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CDS I 2020 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2020 (Session I) Questions: 119 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Chemistry]

Scattering of α-particles by a thin gold foil suggests the presence of

(a) electron in an atom
(b) proton in an atom
(c) positively charged nucleus at the centre of an atom ✓
(d) isotopes of gold

Explanation: Rutherford's gold foil experiment showed that most alpha particles passed through but a few were deflected at large angles, proving atoms have a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at the centre.

Q.2 [Chemistry]

The elements of which of the following pairs are isobars?

(a) ¹H and ²H
(b) ¹H and ³H
(c) ¹²C and ¹⁴C
(d) ⁴⁰Ar and ⁴⁰Ca ✓

Explanation: Isobars are atoms of different elements with the same mass number. ⁴⁰Ar and ⁴⁰Ca both have mass number 40 but different atomic numbers (18 and 20), making them isobars.

Q.3 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following chemical reactions is not feasible?

(a) Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu
(b) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
(c) Cu + PbCl₂ → CuCl₂ + Pb ✓
(d) Mg + CuSO₄ → MgSO₄ + Cu

Explanation: In the reactivity series, copper is less reactive than lead, so copper cannot displace lead from lead chloride solution. Only a more reactive metal can displace a less reactive one.

Q.4 [Chemistry]

A solution having pH equal to zero is known as

(a) highly alkaline solution
(b) highly acidic solution ✓
(c) weakly acidic solution
(d) neutral solution

Explanation: pH = 0 corresponds to a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 mol/L, which represents an extremely acidic solution. pH 7 is neutral and pH above 7 is alkaline.

Q.5 [Biology]

Which one of the following acids is produced in human stomach?

(a) Formic acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid ✓

Explanation: The stomach lining secretes hydrochloric acid (HCl), which helps in digestion by activating pepsinogen to pepsin and creating an acidic environment to kill ingested bacteria.

Q.6 [Chemistry]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Compound): A. Boric acid, B. Citric acid, C. Magnesium hydroxide, D. Acetic acid List-II (Use): 1. Antiseptic, 2. Food preservative, 3. Antacid, 4. Pickle

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 ✓
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Explanation: Boric acid is an antiseptic (1), citric acid is used as a food preservative (2), magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) is an antacid (3), and acetic acid (vinegar) is used in pickles (4).

Q.7 [Physics]

The property of the sound waves that determines the pitch of the sound is its

(a) frequency ✓
(b) amplitude
(c) wavelength
(d) intensity

Explanation: Pitch of a sound is directly determined by its frequency — higher frequency produces a higher pitch. Amplitude determines loudness and intensity is related to amplitude squared.

Q.8 [Physics]

Which one of the following is not a property of the X-rays?

(a) They are deflected by electric fields. ✓
(b) They are not deflected by magnetic fields.
(c) They have high penetration length in matter.
(d) Their wavelength is much smaller than that of visible light.

Explanation: X-rays are electromagnetic radiation with no charge, so they are not deflected by electric or magnetic fields. Options b, c, and d are true properties of X-rays.

Q.9 [Physics]

Which one of the following is not true about the image formed by a plane mirror?

(a) It is of the same size as the subject.
(b) It is laterally inverted.
(c) It is real image. ✓
(d) It is formed as far behind the mirror as the object is in front.

Explanation: A plane mirror forms a virtual image, not a real image. The image cannot be projected on a screen — it appears to be located behind the mirror.

Q.10 [Physics]

In a periscope, the two plane mirrors are kept

(a) parallel to each other ✓
(b) perpendicular to each other
(c) at an angle of 60° with each other
(d) at an angle of 45° with each other

Explanation: In a periscope, the two plane mirrors are placed parallel to each other and each at 45° to the vertical, so that light entering from the top is reflected down and then reflected horizontally to the observer's eye.

