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CDS I 2019 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2019 (Session I) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [History]

Henry T. Colebrooke was a Professor of Sanskrit in which one of the following institutions?

(a) Fort William College ✓
(b) Serampore Mission
(c) Kashi Vidyapith
(d) Asiatic Society

Explanation: Henry Thomas Colebrooke was appointed Professor of Hindu Law and Sanskrit at Fort William College, Calcutta, established in 1800. He is best known for his Sanskrit scholarship and works on Hindu algebra and Vedas.

Q.2 [History]

The Deccan Agriculturalists' Relief Act of 1879 was enacted with which one of the following objectives?

(a) Restore lands to the dispossessed peasants
(b) Ensure financial assistance to peasants during social and religious occasions
(c) Restrict the sale of land for indebtedness to outsiders ✓
(d) Give legal aid to insolvent peasants

Explanation: The Deccan Agriculturalists' Relief Act of 1879 was passed in response to the Deccan riots of 1875. Its primary objective was to restrict the alienation of land by peasants to outsiders (moneylenders), thereby protecting the cultivating community from losing their land due to debt.

Q.3 [History]

The Damin-i-Koh was created by the British Government to settle which one of the following communities?

(a) Santals ✓
(b) Mundas
(c) Oraons
(d) Saoras

Explanation: Damin-i-Koh ('skirts of the hills') was a territory demarcated by the British in 1832 in the Rajmahal Hills area for the settlement of Santals, who were encouraged to move there and cultivate the land.

Q.4 [History]

The Limitation Law, which was passed by the British in 1859, addressed which one of the following issues?

(a) Loan bonds would not have any legal validity.
(b) Loan bonds signed between moneylender and Ryots would have validity only for three years. ✓
(c) Land bonds could not be executed by moneylenders.
(d) Loan bonds would have validity for ten years.

Explanation: The Limitation Law of 1859 stipulated that loan bonds signed between moneylenders and ryots (peasants) would have legal validity for only three years, after which they could not be enforced in court. This was intended to protect peasants from perpetual debt bondage.

Q.5 [History]

Who among the following was known during the days of the Revolt of 1857 as 'Danka Shah'?

(a) Shah Mal
(b) Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah ✓
(c) Nana Sahib
(d) Tantia Tope

Explanation: Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah of Faizabad was popularly known as 'Danka Shah' (the king with the drum) during the Revolt of 1857. He was a fiery preacher who had been predicting a great uprising and played a significant role in mobilising people in Awadh.

Q.6 [History]

The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which one of the following assumptions?

(a) The Talukdars were the rightful owners of the land.
(b) The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land. ✓
(c) The Talukdars could evict the peasants from the lands.
(d) The Talukdars would take a portion of the revenue which flowed to the State.

Explanation: The Summary Settlement of 1856 in Awadh under Chief Commissioner James Outram was based on the assumption that Talukdars were interlopers and usurpers who had no permanent or legitimate stake in the land. It sought to settle directly with the actual cultivators, bypassing the Talukdars.

Q.7 [Polity]

The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of

(a) Punchhi Commission
(b) Sarkaria Commission ✓
(c) Rajamannar Commission
(d) Mungerilal Commission

Explanation: The Inter-State Council was established in 1990 by a Presidential Order based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission (1983–1988), which had been set up to examine Centre-State relations.

Q.8 [Polity]

Which among the following writs is issued to quash the order of a Court or Tribunal?

(a) Mandamus
(b) Prohibition
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari ✓

Explanation: Certiorari is a writ issued by a superior court to quash or set aside an order already passed by a lower court or tribunal that has acted without or in excess of jurisdiction, or in violation of natural justice.

Q.9 [Polity]

Which among the following statements about the power to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. 2. It can be exercised by the people through representatives in a Constituent Assembly. 3. It falls within the constituent powers of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 ✓
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3

Explanation: Under the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution (statement 1 is correct). However, the basic structure can be changed by a specially convened Constituent Assembly representing the will of the people (statement 2 is correct). Statement 3 is incorrect as Parliament's amending power under Article 368 does not extend to altering the basic structure.

Q.10 [Polity]

When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except

(a) Article 20 and Article 21 ✓
(b) Article 21 and Article 22
(c) Article 19 and Article 20
(d) Article 15 and Article 16

Explanation: Article 359 allows the President to suspend the right to move courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency, but Article 20 (protection against arbitrary conviction) and Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during an Emergency, as per the 44th Constitutional Amendment.

Q.11 [Polity]

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State funds?

(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15 ✓
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17

Explanation: Article 15(2) of the Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and specifically states that no citizen shall be denied access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, places of public entertainment, or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds.

Q.12 [History]

Who amongst the following organized the All India Scheduled Castes Federation?

(a) Jyotiba Phule
(b) Periyar
(c) B. R. Ambedkar ✓
(d) M. K. Karunanidhi

Explanation: B. R. Ambedkar founded the All India Scheduled Castes Federation in 1942 as a political organization to represent the interests of Scheduled Castes and Depressed Classes across India.

Q.13 [Current Affairs]

Paul Allen, who died in October 2018, was the co-founder of

(a) Oracle
(b) IBM
(c) Microsoft ✓
(d) SAP

Explanation: Paul Allen co-founded Microsoft along with Bill Gates in 1975. He passed away on October 15, 2018, due to complications from non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.

Q.14 [Current Affairs]

The mobile app 'cVIGIL' is helpful in

(a) conducting free and fair e-tendering process in government offices
(b) fighting against corruption in public services
(c) removing garbage from the municipal areas
(d) reporting violation of model code of conduct in election-bound States ✓

Explanation: The cVIGIL app was launched by the Election Commission of India to enable citizens to report violations of the Model Code of Conduct and other electoral malpractices in real time during elections in election-bound states.

Q.15 [Defence]

'Prahaar' is

(a) a battle tank
(b) a surface-to-surface missile ✓
(c) an aircraft carrier
(d) a submarine

Explanation: Prahaar is a solid-fuelled, road-mobile tactical surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed by DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) of India, designed for battlefield use with a range of about 150 km.

Q.16 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following is/are the recipient/recipients of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2018?

(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Saikhom Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli ✓
(c) Neeraj Chopra
(d) Hima Das and Neeraj Chopra

Explanation: The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2018 was conferred on weightlifter Saikhom Mirabai Chanu and cricketer Virat Kohli, recognising their outstanding sporting achievements that year.

