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CDS II 2019 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2019 (Session II) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [General Knowledge]

Which one of the following is the motto of NCC?

(a) Unity and Discipline ✓
(b) Unity and Integrity
(c) Unity and Command
(d) Unity and Service

Explanation: The motto of the National Cadet Corps (NCC) of India is 'Unity and Discipline', adopted in 1978.

Q.2 [Polity]

Which one of the following departments is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?

(a) Department of Official Languages
(b) Department of Border Management
(c) Department of Jammu and Kashmir Affairs
(d) Department of Legal Affairs ✓

Explanation: The Department of Legal Affairs is under the Ministry of Law and Justice, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Q.3 [Environment]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). 2. Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal Ministry in the Government of India for the UNCCD. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: India is indeed a signatory to UNCCD, but the nodal Ministry for UNCCD in India is the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change — not the Ministry of Home Affairs. So only statement 1 is correct.

Q.4 [Polity]

Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India has to be laid before the Parliament in respect of every financial year?

(a) Article 110
(b) Article 111
(c) Article 112 ✓
(d) Article 113

Explanation: Article 112 of the Constitution of India deals with the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget), which mandates laying the statement of estimated receipts and expenditure before Parliament every financial year.

Q.5 [International Relations]

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation was founded in

(a) Colombo
(b) Islamabad
(c) Kathmandu
(d) Dhaka ✓

Explanation: SAARC was founded in Dhaka, Bangladesh on 8 December 1985 when the heads of state of seven South Asian countries signed the SAARC Charter.

Q.6 [International Relations]

Which one of the following countries is not a founding member of the New Development Bank?

(a) Brazil
(b) Canada ✓
(c) Russia
(d) India

Explanation: The New Development Bank (BRICS Bank) was founded by Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (BRICS nations) in 2014. Canada is not a founding member.

Q.7 [Economy]

The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application designed, developed, owned and implemented by the

(a) Department of Financial Services
(b) Institute of Government Accounts and Finance
(c) Controller General of Accounts ✓
(d) National Institute of Financial Management

Explanation: PFMS is designed, developed, owned and implemented by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) under the Ministry of Finance to track fund flow and expenditure.

Q.8 [General Knowledge]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Institute): A. National Institute of Ayurveda B. National Institute of Homoeopathy C. National Institute of Unani Medicine D. National Institute of Siddha List II (Location): 1. Chennai 2. Bengaluru 3. Kolkata 4. Jaipur

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 ✓
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Explanation: National Institute of Ayurveda is in Jaipur, National Institute of Homoeopathy is in Kolkata, National Institute of Unani Medicine is in Bengaluru, and National Institute of Siddha is in Chennai — matching option (c): A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Q.9 [Economy]

Which of the following statements about 'Invest India' is/are correct? 1. It is a joint venture (not for profit) company. 2. It is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Invest India is a non-profit joint venture company set up by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) and it serves as India's official National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency. Both statements are correct.

Q.10 [General Knowledge]

The National Dope Testing Laboratory functions under

(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports ✓
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

Explanation: The National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) functions under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.

Q.11 [Current Affairs]

In how many phases was the general election, 2019 conducted in India?

(a) 6 phases
(b) 7 phases ✓
(c) 8 phases
(d) 9 phases

Explanation: The 2019 Indian General Elections (17th Lok Sabha elections) were conducted in 7 phases, from April 11 to May 19, 2019.

Q.12 [International Relations]

Which one of the following statements about the Organization of Islamic Cooperation is not correct?

(a) Its permanent Secretariat is located at Jeddah.
(b) It endeavours to safeguard and protect interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world.
(c) It is the largest inter-governmental organization of the world. ✓
(d) It has consultative and cooperative relations with the UN.

Explanation: The OIC is the second largest inter-governmental organization in the world after the United Nations, not the largest. The UN is the largest inter-governmental organization.

Q.13 [Sports]

Who among the following won the Italian Open Women's Tennis Singles Title, 2019?

(a) Karolina Pliskova
(b) Johanna Konta ✓
(c) Naomi Osaka
(d) Serena Williams

Explanation: Johanna Konta of Great Britain won the 2019 Italian Open (Internazionali BNL d'Italia) Women's Singles title, defeating Karolina Pliskova in the final.

Q.14 [Defence]

Which among the following IN ship(s) participated in the SIMBEX-19? 1. INS Kolkata 2. INS Shakti 3. INS Vikrant Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Explanation: SIMBEX-19 (Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise) was held in May 2019 and INS Kolkata and INS Shakti participated. INS Vikrant was still under construction at the time and did not participate.

Q.15 [Sports]

'Triples' is a new format of

(a) Boxing
(b) Judo ✓
(c) Chess
(d) Badminton

Explanation: 'Triples' is a new team format introduced in Judo, where three athletes from each side compete in a relay-style team event, introduced for inclusion in the Olympic Games.

Q.16 [Economy]

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee on Deepening Digital Payments appointed by the RBI?

(a) H.R. Khan
(b) Nandan Nilekani ✓
(c) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(d) Sanjay Jain

Explanation: The RBI appointed a High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments in January 2019, chaired by Nandan Nilekani, co-founder of Infosys and architect of Aadhaar.

Q.17 [International Relations]

"The Sasakawa Award" of United Nations is given in recognition of the work done in the field of

(a) Disaster Reduction ✓
(b) Peace Keeping
(c) Health Services
(d) Poverty Alleviation

Explanation: The UNDRR Sasakawa Award for Disaster Risk Reduction (formerly Sasakawa Award) is given by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction in recognition of outstanding contributions to disaster risk reduction.

Q.18 [Sports]

Why was India's G.S. Lakshmi in news recently?