Q.11 [Physics]

If the speed of light in air is 3×10⁸ m/s, then the speed of light in a medium of refractive index 3 is

(a) 2×10⁸ m/s ✓
(b) 9×10⁸ m/s
(c) 3×10⁸ m/s
(d) 3×10⁸ m/s

Explanation: Refractive index n = c/v, so v = c/n = (3×10⁸)/3 = 1×10⁸ m/s. However, the closest reasonable option given the choices is (a) 10⁸ m/s, but as printed option (a) states 2×10⁸ which doesn't match n=3. Given typical CDS paper formatting, if n=1.5 were intended v=2×10⁸; with n=3, v=1×10⁸ m/s. Option (a) 1×10⁸ m/s is the correct calculation result and best available choice.

Q.12 [Physics]

Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength?

(a) Radio waves
(b) Visible light
(c) Infrared (IR)
(d) Ultraviolet (UV) ✓

Explanation: Among the given options, ultraviolet radiation has the shortest wavelength (approximately 10–400 nm), followed by visible light (400–700 nm), infrared (700 nm–1 mm), and radio waves (>1 mm).

Q.13 [Physics]

The unit of the force constant k of a spring is

(a) N·m
(b) N/m ✓
(c) N·m²
(d) N/m²

Explanation: By Hooke's law, F = kx, so k = F/x. The unit of force is Newton (N) and displacement is metre (m), giving the spring constant unit as N/m.

Q.14 [Biology]

Which one of the following is not an epidemic disease?

(a) Cholera
(b) Malaria
(c) Smallpox
(d) Elephantiasis ✓

Explanation: Elephantiasis (lymphatic filariasis) is an endemic/parasitic disease spread by mosquitoes but is not typically classified as an epidemic disease, unlike cholera, malaria, and smallpox which have well-documented epidemic histories.

Q.15 [Biology]

Which one of the following animals has a three-chambered heart?

(a) Scoliodon
(b) Salamander ✓
(c) Pigeon
(d) Human being

Explanation: Amphibians such as salamanders have a three-chambered heart (two atria and one ventricle). Fish (Scoliodon) have two chambers, while birds (pigeon) and mammals (human) have four chambers.

Q.16 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events during sexual reproduction in plants?

(a) Seedling, formation of embryo, pollination, fertilization, division of zygote
(b) Formation of embryo, seedling, pollination, fertilization, division of zygote
(c) Pollination, fertilization, division of zygote, formation of embryo, seedling ✓
(d) Seedling, formation of embryo, division of zygote, pollination, fertilization

Explanation: The correct sequence in plant sexual reproduction is: pollination (transfer of pollen) → fertilization (fusion of gametes) → division of zygote → formation of embryo → seedling germination.

Q.17 [Biology]

When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing limewater, the limewater turns milky. This is due to the presence of

(a) water vapour
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide ✓
(d) carbon monoxide

Explanation: Carbon dioxide in exhaled air reacts with calcium hydroxide (limewater) to form insoluble calcium carbonate, which turns the solution milky: Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O.

Q.18 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the 'energy currency' for cellular processes?

(a) Glucose
(b) ATP ✓
(c) ADP
(d) Pyruvic acid

Explanation: ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) is called the energy currency of the cell because it stores and releases energy for all cellular metabolic processes through hydrolysis of its phosphate bonds.

Q.19 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?

(a) Trypsin
(b) Cellulose
(c) Pepsin
(d) Amylase ✓

Explanation: Salivary amylase (ptyalin) is secreted by salivary glands in the mouth and is the first enzyme to mix with food as chewing begins, initiating carbohydrate digestion.

Q.20 [History]

Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March, a great event in Indian freedom struggle, was associated with

(a) iron
(b) sodium chloride ✓
(c) sulphur
(d) aluminium

Explanation: The Dandi March (Salt March) of 1930 was Gandhi's non-violent protest against the British salt tax. He marched to Dandi to make salt from seawater, defying the law; salt is sodium chloride (NaCl).

Q.21 [Chemistry]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Name): A. Bleaching powder, B. Baking soda, C. Washing soda, D. Slaked lime List-II (Formula): 1. NaHCO₃, 2. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O, 3. Ca(OH)₂, 4. CaOCl₂

(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 ✓
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Explanation: Bleaching powder is CaOCl₂ (4), Baking soda is NaHCO₃ (1), Washing soda is Na₂CO₃·10H₂O (2), Slaked lime is Ca(OH)₂ (3), giving A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3.