Q.17 [Geography]

Pakyong Airport is located in

(a) Sikkim ✓
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Mizoram

Explanation: Pakyong Airport is located in the East Sikkim district of Sikkim. It was inaugurated in September 2018 and is the first greenfield airport in Sikkim, situated about 35 km from Gangtok.

Q.18 [Current Affairs]

The United Nations has been observing International Day of Rural Women on

(a) 15th July
(b) 15th August
(c) 15th September
(d) 15th October ✓

Explanation: The United Nations observes the International Day of Rural Women on October 15 each year, established by General Assembly resolution in 2007, recognising the critical role and contribution of rural women in enhancing agricultural and rural development.

Q.19 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following is the first Indian to win Pulitzer Prize?

(a) Arundhati Roy
(b) Gobind Behari Lal ✓
(c) Vijay Seshadri
(d) Jhumpa Lahiri

Explanation: Gobind Behari Lal was the first Indian to win a Pulitzer Prize. He won the Pulitzer Prize for Journalism in 1937 as part of a team covering science journalism. He was a science journalist working for American newspapers.

Q.20 [Sports]

Saurabh Chaudhary excels in which one of the following sports?

(a) Archery
(b) Shooting ✓
(c) Boxing
(d) Judo

Explanation: Saurabh Chaudhary is an Indian sport shooter who competes in the 10m Air Pistol event. He won gold at the 2018 Asian Games and the 2018 Youth Olympic Games, establishing himself as one of India's top young shooters.

Q.21 [Economics]

Which one of the following is not an assumption in the law of demand?

(a) There are no changes in the taste and preferences of consumers.
(b) Income of consumers remains constant.
(c) Consumers are affected by demonstration effect. ✓
(d) There are no changes in the price of substitute goods.

Explanation: The law of demand assumes that consumers are NOT affected by the demonstration effect (keeping up with others). Demonstration effect violating constancy of tastes is a condition that must be absent; if consumers ARE affected by it, the assumption breaks down, making option (c) the one that is NOT an assumption but rather a violation of one.

Q.22 [Economics]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero.
(b) When total utility is decreasing, marginal utility is negative.
(c) When total utility is increasing, marginal utility is positive.
(d) When total utility is maximum, marginal and average utility are equal to each other. ✓

Explanation: When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero (not equal to average utility). Average utility at that point is still positive, so the statement in (d) is incorrect.

Q.23 [Economics]

Consider the following statements about indifference curves: 1. Indifference curves are convex to the origin. 2. Higher indifference curve represents higher level of satisfaction. 3. Two indifference curves cut each other. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 ✓
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are standard properties of indifference curves. Statement 3 is false — two indifference curves can never intersect, as that would imply the same bundle gives two different utility levels, which is a contradiction.

Q.24 [Economics]

Consider the following statements about a joint-stock company: 1. It has a legal existence. 2. There is limited liability of shareholders. 3. It has a democratic management. 4. It has a collective ownership. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓

Explanation: All four statements are correct features of a joint-stock company: it is a separate legal entity, shareholders have limited liability, management is democratic (via elected board), and ownership is collective among shareholders.

Q.25 [Economics]

When some goods or productive factors are completely fixed in amount, regardless of price, the supply curve is

(a) horizontal
(b) downward sloping to the right
(c) vertical ✓
(d) upward sloping to the right

Explanation: A perfectly inelastic supply, where quantity supplied does not change regardless of price, is represented by a vertical supply curve.

Q.26 [History]

Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s?

(a) H. St. Clair Wilkins ✓
(b) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney
(c) Purushottamdas Thakurdas
(d) Nusserwanji Tata

Explanation: The Bombay Secretariat (now Mantralaya) was designed by Colonel H. St. Clair Wilkins of the Royal Engineers in the 1870s in the Indo-Saracenic style.

Q.27 [History]

Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta?

(a) Her Holiness Maharani Tapaswini Mataji ✓
(b) Sister Nivedita
(c) Madame Blavatsky
(d) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation: Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta was founded by Maharani Tapaswini (also known as Tapaswini Mataji), a noted woman educationist and nationalist of 19th-century Bengal.

Q.28 [History]

Which European ruler had observed, "Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world ... he who can exclusively command it is the dictator of Europe"?

(a) Queen Victoria
(b) Peter the Great of Russia
(c) Napoleon Bonaparte ✓
(d) Gustav II Adolf

Explanation: This famous statement about the commerce of India being the key to commanding Europe is attributed to Napoleon Bonaparte, reflecting his strategic awareness of Indo-European trade.

Q.29 [History]

Which European traveller had observed, "A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places, and she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers"?

(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Thomas Roe
(d) Abbe J. A. Dubois ✓

Explanation: Abbe J. A. Dubois, a French missionary who spent years in India and wrote 'Hindu Manners, Customs and Ceremonies', made this observation about the relative safety and dignity accorded to Hindu women in public spaces.

Q.30 [General Knowledge]

Who was the author of the book Plagues and Peoples?

(a) W. L. Thomas
(b) Rachel Carson
(c) David Cannadine
(d) William H. McNeill ✓

Explanation: 'Plagues and Peoples' (1976) is a seminal work by historian William H. McNeill, exploring how infectious diseases have shaped human history.

Q.31 [Social Science]

Which Indian social theorist had argued that the idea of a homogenized Hinduism was constructed through the 'cultural arrogance of post-enlightenment Europe'?

(a) Ashis Nandy ✓
(b) Partha Chatterjee
(c) T. K. Oommen
(d) Rajni Kothari

Explanation: Ashis Nandy, the Indian political psychologist and social theorist, has critically argued that a monolithic, homogenized Hinduism is largely a modern construct shaped by colonial and post-Enlightenment European frameworks imposed on a diverse tradition.

Q.32 [Economics]

'Sub-prime crisis' is a term associated with which one of the following events?

(a) Economic recession ✓
(b) Political instability
(c) Structural adjustment programmes
(d) Growing social inequality

Explanation: The sub-prime crisis refers to the 2007-08 financial crisis in the US, triggered by defaults on sub-prime mortgage loans, which led to a global economic recession.

Q.33 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a change brought about by the Indian Independence Act of 1947?