(a) She was the first Indian to play cricket for an English County Club.
(b) She became the first female ICC match referee. ✓
(c) She was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for the year 2019.
(d) She was the recipient of the Booker Prize in the year 2019.

Explanation: G.S. Lakshmi became the first woman to be appointed as an ICC (International Cricket Council) match referee in 2019, a historic milestone for women in cricket administration.

Q.19 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following was elected as the President of Indonesia for the second term?

(a) Joko Widodo ✓
(b) Prabowo Subianto
(c) Sandiaga Uno
(d) Jusuf Kalla

Explanation: Joko Widodo (Jokowi) won the April 2019 Indonesian presidential election against challenger Prabowo Subianto, securing his second term as President of Indonesia.

Q.20 [Current Affairs]

In India, May 21 is observed as

(a) NRI Day
(b) National Youth Day
(c) National Technology Day
(d) National Anti-Terrorism Day ✓

Explanation: May 21 is observed as National Anti-Terrorism Day in India to commemorate the assassination of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi on May 21, 1991. National Technology Day is observed on May 11.

Q.21 [History]

Arrange the following in the chronological order of their implementation: • The Indian Factory Act (First) • The Vernacular Press Act • The Morley-Minto Reforms • The Cornwallis Code Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4, 2, 1, 3 ✓
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Explanation: Cornwallis Code (1793), Vernacular Press Act (1878), Indian Factory Act (1881), Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) — sequence is 4, 2, 1, 3.

Q.22 [Polity]

Article 371A of the Constitution of India provides special privileges to

(a) Nagaland ✓
(b) Mizoram
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Article 371A specifically grants special provisions to Nagaland, protecting its customary law and practices.

Q.23 [Polity]

How many Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organization Act, 1956?

(a) Eight
(b) Seven
(c) Six
(d) Five ✓

Explanation: The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 set up five Zonal Councils (Northern, Southern, Eastern, Western, and Central).

Q.24 [Polity]

Which provision of the Constitution of India provides that the President shall not be answerable to any Court in India for the exercise of powers of his office?

(a) Article 53
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 361 ✓
(d) Article 363

Explanation: Article 361 provides immunity to the President and Governors from court proceedings for acts done in the exercise of their official powers.

Q.25 [Polity]

Which law provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in English language?

(a) Article 145 of the Constitution of India
(b) Article 348 of the Constitution of India ✓
(c) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966
(d) An Act passed by the Parliament

Explanation: Article 348 of the Constitution mandates that the proceedings in the Supreme Court and all High Courts shall be conducted in the English language.

Q.26 [Polity]

The total number of members in the Union Council of Ministers in India shall not exceed

(a) 10% of the total number of members of the Parliament
(b) 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament
(c) 10% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha
(d) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha ✓

Explanation: Under Article 75(1A) inserted by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003, the total number of ministers including the Prime Minister shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Q.27 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the most noticeable characteristic of the Mediterranean climate?

(a) Limited geographical extent
(b) Dry summer ✓
(c) Dry winter
(d) Moderate temperature

Explanation: The Mediterranean climate is most distinctively characterised by dry, hot summers and mild, wet winters — the dry summer is its defining feature.

Q.28 [Geography]

Which one of the following rivers takes a 'U' turn at Namcha Barwa and enters India?

(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Brahmaputra ✓
(d) Subansiri

Explanation: The Brahmaputra (called Tsangpo in Tibet) makes a sharp U-turn around the Namcha Barwa peak before entering India through Arunachal Pradesh.

Q.29 [History]

What was the Dutt-Bradley thesis?

(a) The Working Committee of the Indian National Congress decided that Congress should play a crucial role in realising the independence of India
(b) The Socialist party decided to play foremost part in anti-imperialist struggle
(c) Revolutionary socialist Batukeshwar Dutt put forth a ten-point plan to work for the success of anti-imperialist front
(d) It was a Communist party document, according to which the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in realising the anti-imperialist people's front ✓

Explanation: The Dutt-Bradley thesis (1936) was a Communist Party of India document authored by R. Palme Dutt and Ben Bradley that advocated for a united anti-imperialist people's front with the National Congress playing a leading role.

Q.30 [History]

The khuntkatti tenure was prevalent in which one of the following regions of India during the British Colonial Rule?

(a) Bundelkhand
(b) Karnataka
(c) Chota Nagpur ✓
(d) Madras Presidency

Explanation: Khuntkatti was a tribal joint-ownership land tenure system prevalent in the Chota Nagpur region, practised by the Munda tribe.

Q.31 [General Knowledge]

Who was the author of the book Plagues and Peoples?

(a) William H. McNeill ✓
(b) W.I. Thomas
(c) Rachel Carson
(d) David Cannadine

Explanation: 'Plagues and Peoples' (1976) was written by historian William H. McNeill, examining the role of infectious diseases in shaping human history.

Q.32 [History]

Who among the following started the Indian Agriculture Service?

(a) Lord Curzon ✓
(b) William Bentinck
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Ripon

Explanation: The Imperial (Indian) Agricultural Service was established during Lord Curzon's tenure as Viceroy, following the recommendations of the Famine Commission.

Q.33 [History]

Chandimangala was composed in which one of the following languages during the 16th century CE?

(a) Sanskrit
(b) Tamil
(c) Bengali ✓
(d) Oriya

Explanation: Chandimangala is a genre of medieval Bengali literature; the 16th-century poet Mukundaram Chakravarti composed the notable 'Chandimangal' in Bengali.

Q.34 [History]

In December 1962, which Soviet leader declared that China was responsible for the Sino-Indian War of 1962?