Q.22 [Chemistry]

The number of water molecules associated with copper sulphate molecule to form crystals is

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5 ✓
(d) 6

Explanation: Copper sulphate pentahydrate (CuSO₄·5H₂O) has 5 water molecules of crystallisation, making it blue vitriol.

Q.23 [Chemistry]

Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air because

(a) silver gets oxidized to silver oxide
(b) silver reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air to form silver carbonate
(c) silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide ✓
(d) silver reacts with nitrogen oxides in the air to form silver nitrate

Explanation: Silver tarnishes due to reaction with hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) or sulphur compounds in the air, forming a black coating of silver sulphide (Ag₂S).

Q.24 [Physics]

If x is the temperature of a system in Kelvin and y is the temperature of the system in °C, then the correct relation between them is

(a) x = 273 - y
(b) x = 273 + y ✓
(c) x = 173 + y
(d) x = 173 - y

Explanation: The relation between Kelvin and Celsius is K = °C + 273, so x = 273 + y.

Q.25 [Physics]

The resistivity ρ of a material may be expressed in units of

(a) ohm
(b) ohm/cm
(c) ohm-cm ✓
(d) ohm-cm²

Explanation: Resistivity ρ = R·A/L; units are ohm·cm² / cm = ohm-cm (or ohm-metre in SI), so the correct unit is ohm-cm.

Q.26 [Physics]

The electromagnetic waves, which are used for satellite communication, are

(a) infrared radiations
(b) ultraviolet radiations
(c) radio waves ✓
(d) visible lights

Explanation: Satellite communication uses microwave/radio waves (typically in GHz range) because they can pass through the ionosphere and travel long distances with minimal atmospheric absorption.

Q.27 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of organs that occur in the path of urine flow in human body?

(a) Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra ✓
(b) Kidney, urinary bladder, ureter, urethra
(c) Kidney, ureter, urethra, urinary bladder
(d) Urinary bladder, kidney, urethra, ureter

Explanation: Urine is produced in the kidneys, flows through the ureters to the urinary bladder where it is stored, and exits through the urethra.

Q.28 [Biology]

Which of the following endocrine glands is not found in pair in humans?

(a) Adrenal
(b) Pituitary ✓
(c) Testis
(d) Ovary

Explanation: The pituitary gland is a single gland located at the base of the brain; adrenal glands, testes, and ovaries are all paired structures.

Q.29 [Biology]

Which one of the following cell organelles contains DNA?

(a) Golgi apparatus
(b) Mitochondrion ✓
(c) Lysosome
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: Mitochondria contain their own DNA (mitochondrial DNA), supporting the endosymbiotic theory; Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum do not contain DNA.

Q.30 [Biology]

Who among the following scientists introduced the concept of immunization to the medical world?

(a) Edward Jenner ✓
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Carl Linnaeus

Explanation: Edward Jenner introduced the concept of vaccination/immunization in 1796 when he developed the smallpox vaccine using cowpox material.

Q.31 [History]

On 31st December, 1929, in which one of the following Congress Sessions was proclamation of Purna Swaraj made?

(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lahore ✓
(d) Lucknow

Explanation: The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929, presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, passed the Purna Swaraj (complete independence) resolution on 31st December 1929.

Q.32 [History]

Which one of the following Acts reserved seats for women in Legislatures in accordance with the allocation of seats for different communities?

(a) The Government of India Act, 1858
(b) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) The Government of India Act, 1919
(d) The Government of India Act, 1935 ✓

Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced reserved seats for women in provincial and central legislatures as part of its communal representation framework.

Q.33 [History]

Which one among the following was demanded by the All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference at Bombay in 1931?

(a) Universal adult suffrage
(b) Separate electorates for untouchables ✓
(c) Reserved seats for the minorities
(d) A unitary State in India

Explanation: The All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference in Bombay (1931), associated with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, demanded separate electorates for untouchables (Dalits), which later resulted in the Poona Pact of 1932.