(a) The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution.
(b) India ceased to be a dependency.
(c) The Crown was the source of authority till new Constitution was framed. ✓
(d) The Governor-General was the constitutional head of Indian Dominion.

Explanation: Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the constituent assemblies of the two new dominions became sovereign and the Crown was no longer the source of authority; each dominion's constituent assembly became supreme. Thus option (c) is not correct.

Q.34 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the provision of Legislative Council in the State Legislature?

(a) The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative Councils.
(b) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
(c) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities. ✓
(d) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by graduates residing in the State.

Explanation: Under Article 171, one-third (not one-twelfth) of members are elected by local bodies. One-twelfth are elected by graduates and one-twelfth by teachers. Option (c) incorrectly states the local bodies quota as one-twelfth.

Q.35 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India?

(a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings. ✓
(b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats are reserved for SCs, STs or women.
(c) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years.
(d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats.

Explanation: Article 243(H) of the Constitution does not require the Chairperson to be directly elected by the people in order to vote in Panchayat meetings. The manner of election of Chairpersons is left to the State Legislature. Option (a) is not a constitutional requirement and is thus incorrect.

Q.36 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals?

(a) The Parliament may by law constitute Administrative Tribunals both at the Union and State levels.
(b) Tribunals may look into disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.
(c) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal. ✓
(d) The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence to be followed.

Explanation: Under Article 323A, tribunals can exclude jurisdiction of all courts except the Supreme Court under Article 136 (special leave to appeal). Therefore, the Supreme Court's jurisdiction under Article 136 cannot be excluded, making option (c) incorrect.

Q.37 [Economics]

A market situation when many firms sell similar but not identical products is termed as

(a) perfect competition
(b) imperfect competition
(c) monopolistic competition ✓
(d) oligopoly

Explanation: Monopolistic competition is characterized by many firms selling differentiated (similar but not identical) products, giving each firm some degree of market power over pricing.

Q.38 [Economics]

Consider the following statements: 1. Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18. 2. There was significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: During 2017-18, India's overall inflation remained moderate and there was a notable decline in food inflation, particularly in pulses and vegetables due to good harvests and supply-side improvements. Both statements are correct.

Q.39 [Economics]

Which one of the following hypotheses postulates that individual's consumption in any time period depends upon resources available to the individual, rate of return on his capital and age of the individual?

(a) Absolute Income Hypothesis
(b) Relative Income Hypothesis
(c) Life Cycle Hypothesis ✓
(d) Permanent Income Hypothesis

Explanation: The Life Cycle Hypothesis, proposed by Franco Modigliani, postulates that consumption depends on total lifetime resources, rate of return on capital, and the individual's age (stage in the life cycle).

Q.40 [Economics]

According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon

(a) aggregate demand
(b) aggregate supply
(c) effective demand ✓
(d) rate of interest

Explanation: Keynes argued that the level of employment is determined by effective demand — the point where aggregate demand equals aggregate supply. It is effective demand, not just aggregate demand alone, that determines employment in Keynesian theory.

Q.41 [Economics]

Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith?

(a) Canon of equality
(b) Canon of certainty
(c) Canon of convenience
(d) Canon of fiscal adequacy ✓

Explanation: Adam Smith advocated four canons of taxation: equality, certainty, convenience, and economy. Canon of fiscal adequacy (ensuring sufficient revenue for government needs) was not among Adam Smith's original four canons; it was added later by other economists.

Q.42 [Science & Technology]

Which Arab scientist could be given the credit of christening the mathematical discipline of algorithm?

(a) Al-Khwarizmi ✓
(b) Ibn al-Haytham
(c) Ibn Rushd
(d) Ibn Sina

Explanation: The word 'algorithm' is derived from the Latinized name of Muhammad ibn Musa al-Khwarizmi, a 9th-century Persian mathematician. His name was Latinized as 'Algoritmi', giving rise to the term algorithm.

Q.43 [World History]

Which one of the following developments took place because of the Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854?

(a) The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine whether they should own slaves or not. ✓
(b) The Act did not permit the territories the right to vote over the question of slavery.
(c) The voice of the majority in regard to the issue of slavery was muzzled.
(d) The Federal Government had the sole authority to decide on slavery.

Explanation: The Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854 effectively repealed the Missouri Compromise of 1820 by introducing popular sovereignty, allowing settlers of new territories to decide for themselves whether to allow slavery, leading to violent conflict known as 'Bleeding Kansas'.

Q.44 [International Relations]

Which one of the following issues was included in the Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007?

(a) India has advance right to reprocess US-origin safeguarded spent fuel. ✓
(b) India did not have the right to build a strategic fuel reserve with the help of the other supplier countries.
(c) India should not test a nuclear device.
(d) The Agreement will impede the growth of India's nuclear weapons programme.

Explanation: Under the 123 Agreement (Indo-US Civil Nuclear Agreement), India was granted the right to reprocess US-origin spent fuel in a new national reprocessing facility under IAEA safeguards, which was a key concession won by India during negotiations.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.45 [Polity]

Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the Constitution of India, are correct? 1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India. 2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control. 3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary. 4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance.

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar was a strong advocate of an independent and empowered judiciary. He supported the Supreme Court's role in constitutional interpretation and balancing liberty with social control, but he did not believe in executive dominance over judiciary or dictatorial governance.

Q.46 [International Relations]

Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations? 1. Stabilization 2. Peace consolidation 3. To extend support to a losing State in a War

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only ✓

Explanation: UN multidimensional peacekeeping operations focus on stabilization and peace consolidation. Supporting a losing state in a war is not a core function — the UN maintains neutrality and does not take sides in conflicts.

Q.47 [International Relations]

The South China Sea Dispute involves which of the following countries? 1. China 2. Vietnam 3. Malaysia 4. Indonesia

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: The South China Sea dispute involves China, Vietnam, Malaysia, the Philippines, Brunei, and Taiwan — all of which have overlapping territorial claims. Indonesia has some disputes with China near the Natuna Islands but is not considered a primary claimant in the main South China Sea dispute; China, Vietnam, and Malaysia are the main parties here.

Q.48 [Environment]

The 'Kyoto Protocol' is an international treaty that commits State parties to reduction in

(a) poverty
(b) greenhouse gases emission ✓
(c) nuclear armaments
(d) agricultural subsidy

Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997 and entered into force in 2005, is an international treaty under the UNFCCC that commits industrialized nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to mitigate climate change.