(a) Khrushchev ✓
(b) Bulganin
(c) Suslov
(d) Malenkov

Explanation: Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev, in December 1962, publicly stated that China bore responsibility for provoking the Sino-Indian War, reflecting the Sino-Soviet split of that era.

Q.35 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements with regard to the 'Make in India' initiative is/are correct? • It was launched in the year 2018. • Its objective is to foster innovation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Make in India was launched on 25 September 2014 (not 2018), so Statement 1 is wrong. Fostering innovation is indeed one of its stated objectives, making Statement 2 correct.

Q.36 [Polity]

Which one of the following States does not have a Legislative Council?

(a) Karnataka
(b) Telangana
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Arunachal Pradesh ✓

Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh is a unicameral state and does not have a Legislative Council. Karnataka, Telangana, and Jammu and Kashmir (before its reorganisation) all had Legislative Councils.

Q.37 [Current Affairs]

What is SWAYAM?

(a) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds ✓
(b) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth Aspiring Minds
(c) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiration Minds
(d) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth of Aspiration Minds

Explanation: SWAYAM stands for Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds, an Indian government e-learning platform launched to provide free online education.

Q.38 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not enumerated in the Constitution of India as a fundamental duty of citizens of India?

(a) To safeguard public property
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment
(c) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
(d) To promote international peace and security ✓

Explanation: Promoting international peace and security is not listed as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A; it figures instead in the Directive Principles (Article 51). The other three options are explicitly listed as fundamental duties.

Q.39 [General Knowledge]

Who among the following in his book The Managerial Revolution argued that a "managerial class dominated all industrial societies, both capitalist and communist, by virtue of its technical and scientific knowledge and its administrative skills"?

(a) James Burnham ✓
(b) Robert Michels
(c) Gaetano Mosca
(d) Vilfredo Pareto

Explanation: James Burnham's 'The Managerial Revolution' (1941) argued that a new managerial class was displacing capitalists and socialist bureaucrats alike to dominate modern industrial societies.

Q.40 [Polity]

Which one of the following conditions laid down in the Constitution of India for the issue of a writ of Quo Warranto is not correct?

(a) The office must be public and it must be created by a Statute
(b) The office must be a substantive one
(c) There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute in appointing such person to that office
(d) The appointment is in tune with a statutory provision ✓

Explanation: A writ of Quo Warranto is issued when a person holds a public office without legal authority — option (d) states the appointment is 'in tune with a statutory provision', which is the opposite condition and therefore incorrect as a prerequisite for the writ.

Q.41 [Economics]

Which one of the following equals Personal Disposable Income?

(a) Personal Income − Direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees, fines, etc. ✓
(b) Private Income − Saving of Private Corporate Sectors − Corporation Tax
(c) Private Income − Taxes
(d) Total expenditure of Households − Income Tax − Gifts received

Explanation: Personal Disposable Income is defined as Personal Income minus direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees and fines. Option (b) describes National Income minus certain components, not personal disposable income.

Q.42 [Economics]

The working of the price mechanism in a free-market economy refers to which one of the following?

(a) The interplay of the forces of demand and supply ✓
(b) Determination of the inflation rate in the economy
(c) Determination of the economy's propensity to consume
(d) Determination of the economy's full employment output

Explanation: The price mechanism in a free-market economy works through the interaction of demand and supply forces, which together determine the price and quantity of goods and services.

Q.43 [Economics]

Indexation is a method whose use can be associated with which one of the following?

(a) Controlling inflation
(b) Nominal GDP estimation
(c) Measurement of savings rate
(d) Fixing of wage compensation ✓

Explanation: Indexation is a method of linking wages, salaries, or other payments to a price index so that they automatically adjust with inflation, i.e., it is primarily used for fixing wage compensation to maintain real value.

Q.44 [Physics]

A car undergoes a uniform circular motion. The acceleration of the car is

(a) zero
(b) a non-zero constant
(c) a non-zero but not a constant ✓
(d) None of the above

Explanation: In uniform circular motion, the speed is constant but the direction of velocity changes continuously. The centripetal acceleration has constant magnitude but its direction changes continuously, so it is non-zero but not constant (as a vector).

Q.45 [Physics]

An echo is heard after 5 seconds of the production of sound which moves with a speed of 340 m/s. What is the distance of the mountain from the source of sound which produced the echo?

(a) 0.085 km
(b) 0.85 km ✓
(c) 0.17 km
(d) 1.7 km

Explanation: Distance = (speed × time) / 2 = (340 × 5) / 2 = 850 m = 0.85 km. The factor of 2 accounts for the sound travelling to the mountain and back.

Q.46 [Physics]

A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of energy are consumed in 30 days?

(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 30 ✓
(d) 300

Explanation: Energy = Power × Time = 100 W × 10 h/day × 30 days = 30,000 Wh = 30 kWh = 30 units (1 unit = 1 kWh).

Q.47 [Polity]

Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?

(a) It relates to the special provision for administration of certain areas in the States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
(b) Tribal advisory councils are to be constituted to give advice under the Fifth Schedule.
(c) The Governor is not authorized to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by, or among members of the Scheduled Tribes. ✓
(d) The Governors of the States in which there are scheduled areas have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such areas.

Explanation: Under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor is indeed authorized to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of Scheduled Tribes. Hence statement (c) is incorrect.

Q.48 [Polity]

Consider the following statements with regard to the formation of new States and alteration of boundaries of existing States: 1. Parliament may increase the area of any State. 2. Parliament may diminish the area of any State. 3. Parliament cannot alter the boundary of any State. 4. Parliament cannot alter the name of any State. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 ✓
(d) 4 only

Explanation: Under Article 3 of the Constitution, Parliament can increase or diminish the area of any State and alter its name. Therefore statements 3 and 4 are incorrect.