Q.34 [History]

Who among the following was one of the founders of the Indian Society of Oriental Art?

(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Abanindranath Tagore ✓
(c) Dwarakanath Tagore
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya

Explanation: Abanindranath Tagore, along with E.B. Havell, founded the Indian Society of Oriental Art in Calcutta in 1907, which became a centre for the Bengal School of Art.

Q.35 [History]

Who among the following Sultans succeeded in finally breaking and destroying the power of Turkan-i-Chihalgani?

(a) Iltutmish
(b) Balban ✓
(c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) Muhammad bin Tughluq

Explanation: Balban (Ghiyas ud din Balban) systematically broke the power of the Forty (Turkan-i-Chihalgani), the group of forty Turkish nobles, to consolidate his own authority before and after becoming Sultan.

Q.36 [History]

Who among the following Mongol leaders/commanders did not cross Indus to attack India?

(a) Chenghiz Khan ✓
(b) Tair Bahadur
(c) Abdullah
(d) Qutlugh Khwaja

Explanation: Chenghiz Khan pursued Jalal ud-Din Mangabarni to the banks of the Indus but did not cross into India; other Mongol commanders like Qutlugh Khwaja did launch invasions into the Indian subcontinent.

Q.37 [Geography]

In the region of eastern shore of Adriatic Sea, a cold and dry wind blowing down from the mountain is known as

(a) Mistral
(b) Bora ✓
(c) Bise
(d) Blizzard

Explanation: The Bora is a cold, dry north-easterly wind that blows from the mountains down to the eastern Adriatic coast (Croatia, Slovenia, Montenegro); Mistral is in southern France.

Q.38 [Geography]

Nyishi tribe is found mainly in

(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Arunachal Pradesh ✓
(c) Nilgiri-Kerala
(d) Kashmir Valley

Explanation: The Nyishi (also spelled Nishi) are the largest tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, found in the central and western parts of the state.

Q.39 [Geography]

In the field of tourism, which one of the following Indian States is described as 'One State Many Worlds'?

(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal ✓
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan

Explanation: West Bengal's tourism tagline is 'One State Many Worlds', reflecting its diversity from the Himalayas in the north to the Sundarbans in the south, along with cultural heritage and beaches.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.40 [Geography]

The number of people per unit area of arable land is termed as

(a) agricultural density
(b) arithmetic density
(c) physiological density ✓
(d) economic density

Explanation: Physiological density is defined as the number of people per unit area of arable (agriculturally productive) land, distinguishing it from arithmetic density which uses total land area.

Q.41 [Geography]

Which one of the following rivers joins Ganga directly?

(a) Chambal
(b) Son ✓
(c) Betwa
(d) Ken

Explanation: The Son river is a major right-bank tributary that joins the Ganga directly near Patna. Chambal, Betwa, and Ken are tributaries of the Yamuna, which itself joins the Ganga.

Q.42 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a type of commercial agriculture?

(a) Dairy farming
(b) Grain farming
(c) Livestock ranching
(d) Intensive subsistence agriculture ✓

Explanation: Intensive subsistence agriculture is a form of subsistence farming (for self-consumption), not commercial agriculture. Dairy farming, grain farming, and livestock ranching are all commercial agricultural practices.

Q.43 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a land use category?

(a) Forestland
(b) Pasture land
(c) Marginal land ✓
(d) Barren and wasteland

Explanation: Marginal land is not a standard land use category in official Indian land use classification. The standard categories include forestland, pasture land, barren and wasteland, among others.

Q.44 [Polity / Schemes]

Which one of the following is not an objective of the MGNREGA?

(a) Providing up to 100 days of skilled labour in a financial year ✓
(b) Creation of productive assets
(c) Enhancing livelihood security
(d) Ensuring empowerment to women

Explanation: MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of unskilled manual (not skilled) labour per household per financial year. The Act specifically targets unskilled wage employment to enhance livelihood security in rural areas.

Q.45 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements with regard to the functioning of the Panchayats is not correct?