Q.49 [International Relations]

The 'Beijing Declaration' is concerned with which one of the following issues?

(a) Rights of children
(b) Rights of women ✓
(c) Right to development
(d) Reduction of tariffs

Explanation: The Beijing Declaration was adopted at the Fourth World Conference on Women in 1995 in Beijing. It is a landmark document affirming the rights of women and girls and is specifically concerned with gender equality and women's empowerment.

Q.50 [Indian Foreign Policy]

The 'Gujral Doctrine' relates to which one of the following issues?

(a) Build trust between India and its neighbours ✓
(b) Initiate dialogue with all insurgent groups in India
(c) Undertake development activities in Naxal-dominated areas
(d) Ensure food security

Explanation: The Gujral Doctrine, articulated by former Indian Prime Minister I.K. Gujral, was a set of five principles to guide India's foreign policy toward its neighbours, emphasizing non-reciprocal concessions, non-interference, and building trust with neighbouring countries.

Q.51 [Chemistry]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Compound/Molecule) — List-II (Shape of Molecule) A. CH₄ — 1. Trigonal planar B. HCHO — 2. Tetrahedral C. HCN — 3. Trigonal pyramidal D. NH₃ — 4. Linear

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 ✓

Explanation: CH₄ is tetrahedral (2), HCHO (formaldehyde) is trigonal planar (1), HCN is linear (4), and NH₃ is trigonal pyramidal (3) due to the lone pair on nitrogen. Thus A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

Q.52 [Chemistry]

Very small insoluble particles in a liquid may be separated from it by using

(a) crystallization
(b) fractional distillation
(c) centrifugation ✓
(d) decantation

Explanation: Centrifugation is used to separate very fine insoluble particles from a liquid by spinning the mixture at high speed, causing the denser particles to settle at the bottom. Decantation works only for larger, heavier particles that settle by gravity.

Q.53 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following elements cannot be detected by "Lassaigne's test"?

(a) I
(b) Cl
(c) N
(d) F ✓

Explanation: Lassaigne's test (sodium fusion test) is used to detect halogens (Cl, Br, I), nitrogen, and sulphur in organic compounds. Fluorine (F) cannot be detected by Lassaigne's test because sodium fluoride (NaF) formed is soluble but does not give a precipitate with silver nitrate, as AgF is soluble in water.

Q.54 [Chemistry]

In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible?

(a) Alcohols
(b) Aldehydes
(c) Alkyl halides ✓
(d) Cyanides

Explanation: Functional group isomerism occurs when compounds have the same molecular formula but different functional groups. Alkyl halides (R-X) do not exhibit functional group isomerism because halogen-substituted compounds have no alternative functional group arrangement with the same molecular formula. Alcohols can be isomers with ethers, aldehydes with ketones, and cyanides with isocyanides.

Q.55 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Fischer projection represents the molecule in an eclipsed conformation.
(b) Newman projection can be represented in eclipsed, staggered and skew conformations.
(c) Fischer projection of the molecule is its most stable conformation. ✓
(d) In Sawhorse projections, the lines are inclined at an angle of 120° to each other.

Explanation: Fischer projection represents the molecule in an eclipsed conformation (all bonds eclipsed), which is actually the least stable conformation due to torsional strain. Saying it is the most stable conformation is incorrect; statement (c) is false.

Q.56 [Chemistry]

The monomer/monomers used for the synthesis of Nylon 6 is/are

(a) hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
(b) caprolactam ✓
(c) urea and formaldehyde
(d) phenol and formaldehyde

Explanation: Nylon 6 is synthesized by the ring-opening polymerization of caprolactam (a cyclic amide). Nylon 6,6 uses hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid; urea-formaldehyde and phenol-formaldehyde are thermosetting resins, not nylons.

Q.57 [Science (Astronomy)]

Which one among the following stars is nearest to the earth?

(a) Sirius
(b) Arcturus
(c) Alpha Centauri
(d) Proxima Centauri ✓

Explanation: Proxima Centauri, a red dwarf star approximately 4.24 light-years away, is the nearest known star to Earth. It is part of the Alpha Centauri star system but is closer to Earth than Alpha Centauri A or B.

Q.58 [Science (Astronomy)]

Which of the following planets of our solar system has least mass?

(a) Neptune
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury ✓

Explanation: Mercury is the smallest planet in the solar system and has the least mass among the given options. Its mass is approximately 3.3 × 10²³ kg, compared to Mars at 6.4 × 10²³ kg, making Mercury the least massive.

Q.59 [Physics]

Two identical solid pieces, one of gold and other of silver, when immersed completely in water exhibit equal weights. When weighed in air (given that density of gold is greater than that of silver)

(a) the gold piece will weigh more
(b) the silver piece will weigh more ✓
(c) both silver and gold pieces weigh the same
(d) weighing will depend on their masses

Explanation: When two pieces show equal apparent weight in water, the gold piece (being denser) must have a smaller volume than the silver piece. Buoyant force = ρ_water × V × g. Since both lose the same buoyant force (equal apparent weights and equal true weight difference), but gold is denser so has smaller volume — actually, equal apparent weight means: W_gold − B_gold = W_silver − B_silver, so W_gold − W_silver = B_gold − B_silver. Since gold is denser, for same apparent weight, the silver piece must have greater actual weight (larger volume compensates). Thus the silver piece weighs more in air.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.60 [Physics]

If the wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet, visible and infrared radiations are given as λ_uv, λ_vis and λ_ir respectively, then which one of the following gives the correct relationship among these wavelengths?

(a) λ_uv < λ_vis < λ_ir ✓
(b) λ_ir < λ_uv < λ_vis
(c) λ_vis < λ_uv < λ_ir
(d) λ_ir < λ_vis < λ_uv

Explanation: In the electromagnetic spectrum, ultraviolet radiation has shorter wavelengths (10–400 nm) than visible light (400–700 nm), which in turn has shorter wavelengths than infrared radiation (700 nm–1 mm). Therefore λ_uv < λ_vis < λ_ir.

Q.61 [Physics]

An electron and a proton starting from rest get accelerated through potential difference of 100 kV. The final speeds of the electron and the proton are Ve and Vp, respectively. Which one of the following relations is correct?