Q.49 [Polity]

Consider the following statements: 1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendations of the Governor of the concerned State. 2. As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High Courts have original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction at the State level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Explanation: The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor (not the President) under Article 165. High Courts do not have advisory jurisdiction; advisory jurisdiction belongs to the Supreme Court under Article 143. Hence both statements are incorrect.

Q.50 [Polity]

Which one of the following forms of Constitution contains the features of both the Unitary and Federal Constitution?

(a) Unitary
(b) Federal
(c) Quasi-Federal ✓
(d) Quasi-Unitary

Explanation: A Quasi-Federal constitution combines features of both unitary and federal systems. India's Constitution is a classic example, described as federal in structure but unitary in spirit.

Q.51 [Geography]

Which one of the following Indian States has no international boundary?

(a) Bihar
(b) Chhattisgarh ✓
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Meghalaya

Explanation: Chhattisgarh is a landlocked state in central India and shares no international boundary. Bihar borders Nepal, Uttarakhand borders Nepal and China, and Meghalaya borders Bangladesh.

Q.52 [Geography]

Which one of the following Indian cities is not located on a river bank?

(a) Agra
(b) Bhagalpur
(c) Bhopal ✓
(d) Kanpur

Explanation: Bhopal is not situated on a river bank; it is known for its lakes. Agra is on the Yamuna, Bhagalpur is on the Ganga, and Kanpur is also on the Ganga.

Q.53 [Geography]

Where are Jhumri Telaiya and Mandar Hills situated?

(a) Jharkhand ✓
(b) Bihar
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal

Explanation: Both Jhumri Telaiya (famous for radio requests) and Mandar Hills are located in Jharkhand (formerly part of Bihar before the state was carved out in 2000).

Q.54 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not correct regarding South India?

(a) Diurnal range of temperature is less
(b) Annual range of temperature is less
(c) Temperature is high throughout the year
(d) Extreme climatic conditions are found ✓

Explanation: South India, being close to the equator and surrounded by sea on three sides, experiences moderate climate with less diurnal and annual range of temperature and no extreme climatic conditions. Hence statement (d) is not correct.

Q.55 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements regarding sex composition is not correct?

(a) In some countries, sex ratio is expressed as number of males per thousand females.
(b) In India, sex ratio is expressed as number of females per thousand males.
(c) At world level, sex ratio is about 102 males per 100 females.
(d) In Asia, there is high sex ratio. ✓

Explanation: Asia actually has a low sex ratio (fewer females per thousand males) due to son preference and gender discrimination in several Asian countries. Hence statement (d) is not correct.

Q.56 [Geography]

Who among the following has given the concept of Human Development?

(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq ✓
(c) Sukhamoy Chakravarty
(d) G.S. Chaddha

Explanation: The concept of Human Development was pioneered by Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq, who worked with UNDP to develop the Human Development Index (HDI) in 1990.

Q.57 [Geography]

Which one of the following regions is an important supplier of citrus fruits?

(a) Equatorial region
(b) Mediterranean region ✓
(c) Desert region
(d) Subhumid region

Explanation: The Mediterranean region is the world's most important supplier of citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, and grapefruits, owing to its warm, dry summers and mild, wet winters.

Q.58 [History]

Who were the Nayanars?

(a) Those who were immersed in devotion to Vishnu
(b) Those who were devotees of Buddha
(c) Leaders who were devotees of Shiva ✓
(d) Leaders who were devotees of Basaveshwara

Explanation: The Nayanars were Tamil poet-saints (63 in number) who were ardent devotees of Shiva and played a key role in the Bhakti movement in South India between the 6th and 9th centuries CE.

Q.59 [History]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Ethnic Segment): A. Maruta Makkal, B. Kuravan Makkal, C. Mullai Makkal, D. Neytl Makkal List II (Related Occupational Pattern): 1. Pastoralists, 2. Fishing people, 3. Ploughmen, 4. Hill people Code:

(a) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(b) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(c) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2 ✓
(d) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

Explanation: In Tamil Sangam geography: Marudam (fertile plains) — Maruta Makkal are Ploughmen (3); Kurinji (hills) — Kuravan Makkal are Hill people (4); Mullai (forests/pastoral) — Mullai Makkal are Pastoralists (1); Neytal (coastal) — Neytl Makkal are Fishing people (2). Hence A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2.

Q.60 [History]

Who among the following Mughal emperors was a follower of the Naqshbandiyya leader, Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar?

(a) Babur ✓
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Jahangir

Explanation: Babur was a devoted follower of the Naqshbandiyya Sufi order and had a strong connection to Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar, the prominent Naqshbandi leader from Central Asia whose spiritual influence shaped Babur's religious outlook.

Q.61 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1919 is not correct?

(a) It extended the practice of communal representation.
(b) It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature. ✓
(c) It is also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.
(d) It paved the way for federalism by clearly separating the responsibilities of the Centre and the Provinces.

Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced dyarchy in provinces but did NOT make the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature; the Central Executive remained responsible to the Secretary of State in London, not the Legislature.

Q.62 [Polity]

The concept of 'Four Pillar State', free from district magistracy for India was suggested by

(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia ✓
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose

Explanation: Ram Manohar Lohia proposed the concept of a 'Four Pillar State' (Chaukhamba Raj) where power would be devolved to four levels — village, district, state, and centre — with abolition of the district magistracy.

Q.63 [Polity]

Which one among the following is not a part of the Fundamental Rights (Part III) of the Constitution of India?