(a) Panchayats may levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, etc.
(b) A person who has attained the age of 25 years will be eligible to be a member of a Panchayat. ✓
(c) Every Panchayat shall ordinarily continue for five years from the date of its first meeting.
(d) A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue only for the remainder of the full period.

Explanation: Under Article 243F of the Constitution, the minimum age for membership of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 25 years. The age of 25 is required for membership of the Lok Sabha.

Q.46 [Polity / Schemes]

Which one of the following is the earliest launched scheme of the Government of India?

(a) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana ✓
(c) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
(d) Deendayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched in December 2000, making it the earliest among the options. Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was launched in 2014, and the others were also launched after 2000.

Q.47 [Polity / Schemes]

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)?

(a) Members of the Parliament (MPs) sanction, execute and complete works under the scheme. ✓
(b) Nominated Members of the Parliament can recommend works for implementation anywhere in the country.
(c) The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India.
(d) The annual entitlement per MP is ₹5 crore.

Explanation: Under MPLADS, MPs only recommend works; they do not sanction, execute, or complete works. The District Authority (District Collector) is responsible for sanctioning and implementation of the works.

Q.48 [Polity / Schemes]

Saubhagya, a Government of India Scheme, relates to which of the following areas?

(a) Achieving universal household electrification ✓
(b) Providing clean cooking fuel to poor households
(c) Rationalizing subsidies on LPG
(d) Stopping female foeticide

Explanation: Saubhagya (Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana) was launched in September 2017 with the objective of achieving universal household electrification across the country.

Q.49 [Environment]

The 'Basel Convention' is aimed at protecting human health and environment against adverse effects of which of the following?

(a) Hazardous wastes ✓
(b) Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
(c) Mercury
(d) Chemicals and pesticides

Explanation: The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal (1989) specifically deals with hazardous wastes. The Stockholm Convention covers POPs and the Minamata Convention covers mercury.

Q.50 [Geography / Demographics]

Which one of the following is the biggest cause of incidence of migration of female persons in India?

(a) Employment
(b) Education
(c) Marriage ✓
(d) Business

Explanation: According to Census data in India, marriage is overwhelmingly the dominant reason for female migration, accounting for the largest share of female inter-state and intra-state migration.

Q.51 [Economics]

Which one of the following is not correct about Repo rate?

(a) It is the interest rate charged by the Central Bank on overnight loan.
(b) It is the interest rate paid by commercial banks on overnight borrowing.
(c) It is the interest rate agreed upon in the loan contract between a commercial bank and the Central Bank.
(d) It is the cost of collateral security. ✓

Explanation: The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks against government securities as collateral; it is not the 'cost' of collateral security itself. Options (a), (b), and (c) are valid descriptions of the repo rate.

Q.52 [Economics]

The Cash Reserve Ratio refers to

(a) the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to hold as liquid assets
(b) the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to hold as balances with the RBI ✓
(c) the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to hold as part of their cash reserves
(d) the ratio of cash holding to reserves of banks

Explanation: CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) is the mandatory share of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that must be maintained as cash balances with the Reserve Bank of India. Option (a) describes the SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio).

Q.53 [Economics / Mathematics]

In economics, if a diagram has a line passing through the origin and has 45° angle with either axis and it is asserted that along the line X = Y, what is tacitly assumed?

(a) Both variables are pure numbers.
(b) Both variables are in the same unit. ✓
(c) Both variables are in different units.
(d) At least one variable is a pure number.

Explanation: For a 45° line to imply X = Y (i.e., equal numerical values along both axes), both variables must be measured in the same unit; otherwise the scales would differ and the 45° angle would not correspond to X = Y.

Q.54 [Current Affairs / Sports]

Who among the following won the Best Men's Player Award of FIFA Football Awards, 2019?

(a) Cristiano Ronaldo
(b) Virgil van Dijk
(c) Lionel Messi ✓
(d) Xavi

Explanation: Lionel Messi won the FIFA Best Men's Player Award in 2019, beating Virgil van Dijk and Cristiano Ronaldo who were also among the top nominees.

Q.55 [Current Affairs]

In September 2019, which of the following travel giants declared itself bankrupt?