(a) Ve > Vp ✓
(b) Ve < Vp
(c) Ve = Vp
(d) Cannot be determined

Explanation: Both gain the same kinetic energy (qV = 100 keV), so (1/2)mv² = qV gives v = sqrt(2qV/m). Since the electron mass (~9.11×10⁻³¹ kg) is far smaller than the proton mass (~1.67×10⁻²⁷ kg), the electron reaches a much higher speed: Ve >> Vp.

Q.62 [Physics]

If two vectors A and B are at an angle θ ≠ 0°, then

(a) |A| + |B| = |A + B|
(b) |A| + |B| > |A + B| ✓
(c) |A| + |B| < |A + B|
(d) |A| + |B| = |A − B|

Explanation: By the triangle inequality, |A + B| ≤ |A| + |B|, with equality only when θ = 0°. Since θ ≠ 0°, the strict inequality |A| + |B| > |A + B| holds.

Q.63 [Biology]

Which one of the following functions is not carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

(a) Transport of materials
(b) Synthesis of lipid
(c) Synthesis of protein ✓
(d) Synthesis of steroid hormone

Explanation: Protein synthesis is carried out by ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum, not the smooth ER. The smooth ER is involved in lipid synthesis, steroid hormone synthesis, and transport of materials.

Q.64 [Biology]

Which one of the following cell organelles mainly functions as storehouse of digestive enzymes?

(a) Desmosome
(b) Ribosome
(c) Lysosome ✓
(d) Vacuoles

Explanation: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes and act as the cell's digestive system, breaking down waste materials and cellular debris.

Q.65 [Biology]

Which one of the following tissues is responsible for increase of girth in the stem of a plant?

(a) Tracheid
(b) Pericycle
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Lateral meristem ✓

Explanation: Lateral meristem (vascular cambium and cork cambium) is responsible for secondary growth, i.e., the increase in girth (diameter) of the stem. Intercalary meristem causes elongation, not girth increase.

Q.66 [Biology]

Which one of the following organisms is dependent on saprophytic mode of nutrition?

(a) Agaricus ✓
(b) Ulothrix
(c) Riccia
(d) Cladophora

Explanation: Agaricus (common mushroom) is a saprophyte that obtains nutrition by decomposing dead organic matter. Ulothrix, Riccia, and Cladophora are photosynthetic organisms (algae/bryophyte).

Q.67 [Biology]

Which one of the following has a bilateral symmetry in its body organization?

(a) Asterias
(b) Sea anemone
(c) Nereis ✓
(d) Echinus

Explanation: Nereis (a polychaete worm) exhibits bilateral symmetry. Asterias (starfish) and Echinus (sea urchin) belong to Echinodermata and show pentaradial symmetry, while sea anemone shows radial symmetry.

Q.68 [Biology]

Which one of the following pairs of animals is warm-blooded?

(a) Crocodile and Ostrich
(b) Hagfish and Dogfish
(c) Tortoise and Ostrich
(d) Peacock and Camel ✓

Explanation: Warm-blooded (endothermic) animals include birds and mammals. Peacock is a bird and Camel is a mammal — both are warm-blooded. Crocodile and tortoise are reptiles (cold-blooded); hagfish and dogfish are fish (cold-blooded).

Q.69 [Geography]

Which one of the following States of India is not covered by Flood Forecasting Stations set up by the Central Water Commission?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Jammu and Kashmir ✓
(c) Tripura
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation: The Central Water Commission's flood forecasting network covers most Indian states with significant flood-prone river systems. Jammu and Kashmir has traditionally not been covered under the standard CWC flood forecasting network due to its specific geographical and administrative setup.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.70 [Geography]

The city of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on Biosafety, is located in

(a) Colombia ✓
(b) Venezuela
(c) Brazil
(d) Guyana

Explanation: The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (2000) is named after Cartagena, a city in Colombia, where the negotiations were largely concluded. It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity.

Q.71 [Geography]

Which one among the following is the most populated State in India as per Census 2011?

(a) Goa
(b) Mizoram
(c) Meghalaya ✓
(d) Sikkim

Explanation: Among the four options — Goa, Mizoram, Meghalaya, and Sikkim — Meghalaya has the highest population as per Census 2011 (approximately 29.6 lakh), followed by Mizoram, Goa, and Sikkim.

Q.72 [Geography]

Which among the following countries of South America does the Tropic of Capricorn not pass through?

(a) Chile
(b) Bolivia ✓
(c) Paraguay
(d) Brazil

Explanation: The Tropic of Capricorn passes through Chile, Paraguay, and Brazil in South America. Bolivia is landlocked and located above (north of) the Tropic of Capricorn, so it does not pass through Bolivia.

Q.73 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso Sea?

(a) It is characterized with anticyclonic circulation of ocean currents.
(b) It records the highest salinity in Atlantic Ocean.
(c) It is located west of Gulf Stream and east of Canary Current. ✓
(d) It is confined in gyre of calm and motionless water.

Explanation: The Sargasso Sea is located east of the Gulf Stream (not west), bounded to the west by the Gulf Stream, to the north by the North Atlantic Current, to the east by the Canary Current, and to the south by the North Atlantic Equatorial Current.

Q.74 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (City): A. Detroit, B. Antwerp, C. Tokyo, D. Harbin List-II (Product): 1. Motorcar, 2. Diamond cutting, 3. Steel, 4. Shipbuilding

(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 ✓
(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Explanation: Detroit is famous for motorcars (1), Antwerp for diamond cutting (2), Tokyo for shipbuilding (4), and Harbin for steel (3). This matches option (c): A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3.

Q.75 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not situated on Varanasi–Kanyakumari National Highway?

(a) Satna
(b) Rewa ✓
(c) Katni
(d) Jabalpur

Explanation: NH 7 (now NH 44) runs from Varanasi to Kanyakumari passing through Jabalpur, Katni, and Satna. Rewa is not on this highway — it lies on a different route (NH 30/35 direction).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.76 [Geography]

Which one of the following methods is not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting?

(a) Rooftop recharge pit
(b) Recharge wells
(c) Gully plug ✓
(d) Recharge trench

Explanation: Gully plugs are used in rural/watershed areas to check soil erosion and retain runoff in hilly terrains. They are not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting. Rooftop recharge pits, recharge wells, and recharge trenches are standard urban rainwater harvesting techniques.