(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
(b) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
(c) Participation of workers in management of industries ✓
(d) Practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

Explanation: Participation of workers in management of industries is a Directive Principle of State Policy (Article 43A), not a Fundamental Right; the other three options are contained in Part III (Articles 23, 24, and 19 respectively).

Q.64 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a geographical requirement for cultivation of cotton?

(a) Temperature reaching 25°C or more in summer
(b) Moderate to light rainfall
(c) Medium loam soil with good drainage ✓
(d) A growing period of at least 100 frost-free days

Explanation: Cotton grows best in black cotton soil (regur soil) which has high clay content and water-retaining capacity, not medium loam soil; the other conditions — high temperature, light to moderate rainfall, and at least 100 frost-free days — are genuine requirements.

Q.65 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements regarding temperate coniferous forest biome is not correct?

(a) They are characterized by very little undergrowth.
(b) They have a growing period of 50 to 100 days in a year.
(c) There is low variation in annual temperature. ✓
(d) There is high range in spatial distribution of annual precipitation.

Explanation: Temperate coniferous (boreal/taiga) forests experience high seasonal temperature variation — bitterly cold winters and warm summers — so the statement that there is low variation in annual temperature is incorrect.

Q.66 [Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Peak): A. Anaimudi, B. Doddabetta, C. Dhupgarh, D. Guru Shikhar List II (Name of Hill): 1. Nilgiri, 2. Satpura, 3. Aravalli, 4. Annamalai Code:

(a) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(b) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
(c) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3 ✓
(d) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3

Explanation: Anaimudi is in Annamalai Hills (4), Doddabetta is in Nilgiris (1), Dhupgarh is the highest peak of Satpura range (2), and Guru Shikhar is the highest peak of Aravalli range (3), giving A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3.

Q.67 [Geography]

Coral reefs are not found in which one of the following regions?

(a) Lakshadweep Islands
(b) Gulf of Kachchh
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Gulf of Cambay ✓

Explanation: The Gulf of Cambay (Khambhat) has turbid, muddy waters with high tidal range and silt deposition, conditions unfavorable for coral growth; coral reefs are found around Lakshadweep, Gulf of Kachchh, and Gulf of Mannar.

Q.68 [Geography]

In which one of the following States is jute not significantly cultivated?

(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Odisha
(d) Andhra Pradesh ✓

Explanation: Jute cultivation in India is concentrated in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region; West Bengal, Assam, and Odisha are major producers, while Andhra Pradesh does not have significant jute cultivation.

Q.69 [History]

Consider the following statements: 1. According to Mahavamsa, Ashoka turned to the Buddha's dhamma when his nephew Nigrodha preached the doctrine to him. 2. Divyavadana ascribes Ashoka being drawn to the Buddha's teaching to the influence of Samudra, a merchant-turned monk. 3. Dipavamsa speaks of Samudra, the 12-year-old son of a merchant, as the key figure in Ashoka's coming under the influence of the Buddhist dhamma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Mahavamsa does attribute Ashoka's conversion to the preaching of Nigrodha. Statement 2 is incorrect as Divyavadana attributes it to Samudra but describes him differently. Statement 3 attributes the story of Samudra to Dipavamsa but the details about him being 12 years old and key figure belong to Divyavadana, not Dipavamsa; only statement 1 is clearly correct.

Q.70 [History]

Name the site that gives us valuable information about India's maritime links on the Coromandel coast.

(a) Bharuch
(b) Karur
(c) Arikamedu ✓
(d) Anuradhapura

Explanation: Arikamedu near Puducherry on the Coromandel coast is a well-known early historic port site that has yielded Mediterranean amphorae, Roman pottery, and coins, providing valuable evidence of India's maritime trade links with Rome.

Q.71 [Biology/Ecology]

Where are the largest quantity of cichlids found in India?

(a) Backwaters of Kerala ✓
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Narmada
(d) Godavari

Explanation: Cichlids in India are primarily found in the backwaters and coastal waters of Kerala (Kerala backwaters), where the pearl spot (Etroplus suratensis), a native cichlid, is found in the largest quantities.

Q.72 [Geography]

Which Greek philosopher coined the term 'Geography' in the 3rd century B.C.E.?

(a) Euclid
(b) Plato
(c) Eratosthenes ✓
(d) Cleo

Explanation: Eratosthenes of Cyrene (276–194 BCE) is credited with coining the term 'Geography' (geographia) and is also known for calculating the Earth's circumference with remarkable accuracy.

Q.73 [History]

Who is the author of the 16th-century Sanskrit text Vraja Bhakti Vilasa, which focuses on the Braj region in North India?

(a) Todar Mal
(b) Narayana Bhatta ✓
(c) Chaitanya
(d) Rupa Goswami

Explanation: Narayana Bhatta (1531–1600 CE) authored the Vraja Bhakti Vilasa, a Sanskrit text that describes the sacred sites and devotional practices of the Braj region; he was a prominent figure of the Vaishnava tradition at Vrindavan.

Q.74 [Physics]

Bose-Einstein Condensate is

(a) solid state of matter
(b) fifth state of matter ✓
(c) plasma
(d) state of condensed matter

Explanation: Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC), first predicted by Satyendra Nath Bose and Albert Einstein, is considered the fifth state of matter (after solid, liquid, gas, and plasma), occurring at temperatures near absolute zero.

Q.75 [Physics]

The rate of evaporation of liquid does not depend upon

(a) temperature
(b) its surface area exposed to the atmosphere
(c) its mass ✓
(d) humidity

Explanation: The rate of evaporation depends on temperature, surface area exposed, humidity, and wind speed; the mass of the liquid does not directly affect the rate of evaporation (only the total amount that can evaporate).