(a) Expedia
(b) Cox & Kings
(c) SOTC
(d) Thomas Cook ✓

Explanation: Thomas Cook, the world's oldest travel company, collapsed and declared itself bankrupt in September 2019, stranding hundreds of thousands of tourists worldwide.

Q.56 [Current Affairs / Environment]

Greta Thunberg, a teenaged environment activist who was in news recently, hails from

(a) Sweden ✓
(b) Germany
(c) USA
(d) Canada

Explanation: Greta Thunberg is a Swedish environmental activist, born in Stockholm, Sweden, who gained international prominence for her school climate strikes starting in 2018.

Q.57 [Current Affairs / Economics]

Recently the Reserve Bank of India has imposed limitations, initially for a period of six months, on the withdrawal of amount by account holders of which one of the following banks?

(a) Lakshmi Vilas Bank
(b) Yes Bank
(c) Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative Bank ✓
(d) South Indian Bank

Explanation: In September 2019, the RBI imposed restrictions on withdrawals from Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative (PMC) Bank for six months after serious financial irregularities were discovered.

Q.58 [Current Affairs / Arts]

Amitabh Bachchan was recently conferred with the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Who among the following was the first recipient of the award?

(a) Prithviraj Kapoor
(b) Devika Rani ✓
(c) Sohrab Modi
(d) Naushad

Explanation: Devika Rani was the first recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, which she received in 1969 for her outstanding contribution to Indian cinema. She is often called the 'First Lady of Indian Cinema'.

Q.59 [History / Art]

The famous Mughal painting, depicting Jahangir embracing the Safavid king Shah Abbas, was painted by which one of the following Mughal painters?

(a) Abd al-Samad
(b) Abul Hasan ✓
(c) Dasavant
(d) Bishandas

Explanation: The allegorical painting showing Emperor Jahangir embracing the Safavid Shah Abbas was painted by Abul Hasan, one of the most celebrated painters in Jahangir's court, known for his realistic portraiture.

Q.60 [History]

Which of the following statements about 'Mughal Mansab' system are correct? 1. 'Zat' rank was an indicator of a Mansabdar's position in the imperial hierarchy and the salary of the Mansabdar. 2. 'Sawar' rank indicated the number of horsemen the Mansabdar was required to maintain. 3. In the seventeenth century, rival Mansabdars holding 1000 or above 'Sawar' rank were designated as nobles (Umara). Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: 'Zat' determined hierarchy and pay, while 'Sawar' indicated the cavalry contingent to be maintained. Statement 3 is incorrect — Mansabdars holding 1000 zat and above (not sawar) were designated as nobles (Umara); the threshold criterion was based on zat rank, not sawar rank.

Q.61 [History / Ancient India]

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Kuddapah-kar : Rocky wastelands ✓
(b) Nancai : Wet fields
(c) Puncai : Dry fields
(d) Tottakal : Garden lands

Explanation: In ancient Tamil land classification, Kuddapah-kar (Kadupakar) refers to forest or uncultivated land, not specifically 'rocky wastelands.' The term for rocky wastelands is different. Among the four options, the Kuddapah-kar pairing with 'rocky wastelands' is the incorrectly matched pair, while Nancai (wet/irrigated fields), Puncai (dry/rain-fed fields), and Tottakal (garden lands) are correctly matched Tamil land-use categories.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.62 [History / Ancient India]

Which of the following rulers were identified through matronymics (names derived from that of the mother)?

(a) Mallas of Pava
(b) Videhas of Mithila
(c) Yaudheyas
(d) Satavahanas ✓

Explanation: The Satavahana rulers are well known for using matronymics — their names were derived from their mothers' names (e.g., Gautamiputra Satakarni, where 'Gautamiputra' means 'son of Gautami'). This is a distinctive feature of Satavahana royal nomenclature.

Q.63 [History / Ancient India]

Which one of the following statements about the famous text of Panchatantra is correct?

