.

Explanation: DDU-GKY is a placement-linked skill training programme for rural youth between 15-35 years of age; it is not exclusively for rural girls. Men and women both are covered under this scheme.

Q.108 [Geography / International]

Where is Hambantota Port located?

(a) Iran
(b) Sri Lanka ✓
(c) Japan
(d) Pakistan

Explanation: Hambantota Port is located in Sri Lanka on its southern coast. It gained geopolitical significance when China took a 99-year lease on the port in 2017.

Q.109 [Government Schemes / Infrastructure]

The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?

(a) Eight
(b) Ten
(c) Twelve ✓
(d) Fourteen

Explanation: The Coastal Berth Scheme under Sagarmala Programme covers projects distributed over 12 coastal States of India to develop berths and jetties for coastal shipping.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.110 [Environment / Climate Change]

Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?

(a) The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.
(b) This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.
(c) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing entity for the fund. ✓
(d) The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016.

Explanation: The National Implementing Entity (NIE) for the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development), not the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).

Q.111 [Defence / Military Exercises]

'SAMPRITI-2017' is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and

(a) Bhutan
(b) Bangladesh ✓
(c) Pakistan
(d) Myanmar

Explanation: SAMPRITI is a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh, aimed at strengthening bilateral defence cooperation and enhancing counter-terrorism capabilities.

Q.112 [Polity / Judiciary]

The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to

(a) sexual harassment in the work place ✓
(b) Sati
(c) dowry death
(d) Rape

Explanation: The Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan (1997) judgment by the Supreme Court of India laid down guidelines to prevent sexual harassment of women in the workplace, later codified in the POSH Act 2013.

Q.113 [International Relations / BRICS]

The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at

(a) Brasilia
(b) Sanya ✓
(c) Yekaterinburg
(d) Durban

Explanation: The Sanya Summit (2011, China) was the first BRICS Summit after South Africa formally joined the grouping (making it BRICS from BRIC). It was the 3rd BRICS Summit overall.

Q.114 [History / Ancient India]

Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts?

(a) Piyadassi
(b) Colin Mackenzie
(c) Alexander Cunningham
(d) James Prinsep ✓

Explanation: James Prinsep, a British antiquary and colonial official, successfully deciphered the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts in 1837, enabling the reading of Ashokan edicts.

Q.115 [History / Medieval India]

Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600-1200 AD? 1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State. 2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages. 3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct about Brahmadeya grants: they represented loss of revenue for the State (statement 1), could range from small plots to entire villages (statement 2), and were often made in frontier or unsettled areas to bring them under cultivation (statement 3).

Q.116 [History / Literature]

Who is the author of Manimekalai?

(a) Kovalan
(b) Sathanar ✓
(c) Ilango Adigal
(d) Tirutakkatevar

Explanation: Manimekalai, the Tamil Buddhist epic that is a sequel to Silappadikaram, was authored by Sathanar (also spelled Sattan or Chithalai Chathanar), a merchant-poet of the Sangam era.

Q.117 [History / Art and Architecture]

Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?

(a) It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.
(b) It contains one large cave.
(c) It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.
(d) It is associated with the Pashupata sect. ✓

Explanation: Elephanta Island is associated with the Pashupata sect of Shaivism; its caves contain magnificent Shaivite sculptures including the famous Trimurti (Maheshmurti). The island was named by the Portuguese (not British) after a large stone elephant.

Q.118 [History / Modern India]

Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct? 1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent. 2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress. 3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen's rights. 4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only ✓

Explanation: Only statement 4 is correct — the MAO College at Aligarh blended Muslim theology with Western/European empirical education. Sir Syed opposed the INC, did not support ethnic federation theory, and did not envision individual-rights-based nationalism; he focused on Muslim community upliftment.

Q.119 [Economics / Taxation]

Consider the following statements about impact of tax: 1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply. 2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: when demand is inelastic relative to supply, consumers bear more of the tax burden (tax is shifted forward). Statement 2 is incorrect: tax is shifted backward to producers when supply is relatively more elastic (not inelastic) than demand, or when supply is inelastic it is the producer who bears the burden rather than shifting it backward.

Q.120 [Economics / Microeconomics]

According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to

(a) improve
(b) diminish ✓
(c) remain constant
(d) first diminish and then improve

Explanation: The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a consumer consumes successive units of a good, the additional (marginal) satisfaction derived from each additional unit decreases, i.e., marginal utility diminishes.