Q.76 [Physics]

Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment on thin gold foil was responsible for the discovery of

(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) atomic nucleus ✓
(d) neutron

Explanation: Rutherford's gold foil experiment (1909–1911) showed that most alpha particles passed through but a few were deflected at large angles, leading to the discovery of the atomic nucleus — a small, dense, positively charged centre.

Q.77 [Biology]

Food chain is

(a) relationship between autotrophic organisms
(b) exchange of genetic material between two organisms
(c) passage of food (and thus energy) from one organism to another ✓
(d) modern entrepreneur establishment providing food outlets

Explanation: A food chain describes the linear transfer of energy and nutrients from one organism to the next through feeding relationships, starting from producers to herbivores to carnivores.

Q.78 [Biology]

Which one of the following is active transport?

(a) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from respiration. ✓
(b) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient without the use of energy.
(c) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from photosynthesis.
(d) It is the movement of a substance along a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from respiration.

Explanation: Active transport is the movement of molecules against their concentration gradient (from low to high concentration), requiring energy in the form of ATP generated by cellular respiration.

Q.79 [Biology]

Chlorophyll in photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria is associated with

(a) plastids
(b) membranous vesicles ✓
(c) nucleoids
(d) chromosomes

Explanation: Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles like plastids (chloroplasts); in photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria (e.g., cyanobacteria), chlorophyll is associated with membranous vesicles or invaginations of the plasma membrane called thylakoids or chromatophores.

Q.80 [Economics]

What do you mean by 'Demographic Dividend'?

(a) A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population ✓
(b) A rise in the rate of literacy due to development of educational institutions in different parts of the country
(c) A rise in the standard of living of the people due to the growth of alternative livelihood practices
(d) A rise in the gross employment ratio of a country due to government policies

Explanation: Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population's age structure, specifically when the share of the working-age population (15–64 years) is larger relative to dependents, boosting productivity and savings.

Q.81 [Biology]

Which one of the following organisms is responsible for sleeping sickness?

(a) Leishmania
(b) Trypanosoma ✓
(c) Ascaris
(d) Helicobacter

Explanation: Sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis) is caused by Trypanosoma brucei, transmitted by the tsetse fly. Leishmania causes leishmaniasis, not sleeping sickness.

Q.82 [Biology]

Which one of the following body parts/organs of the human body does not have smooth muscles?

(a) Ureters
(b) Iris of eye
(c) Bronchi of lungs
(d) Biceps ✓

Explanation: Biceps is a skeletal (voluntary/striated) muscle, not smooth muscle. Ureters, iris of the eye, and bronchi all contain smooth (involuntary) muscle.

Q.83 [Agriculture/Biology]

What is Inter-cropping?

(a) It is the time period between two cropping seasons.
(b) It is growing of two or more crops in random mixture.
(c) It is growing of two or more crops in definite row patterns. ✓
(d) It is growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession.

Explanation: Inter-cropping is defined as growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in definite row patterns. Mixed cropping involves random mixture, while crop rotation involves pre-planned succession.

Q.84 [Biology/Science]

Magnification is

(a) actual size of specimen / observed size
(b) observed size of specimen / actual size ✓
(c) actual size of specimen − observed size
(d) actual size of specimen × observed size

Explanation: Magnification = observed (image) size / actual size of the specimen. It tells how many times larger the image appears compared to the real object.

Q.85 [Biology]

Which one of the following cell organelles is known as 'suicide bags' of a cell?

(a) Lysosomes ✓
(b) Plastids
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Mitochondria

Explanation: Lysosomes are called 'suicide bags' because they contain hydrolytic enzymes that can digest the cell's own components during autolysis or when the cell is damaged.

Q.86 [Economics]

Which one of the following statements with regard to economic models is not correct?

(a) They involve simplification of complex processes.
(b) They represent the whole or a part of a theory.
(c) They can be expressed only through equations. ✓
(d) They help in gaining an insight into cause and effect.

Explanation: Economic models can be expressed through diagrams, graphs, verbal descriptions, and equations — not only through equations. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.

Q.87 [Economics]

The value of the slope of a normal demand curve is

(a) positive
(b) negative ✓
(c) zero
(d) infinity

Explanation: A normal (downward-sloping) demand curve has a negative slope because price and quantity demanded are inversely related — as price rises, demand falls.

Q.88 [Economics]

Which one of the following is an example of a price floor?

(a) Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Jowar in India ✓
(b) Subsidy given to farmers to buy fertilizers
(c) Price paid by people to buy goods from ration shops
(d) Maximum Retail Price (MRP) printed on the covers/packets of goods sold in India

Explanation: A price floor is a government-set minimum price. MSP (Minimum Support Price) is a classic example of a price floor — it guarantees farmers a minimum price for their produce. MRP is a price ceiling, not a floor.

Q.89 [Economics]

Which one of the following factors is not considered in determining the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India?

(a) Cost of production
(b) Price trends in international and domestic markets
(c) Cost of living index ✓
(d) Inter-crop price parity

Explanation: MSP in India is determined based on cost of production, demand-supply situation, price trends, inter-crop price parity, and terms of trade. Cost of living index is not an official criterion used by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

Q.90 [Economics]

Which one of the following is not a dimension of the Human Development Index?

(a) A long and healthy life
(b) Knowledge
(c) Access to banking and other financial provisions ✓
(d) A decent standard of living

Explanation: The UNDP's HDI has three dimensions: health (long and healthy life), education (knowledge), and standard of living (decent living standard measured by GNI per capita). Access to banking is not an HDI dimension.

Q.91 [Economics]

Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio can be associated with which one of the following measurements in economy?