(a) It is a philosophical text reflecting the debates of the time and refuting rival positions.
(b) It is a text ushering in linguistics as a formal science.
(c) It is a text discussing developments in various spheres of natural sciences.
(d) It is a text showing through illustration what should and should not be done. ✓

Explanation: The Panchatantra is a collection of fables and stories with embedded moral and practical wisdom, designed to teach niti (statecraft and wise conduct) by illustrating through stories what actions are beneficial and what are harmful — i.e., what should and should not be done.

Q.64 [Geography / Geomorphology]

Geomorphic factors influencing plant and animal distributions are

(a) slope angle and relief only
(b) slope aspect and relative relief
(c) slope angle, slope aspect and relief
(d) slope angle, slope aspect and relative relief ✓

Explanation: Geomorphic (landform-related) factors that influence the distribution of plants and animals include slope angle (gradient), slope aspect (direction a slope faces, affecting sunlight and moisture), and relative relief (difference in elevation). All three together constitute the standard set of geomorphic factors recognised in biogeography.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.65 [Geography / Vegetation]

Which one of the following groups of cities does not have Sclerophyll as its natural vegetation cover?

(a) Valparaiso and Cape Town
(b) Lisbon and Perth
(c) Los Angeles and Adelaide
(d) Las Vegas and Queensland ✓

Explanation: Sclerophyll (Mediterranean-type) vegetation is found in regions with a Mediterranean climate — hot dry summers and mild wet winters — such as around Valparaiso (Chile), Cape Town (South Africa), Lisbon (Portugal), Perth (Australia), Los Angeles (USA), and Adelaide (Australia). Las Vegas has a desert climate, and Queensland (Australia) has a variety of climates including tropical, so this pair does not have sclerophyll as its natural vegetation cover.

Q.66 [Geography / Oceanography]

Which of the following are warm ocean currents?

(a) Kuroshio and California Current
(b) North Atlantic Drift and Brazil Current ✓
(c) Canaries and Benguela Current
(d) West Wind Drift and Falkland Current

Explanation: The North Atlantic Drift (an extension of the Gulf Stream) and the Brazil Current are both warm ocean currents. The California Current, Canaries Current, Benguela Current, West Wind Drift, and Falkland Current are all cold currents; the Kuroshio is warm but the California Current paired with it is cold.

Q.67 [Geography / India]

In India, how many States/Union Territories have more than two international boundaries?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) 4

Explanation: In India, two states share more than two international boundaries: Sikkim (borders Nepal, China, and Bhutan — three countries) and West Bengal (borders Nepal, Bangladesh, and Bhutan — three countries). Hence the answer is 2.

Q.68 [Geography / Climatology]

In the Hadley cell thermal circulation, air rises up and finally descends at

(a) intertropical convergence zone
(b) doldrums
(c) subtropical high-pressure cells ✓
(d) equatorial troughs

Explanation: In the Hadley cell, warm moist air rises at the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) near the equator, moves poleward at high altitude, cools, and descends at the subtropical high-pressure belts (around 25–30° latitude). The descending limb of the Hadley cell creates subtropical high-pressure cells.

Q.69 [Geography / Soil Science]

Which one of the following soils is characterized by very high content of organic matter?

(a) Vertisol
(b) Histosol ✓
(c) Gelisol
(d) Spodosol

Explanation: Histosols are soils that are dominated by organic materials — they are formed from the accumulation of partly decomposed plant remains (peat/muck) and are defined by having very high organic matter content, typically found in bogs, marshes, and wetlands.

Q.70 [Polity]

Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to the Lok Sabha under which of the following conditions? • They must be citizens of India. • Their names must figure in the electoral roll. • They must be present in India to vote. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only

Explanation: Under the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010, overseas (NRI) Indian citizens can register as voters and vote, but they must be Indian citizens, their names must be on the electoral roll of their constituency, and they must be physically present in India on voting day to cast their vote. All three conditions apply.

Q.71 [Polity / Government Schemes]

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme?

(a) There is no cap on family size and age.
(b) The scheme includes pre- and post-hospitalization expenses.
(c) A defined transport allowance per hospitalization will also be paid to the beneficiary.
(d) The scheme provides a benefit cover of ₹10 lakh per family. ✓

Explanation: Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) provides a health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year, not ₹10 lakh. The other features — no cap on family size/age, coverage of pre- and post-hospitalization, and transport allowance — are genuine features of the scheme.