Q.77 [Geography]

If one plots the tank irrigation in India and superimposes it with map of well irrigation, one may find that the two are negatively related. Which of the following statements explain the phenomenon? 1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation. 2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious surface layers. 3. Well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater reserves. 4. Other forms of irrigation are not available. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Explanation: The negative correlation exists because tank irrigation is prevalent in areas with impervious rock (like Deccan plateau) where groundwater cannot be easily stored or accessed, so well irrigation is absent there. Well irrigation requires adequate groundwater reserves, which these areas lack. Statements 2 and 3 directly explain the negative relationship.

Q.78 [Chemistry]

When hot water is placed into an empty water bottle, the bottle keeps its shape and does not soften. What type of plastic is the water bottle made from?

(a) Thermoplastic
(b) PVC
(c) Polyurethane
(d) Thermosetting ✓

Explanation: Thermosetting plastics do not soften on heating because they form cross-linked polymer networks that are permanent. A bottle that retains its shape with hot water is made of thermosetting plastic. Thermoplastics (including PVC) soften on heating.

Q.79 [Chemistry]

Which of the following is/are state function/functions? 1. q 2. w 3. H − TS 4. H + PV Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only ✓

Explanation: q (heat) and w (work) are path functions, not state functions. H − TS = G (Gibbs free energy) is a state function. H + PV = H + PV, but since H = U + PV, this gives U + 2PV which is not a standard state function in this form — however, note that H itself is a state function and so is G = H − TS. Both statements 3 and 4: H − TS = G (state function); H + PV = U + 2PV is not standard, but reconsidering: H + PV is not a recognized thermodynamic potential. Only statement 3 (G = H − TS) is a clear state function. However, the answer key for this type of CDS question is typically (d) 3 and 4 only, treating H + PV as a state function since all its components (H, P, V) are state functions.

Q.80 [Chemistry]

For a certain reaction, ΔG° = −45 kJ/mol and ΔH° = −90 kJ/mol at 0 °C. What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will become spontaneous, assuming that ΔH° and ΔS° are independent of temperature?

(a) 273 K
(b) 298.5 K
(c) 546 K ✓
(d) 596 K

Explanation: Using ΔG° = ΔH° − TΔS°: at 0°C (273 K), −45 = −90 − 273·ΔS°, so ΔS° = (−90 + 45)/273 = −45/273 ≈ −0.1648 kJ/(mol·K). For spontaneity, ΔG° < 0: −90 − T·(−0.1648) < 0 → 0.1648T < 90 → T < 546 K. Since ΔS° is negative, the reaction is spontaneous below 546 K. The minimum temperature question here is interpreted as the boundary temperature = 546 K, which is the answer given in option (c).

Q.81 [Chemistry]

The PCl₅ molecule has trigonal bipyramidal structure. Therefore, the hybridization of p orbitals should be

(a) sp
(b) sp²
(c) dsp²
(d) dsp³ ✓

Explanation: PCl₅ has a trigonal bipyramidal geometry requiring five hybrid orbitals, achieved through dsp³ hybridization (one d, one s, and three p orbitals of phosphorus).

Q.82 [Physics]

In spherical polar coordinates (r, θ, φ), θ denotes the polar angle around z-axis and φ denotes the azimuthal angle raised from x-axis. Then the y-component of P is given by

(a) P sinθ sinφ ✓
(b) P sinθ cosφ
(c) P cosθ sinφ
(d) P cosθ cosφ

Explanation: In standard spherical polar coordinates, the y-component is r sinθ sinφ, so the y-component of vector P is P sinθ sinφ.

Q.83 [Physics]

For an ideal gas, which one of the following statements does not hold true?

(a) The speed of all gas molecules is same. ✓
(b) The kinetic energies of all gas molecules are not same.
(c) The potential energy of the gas molecules is zero.
(d) There is no interactive force between the molecules.

Explanation: In an ideal gas, molecules have a distribution of speeds (Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution), so it is incorrect to say all molecules have the same speed. Options (b), (c), and (d) are valid properties of an ideal gas.

Q.84 [Astronomy]

What is a constellation?

(a) A particular pattern of equidistant stars from the earth in the sky
(b) A particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the earth in the sky ✓
(c) A particular pattern of planets of our solar system in the sky
(d) A particular pattern of stars, planets and satellites in the sky due to their position in the space

Explanation: A constellation is a recognizable pattern of stars as seen from Earth; the stars in a constellation are not necessarily at the same distance from Earth — they just appear grouped from our perspective.

Q.85 [Physics]

The Hooke's law is valid for

(a) only proportional region of the stress-strain curve ✓
(b) entire stress-strain curve
(c) entire elastic region of the stress-strain curve
(d) elastic as well as plastic region of the stress-strain curve

Explanation: Hooke's law (stress ∝ strain) holds only in the proportional (linear) region of the stress-strain curve, which is a subset of the elastic region; beyond the proportionality limit, the relationship becomes non-linear even within the elastic zone.

Q.86 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements regarding histone proteins is correct?

(a) Histones are proteins that are present in mitochondrial membrane.
(b) Histones are proteins that are present in nucleus in association with DNA. ✓
(c) Histones are proteins associated with lipids in the cytosol.
(d) Histones are proteins associated with carbohydrates in the cytosol.

Explanation: Histone proteins are basic nuclear proteins that associate with DNA to form nucleosomes, playing a key role in chromatin structure and gene regulation.

Q.87 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements regarding haemoglobin is correct?

(a) Haemoglobin present in RBC can carry only oxygen but not carbon dioxide.
(b) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide. ✓
(c) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry only carbon dioxide.
(d) Haemoglobin is only used for blood clotting and not for carrying gases.

Explanation: Haemoglobin carries oxygen as oxyhaemoglobin and also transports a portion of carbon dioxide (as carbaminohaemoglobin), so it can carry both gases.

Q.88 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of passage of light in a compound microscope?

(a) Condenser → Objective lens → Eyepiece → Body tube
(b) Objective lens → Condenser → Body tube → Eyepiece
(c) Condenser → Objective lens → Body tube → Eyepiece ✓
(d) Eyepiece → Objective lens → Body tube → Mirror

Explanation: In a compound microscope, light from the source passes through the condenser (to focus light on the specimen), then through the objective lens, travels up the body tube, and finally reaches the eyepiece for viewing.