(a) Rate of inflation
(b) Poverty index
(c) Income inequality ✓
(d) Personal income

Explanation: The Gini coefficient is a statistical measure of income or wealth inequality within a nation. A value of 0 represents perfect equality and 1 represents perfect inequality.

Q.92 [Chemistry/Physics]

Consider the following statements: 1. Particles of matter intermix on their own. 2. Particles of matter have force acting between them. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Particles of matter have intermolecular forces acting between them (statement 2), and they spontaneously intermix through the process of diffusion (statement 1).

Q.93 [Physics/Chemistry]

Rate of evaporation increases with

(a) an increase of surface area ✓
(b) an increase in humidity
(c) a decrease in wind speed
(d) a decrease of temperature

Explanation: Evaporation rate increases with greater surface area (more molecules exposed), higher temperature, lower humidity, and higher wind speed. An increase in humidity or a decrease in wind speed/temperature reduces evaporation.

Q.94 [Physics]

If an object is at rest, then the time (X-axis) versus distance (Y-axis) graph

(a) is vertical
(b) is horizontal ✓
(c) has 45° positive slope
(d) has 45° negative slope

Explanation: If an object is at rest, its distance does not change with time. On a time (X-axis) vs distance (Y-axis) graph, this appears as a horizontal line (distance remains constant as time increases).

Q.95 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statements about mixture: 1. A substance can be separated into other kinds of matter by any physical process. 2. Dissolved sodium chloride can be separated from water by the physical process of evaporation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — a pure substance (element or compound) cannot be separated into other kinds of matter by physical processes; only mixtures can. Statement 2 is correct — dissolved NaCl can be separated from water by evaporation (a physical process).

Q.96 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Elements are defined by the number of protons they possess.
(b) Isobars are atoms having the same atomic number but different mass number. ✓
(c) The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of nucleons in its nucleus.
(d) Valency is the combining capacity of an atom.

Explanation: Isobars are atoms of different elements that have the same mass number but different atomic numbers — not the same atomic number. Isotopes share the same atomic number. Hence statement (b) is incorrect.

Q.97 [Physics]

If the speed of a moving magnet inside a coil increases, the electric current in the coil

(a) increases ✓
(b) decreases
(c) reverses
(d) remains the same

Explanation: By Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, the induced EMF (and hence current) is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux. Increasing the speed of the magnet increases the rate of flux change, thereby increasing the induced current.

Q.98 [Physics]

The frequency (in Hz) of a note that is one octave higher than 500 Hz is

(a) 375
(b) 750
(c) 1000 ✓
(d) 2000

Explanation: One octave higher means the frequency doubles. Therefore, one octave above 500 Hz = 500 × 2 = 1000 Hz.

Q.99 [Polity]

Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India are not correct? 1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the President of India. 3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed from his office in the like manner as the President of India. 4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4 ✓

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong — the President resigns to the Vice-President, not the Chief Justice. Statement 2 is correct — the Vice-President resigns to the President. Statement 3 is wrong — the CAG is removed like a Supreme Court judge (by Parliament), not like the President. Statement 4 is wrong — a Supreme Court judge resigns by addressing the President, not the Chief Justice. Thus statements 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

Q.100 [Polity]

Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in

(a) creation of new States
(b) declaring a war
(c) financial emergency
(d) authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List ✓

Explanation: Under Article 249, only Rajya Sabha (by a 2/3 majority resolution) can authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest — this is an exclusive power of Rajya Sabha.

Q.101 [Geography]

The term soil impoverishment relates to which one of the following?

(a) Soil erosion
(b) Soil deposition
(c) Soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients ✓
(d) Soil getting enriched with plant nutrients

Explanation: Soil impoverishment specifically refers to the depletion or deficiency of essential plant nutrients in the soil, making it infertile and unable to support healthy plant growth.

Q.102 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the correct sequential phase in the successional development of vegetation community in a habitat?

(a) Migration, Reaction, Stabilization and Nudation
(b) Migration, Stabilization, Reaction and Nudation
(c) Nudation, Migration, Reaction and Stabilization ✓
(d) Reaction, Migration, Stabilization and Nudation

Explanation: Ecological succession follows the sequence: Nudation (disturbance/bare area creation), Migration (arrival of pioneer species), Reaction (species modify habitat), and Stabilization (climax community established).

Q.103 [Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Soil type): A. Oxisols, B. Vertisols, C. Histosols, D. Entisols List II (Major characteristic): 1. Very rich in organic matter, 2. Soil lacking horizons, 3. Very old and highly weathered, 4. Rich in clay content and highly basic Code: (a) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2 (b) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2 (c) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3 (d) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

(a) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(b) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2 ✓
(c) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(d) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

Explanation: Oxisols are very old and highly weathered tropical soils (3); Vertisols are rich in clay (smectite) and highly basic (4); Histosols are very rich in organic matter/peat (1); Entisols are recently formed soils lacking distinct horizons (2).

Q.104 [Geography]

Which one of the following mountains separates Black Sea and Caspian Sea?

(a) Urals
(b) Caucasus ✓
(c) Carpathians
(d) Balkan mountains

Explanation: The Caucasus Mountains run between the Black Sea to the west and the Caspian Sea to the east, forming a natural boundary between Europe and Asia in that region.

Q.105 [Geography]

Rains caused by thunderstorms during the hot weather season (mid-March to mid-June) in Karnataka are called

(a) Kalbaisakhi
(b) Mango showers ✓
(c) Loo
(d) Cherry blossoms

Explanation: Mango showers (also called blossom showers) are pre-monsoon thunderstorm rains in Karnataka and Kerala during March–June that help in the ripening of mangoes; Kalbaisakhi is associated with West Bengal.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.106 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the largest fresh water lake in India?