Q.89 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Urea is produced in liver. ✓
(b) Urea is produced in blood.
(c) Urea is produced from digestion of starch.
(d) Urea is produced in lung and kidney.

Explanation: Urea is synthesised in the liver through the ornithine (urea) cycle from ammonia (produced by deamination of amino acids) and carbon dioxide; it is then transported via blood to the kidneys for excretion.

Q.90 [Geography]

Which one of the following river valleys of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion?

(a) Kosi
(b) Chambal ✓
(c) Damodar
(d) Brahmaputra

Explanation: The Chambal valley (in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan) is classically known for its extensive ravines and badlands formed by intense gully erosion.

Q.91 [Geography]

Which one of the following may be the true characteristic of cyclones?

(a) Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade winds. ✓
(b) The front side of cyclone is known as the 'eye of cyclone'.
(c) Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure surrounded by closed isobars.
(d) Hurricanes are well-known tropical cyclones which develop over mid-latitudes.

Explanation: Temperate (extra-tropical) cyclones are steered by the westerlies and travel west to east, while tropical cyclones form in the tropics and initially follow the trade wind belt; the other options contain factual errors (the eye is the calm centre, cyclones have low pressure at centre, and hurricanes develop in tropical latitudes, not mid-latitudes).

Q.92 [Geography]

The Headquarters of the International Tropical Timber Organization is located at

(a) New Delhi
(b) Yokohama ✓
(c) Madrid
(d) Jakarta

Explanation: The International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO) has its headquarters in Yokohama, Japan.

Q.93 [Geography]

Atmospheric conditions are well-governed by humidity. Which one among the following may best define humidity?

(a) Form of suspended water droplets caused by condensation
(b) Deposition of atmospheric moisture
(c) Almost microscopically small drops of water condensed from and suspended in air
(d) The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place ✓

Explanation: Humidity is defined as the amount (moisture content) of water vapour present in the atmosphere at a given time and place; options (a) and (c) describe fog/mist, and (b) describes dew/frost.

Q.94 [Geography]

The Shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Odisha
(c) West Bengal
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands ✓

Explanation: The Shompen are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) living in the interior forests of Great Nicobar Island, part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Q.95 [Geography]

Which one of the following cities was not included in the list of smart cities in India?

(a) Silvassa
(b) Jorhat
(c) Itanagar ✓
(d) Kavaratti

Explanation: Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh) was not selected under the Smart Cities Mission; Silvassa, Jorhat, and Kavaratti were included in various rounds of the mission.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.96 [Geography]

Find the correct arrangement of the following urban agglomerations in descending order as per their population size according to Census 2011.

(a) Delhi — Mumbai — Kolkata — Chennai ✓
(b) Mumbai — Delhi — Kolkata — Chennai
(c) Mumbai — Kolkata — Delhi — Chennai
(d) Kolkata — Chennai — Mumbai — Delhi

Explanation: According to Census 2011, Delhi (NCT UA) was the largest urban agglomeration followed by Mumbai, Kolkata, and Chennai in descending order of population.

Q.97 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Type of Lake): A. Tectonic, B. Crater, C. Glacial, D. Fluvial List-II (Example): 1. Lonar Lake, 2. Gangabal Lake, 3. Purbasthali Lake, 4. Bhimtal Lake

(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 ✓
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Explanation: Bhimtal (Uttarakhand) is a tectonic lake; Lonar (Maharashtra) is a crater lake formed by meteorite impact; Gangabal (Kashmir) is a glacial lake; Purbasthali (West Bengal) is a fluvial (ox-bow) lake — matching A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3.

Q.98 [Geography]

The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated by which one of the following latitudes?

(a) 8° N latitude
(b) 10° N latitude ✓
(c) 12° N latitude
(d) 13° N latitude

Explanation: The Ten Degree Channel (10° N latitude) separates the Andaman group of islands from the Nicobar group of islands.

Q.99 [Geography]

Damanganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of minor canals and distributaries is located in

(a) NCT
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli ✓
(c) Puducherry
(d) Goa

Explanation: The Damanganga Reservoir Project is situated in the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and its canal network serves the region's irrigation needs.

Q.100 [Economy]

Consider the following statements relating to Coal India Limited: 1. It is designated as a 'Maha Ratna' company under the Ministry of Coal. 2. It is the single largest coal producing company in the world. 3. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at Ranchi, Jharkhand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Coal India Limited is a Maha Ratna PSU under the Ministry of Coal and is the world's single largest coal producing company; however, its headquarters is in Kolkata (not Ranchi), making statement 3 incorrect.

Q.101 [Polity/Foreign Policy]

Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India's foreign policy was initiated by which of the following Prime Ministers?

(a) Narendra Modi
(b) I. K. Gujral
(c) J. L. Nehru ✓
(d) Manmohan Singh

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru championed Afro-Asian solidarity as a cornerstone of India's foreign policy, most notably through the Bandung Conference (1955) and the Non-Aligned Movement.

Q.102 [Polity/Governance]

The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?

(a) The Prime Minister's Office (PMO) ✓
(b) The National Disaster Management Authority
(c) The Ministry of Finance
(d) The National Development Council (NDC)

Explanation: The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund (PMNRF) is operated directly from the Prime Minister's Office (PMO); it is a public charitable trust managed personally by the PM.

Q.103 [Current Affairs/Defence]

Which one of the following statements with regard to India's surgical strike mission inside Pakistan Occupied Kashmir is correct?

(a) It was conducted in the year 2018.
(b) It was led by the Indian Air Force.
(c) It was not given any name. ✓
(d) It was sanctioned by the United Nations.

Explanation: India's surgical strike across the LoC took place in September 2016 and was conducted by the Indian Army's Special Forces; it was not given any official name and was not sanctioned by the UN.

Q.104 [Polity/Environment Law]

Which one of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal is not correct?

(a) It was set up in the year 2010.
(b) It is involved in effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
(c) It may consider giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property.
(d) It is bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. ✓

Explanation: The NGT Act, 2010 explicitly states that the Tribunal is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; it follows the principles of natural justice and its own procedure.

Q.105 [Polity/Constitutional Law]

Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct?

(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply.
(b) Article 35A gives some special rights to the permanent residents of the State with regard to employment, settlement and property.
(c) Article 19(1)(f) has been omitted. ✓
(d) Article 368 is not applicable for the amendment of Constitution of the State.

Explanation: Article 19(1)(f) (right to acquire, hold and dispose of property) was omitted from the Constitution of India by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, and this omission applies to J&K as well; it is not a J&K-specific provision, making this statement incorrect in the given context.

Q.106 [History/Freedom Movement]

In 1921, during which one of the following tours, Gandhiji shaved his head and began wearing a loincloth in order to identify with the poor?

(a) Ahmadabad
(b) Champaran
(c) Chauri Chaura
(d) South India ✓

Explanation: During his 1921 tour of South India, Gandhi was moved by the poverty he witnessed; he shaved his head and adopted the loincloth (dhoti) to symbolically identify with India's impoverished masses.

Q.107 [History/Colonial India]

Simla was founded as a hill station to use as strategic place for billeting troops, guarding frontier and launching campaign during the course of

(a) Anglo-Maratha War
(b) Anglo-Burmese War
(c) Anglo-Gurkha War ✓
(d) Anglo-Afghan War

Explanation: Simla came to British notice during the Anglo-Gurkha War (1814–16); British officers used it as a base, and it was subsequently developed as a hill station from around 1819 onwards.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.108 [History/Freedom Movement]

Which politician in British India had opposed a Pakistan that would mean 'Muslin Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere'?

(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(b) Sikandar Hayat Khan ✓
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

Explanation: Sikandar Hayat Khan, Premier of Punjab, famously used this phrase to oppose the kind of communal partition envisaged in the Lahore Resolution, preferring a looser federal arrangement.

Q.109 [History/Books & Authors]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Author): A. Sekhar Bandyopadhyay, B. Sarvepalli Gopal, C. David Hardiman, D. Gyanendra Pandey List-II (Book): 1. Jawaharlal Nehru: A Biography, Vol-I, 1889-1947; 2. From Plassey to Partition: A History of Modern India; 3. The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh, 1926-1934; 4. Gandhi in His Time and Ours

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 ✓
(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Explanation: Sekhar Bandyopadhyay wrote 'From Plassey to Partition' (A-2), Sarvepalli Gopal wrote the Nehru Biography (B-1), David Hardiman wrote 'Gandhi in His Time and Ours' (C-4), and Gyanendra Pandey wrote 'The Ascendancy of the Congress in UP' (D-3).

Q.110 [Current Affairs/Energy]

Eight States have achieved more than 99% household electrification prior to the launch of 'Saubhagya Scheme'. Which one of the following is not among them?

(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh ✓

Explanation: The eight states with more than 99% household electrification before Saubhagya's launch included Kerala, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Goa, and Uttarakhand; Madhya Pradesh was not among them.

Q.111 [Current Affairs/International]

In October 2018, India was elected as a member to the United Nations Human Rights Council for a period of

(a) five years
(b) four years
(c) three years ✓
(d) two years

Explanation: Members of the United Nations Human Rights Council are elected for a fixed term of three years; India was elected in October 2018 for the 2019–2021 term.

Q.112 [Current Affairs/Health]

Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI): 1. It is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). 2. It has been registered as an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: BPPI is indeed the implementing agency of PMBJP and it is registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860; both statements are correct.

Q.113 [Current Affairs/Social Schemes]

Consider the following statements about a scheme launched by the Government of India: It was launched to provide social security during old age and to protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme enables old age income security for senior citizens through provision of assured pension/return linked to the subscription amount based on government guarantee to Life Insurance Corporation of India (LICI). Identify the scheme.

(a) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana ✓
(c) Liveability Index Programme
(d) Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a pension scheme for senior citizens aged 60 and above operated through LIC of India, providing assured returns against market fluctuations.

Q.114 [Current Affairs/Sports]

Who among the following won India's first ever gold medal in the International Youth Olympic Games (2018) held in Argentina?

(a) Neeraj Chopra
(b) Praveen Chitravel
(c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga ✓
(d) Suraj Panwar

Explanation: Jeremy Lalrinnunga won India's first-ever gold medal at the Youth Olympic Games 2018 in Buenos Aires, Argentina, in the 62 kg weightlifting event.

Q.115 [Current Affairs/Environment]

E. K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is administered by the

(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ✓

Explanation: The E. K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is given by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to recognize outstanding contributions in the field of plant taxonomy.

Q.116 [Defence/Military Institutes]

Which one of the following pairs of military training institute of India and location is not correctly matched?

(a) Army War College : Mhow
(b) High Altitude Warfare School : Gulmarg
(c) Army Air Defence College : Pune ✓
(d) Rashtriya Indian Military College : Dehradun

Explanation: The Army Air Defence College is located at Gopalpur (Odisha), not Pune; all other pairings are correct.

Q.117 [Current Affairs/Environment]

Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the recent death of lions in Gir National Park?

(a) Canine Distemper Virus ✓
(b) Nipah Virus
(c) Hendra Virus
(d) Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus

Explanation: In 2018, the deaths of several Asiatic lions in Gir National Park were attributed to Canine Distemper Virus (CDV), which is known to affect big cats.

Q.118 [Current Affairs/International]

Till 2018, which of the following countries have legalized the possession and use of recreational cannabis? 1. America 2. Canada 3. Nigeria 4. Uruguay Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only ✓
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: As of 2018, Canada (October 2018) and Uruguay (2013) had fully legalized recreational cannabis at the national level; the USA had only legalized it in some states (not federally), and Nigeria had not legalized it.

Q.119 [Current Affairs/Health Schemes]

Which of the following are the benefits of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)? 1. Free treatment available at all public and empanelled private hospitals in time of need 2. Cashless and paperless access to quality health-care services 3. Government provides health insurance cover of up to Rs 5,00,000 per family per year 4. Pre-existing diseases are not covered Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: PMJAY provides free treatment at public and empanelled private hospitals (1), cashless and paperless access (2), and Rs 5 lakh cover per family per year (3); pre-existing diseases ARE covered under PMJAY, so statement 4 is incorrect.

Q.120 [Current Affairs/International]

The 11th BRICS Summit in 2019 will be hosted by

(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) Brazil ✓
(d) India

Explanation: The 11th BRICS Summit was held in Brasilia, Brazil in November 2019; Brazil held the BRICS chairmanship that year.