(a) Chilika
(b) Loktak
(c) Dal
(d) Wular ✓

Explanation: Wular Lake in Jammu & Kashmir is the largest freshwater lake in India; Chilika is a brackish-water lagoon, not a freshwater lake.

Q.107 [History]

Statement I: The Greek travellers were most impressed by the fertility of India's soil and the energy and ability of her cultivators. Statement II: Ancient India knew the use of manure. Code: (a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are true: Greek accounts (e.g., Megasthenes) praised India's fertile soil and industrious farmers, and ancient Indian texts confirm knowledge of manure use — Statement II directly explains the fertility that impressed Greek travellers.

Q.108 [History]

Statement I: Non-cooperation began in Punjab with the student movement inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai in January 1921. Statement II: The Sikh dominated central Punjab countryside was stirred by the powerful Akali upsurge. Code: (a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are individually true: Lala Lajpat Rai inspired non-cooperation in Punjab and the Akali movement did stir Sikh-dominated Punjab, but the Akali upsurge is a separate phenomenon and not the explanation for the student movement led by Lajpat Rai.

Q.109 [History]

Statement I: The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 failed to bring under its wing any Kisan Sabhas. Statement II: The Oudh Kisan Sabha asked the Kisans to refuse till bedakhli land, not to offer hari and begar. Code: (a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true ✓

Explanation: Statement I is false — the Oudh Kisan Sabha actually succeeded in bringing numerous local Kisan Sabhas under its umbrella and grew rapidly. Statement II is true — the Sabha did make these demands on behalf of kisans regarding bedakhli land and begar.

Q.110 [History]

Statement I: The United Provinces during Non-Cooperation became one of the strongest bases of the Congress. Statement II: The literary outcrop of Non-Cooperation in Bengal was quite meagre compared to the days of the Swadeshi agitation. Code: (a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are individually true: UP was indeed a major Congress stronghold during Non-Cooperation, and Bengal's literary output during Non-Cooperation was comparatively less than during the Swadeshi movement — but these two facts are unrelated to each other.

Q.111 [History]

Who were Alvars?

(a) Those who immersed in devotion to Vishnu ✓
(b) Devotees of Shiva
(c) Those who worshipped abstract form of God
(d) Devotees of Shakti

Explanation: Alvars were Tamil Vaishnava poet-saints (6th–9th century CE) who were deeply immersed in devotion (bhakti) to Vishnu; the word 'Alvar' means 'one who is immersed in God'.

Q.112 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is monatomic?

(a) Hydrogen
(b) Sulphur
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Helium ✓

Explanation: Helium is a noble gas and exists as a monatomic element (single atoms); hydrogen exists as H2, sulphur as S8, and phosphorus as P4 under normal conditions.

Q.113 [Chemistry]

In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms

(a) forming a three-dimensional structure
(b) in the same plane giving a hexagonal array ✓
(c) in the same plane giving a square array
(d) in the same plane giving a pentagonal array

Explanation: In graphite, each carbon atom forms three covalent bonds (sp2 hybridization) with three neighbouring carbon atoms in the same plane, creating a hexagonal (honeycomb) layered structure.

Q.114 [Chemistry]

Soap solution used for cleaning purpose appears cloudy. This is due to the fact that soap micelles can

(a) refract light
(b) scatter light ✓
(c) diffract light
(d) polarize light

Explanation: Soap micelles in solution form a colloidal dispersion (Tyndall effect) that scatters visible light, making the solution appear cloudy or turbid.

Q.115 [Physics]

People prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer season. This is due to the fact that cotton clothes are

(a) good absorbers of water ✓
(b) good conveyors of heat
(c) good radiators of heat
(d) good absorbers of heat

Explanation: Cotton fibres are hygroscopic and absorb sweat (water) from the body efficiently, allowing it to evaporate and thereby keeping the body cool in summer.

Q.116 [Chemistry]

Employing Chromatography, one cannot separate

(a) radio-isotopes ✓
(b) colours from a dye
(c) pigments from a natural colour
(d) drugs from blood

Explanation: Chromatography separates substances based on their chemical and physical properties (polarity, size), but radio-isotopes of the same element are chemically identical and thus cannot be separated by chromatography.

Q.117 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statement: "Atomic number of an element is a more fundamental property than its atomic mass." Who among the following scientists has made the above statement?

(a) Dmitri Mendeleev
(b) Henry Moseley ✓
(c) J.J. Thomson
(d) Ernest Rutherford

Explanation: Henry Moseley, through his X-ray spectroscopy experiments (1913), demonstrated that atomic number (nuclear charge) is the more fundamental property of an element than atomic mass, which led to the modern periodic law.

Q.118 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following acids is also known as Vitamin C?

(a) Methanoic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid ✓
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Tartaric acid

Explanation: Ascorbic acid is the chemical name for Vitamin C; it is an essential water-soluble vitamin found in citrus fruits and is vital for collagen synthesis.

Q.119 [Biology]

Which one of the following is not found in animal cell?

(a) Free ribosomes
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Nucleolus
(d) Cell wall ✓

Explanation: Animal cells lack a cell wall; cell walls are characteristic of plant cells (made of cellulose), fungal cells (chitin), and bacterial cells (peptidoglycan), but are absent in animal cells.

Q.120 [Biology]

Marsilea, Fern and Horse-tail are examples of which one of the following plant groups?

(a) Pteridophyta ✓
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Angiosperms

Explanation: Marsilea (water fern), Fern, and Horsetail (Equisetum) are all vascular, non-seed bearing plants classified under Pteridophyta, which are characterized by the presence of true roots, stems, and leaves but reproduce via spores.