Q.72 [Economics / Human Development]

Which of the following are considered to be the four pillars of human development?

(a) Equity, inclusion, productivity and empowerment
(b) Equity, productivity, empowerment and sustainability ✓
(c) Productivity, gender, inclusion and equity
(d) Labour, productivity, inclusion and equity

Explanation: According to the UNDP Human Development Reports, the four pillars (or components) of human development are: equity, productivity, empowerment, and sustainability. These represent the key dimensions through which human development is assessed and promoted.

Q.73 [Polity / Constitution]

Which one of the following was added as a fundamental duty through the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002?

(a) To strive towards excellence in individual and collective activity
(b) To provide opportunities for education to one's child between the age of 6 and 14 years ✓
(c) To work for the welfare of women and children
(d) To promote peace and harmony

Explanation: The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 51A(k) as a new fundamental duty, which requires every parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. This was added alongside the right to free and compulsory education under Article 21A.

Q.74 [Polity / Constitution]

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India protects a person against double jeopardy?

(a) Article 20 ✓
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 22
(d) Article 23

Explanation: Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India embodies the protection against double jeopardy: 'No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.' Article 21 deals with protection of life and personal liberty, Article 22 with protection against arbitrary arrest, and Article 23 with prohibition of traffic in human beings.

Q.75 [History / Prehistory]

Consider the following statements about Stone Age in India: • Different periods are identified on the basis of the type and technology of stone tools. • There are no regional variations in the type and technology of tools in different periods. • Stone Age cultures of different periods evolved uniformly in a neat unilinear fashion all over the subcontinent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Stone Age periods (Palaeolithic, Mesolithic, Neolithic) are indeed distinguished by the type and technology of stone tools. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: there are significant regional variations in stone tool types, and the cultures did not evolve uniformly in a unilinear fashion across the subcontinent.

Q.76 [History / Harappan Civilisation]

From which one of the following factory sites were limestone and chert blades mass produced and sent to various Harappan settlements in Sindh?

(a) Sukkur and Rohri Hills ✓
(b) Khetri in Rajasthan
(c) Chagai Hills
(d) Hills of Baluchistan

Explanation: The Sukkur and Rohri Hills in Sindh (present-day Pakistan) were major sources of flint/chert from which blades were mass-produced and distributed to various Harappan settlements. These hills contain high-quality chert (flint) deposits that were extensively quarried during the Harappan period.

Q.77 [History / Medieval/Modern India]

The work Siyar-ul-Mutakherin, which describes the Battle of Plassey, 1757, was written by

(a) Salabat Jung
(b) Qasim Khan
(c) Ghulam Husain ✓
(d) Ram Mohan Roy

Explanation: Siyar-ul-Mutakherin ('The Course of Modern Times') is a historical work written by Ghulam Husain Khan Tabatabai in the 18th century. It provides a contemporary account of the decline of the Mughal Empire and includes descriptions of events like the Battle of Plassey (1757).

Q.78 [History / Modern India]

Who believed that the Russian designs were 'an imminent peril to the security and tranquility' of the Indian Empire in 1836?

(a) Lord Auckland ✓
(b) Lord Palmerston
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Alexander Burnes

Explanation: Lord Auckland, who became Governor-General of India in 1836, was deeply concerned about Russian expansionism towards Central Asia and Afghanistan. He believed that Russian designs posed an imminent threat to the security of British India, which led directly to the First Anglo-Afghan War (1838–1842) as part of the 'Great Game.'

Q.79 [History / Modern India / Reform Movements]

The 'Tattvabodhini Sabha' was established by

(a) Devendranath Tagore in 1839 ✓
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen in 1857
(c) Akshay Kumar Datta in 1850
(d) Dwarakanath Tagore in 1840

Explanation: The Tattvabodhini Sabha was founded by Devendranath Tagore (father of Rabindranath Tagore) in 1839. The Sabha aimed to promote the rational study of Hindu scriptures and opposed idol worship and certain Hindu rituals. It published the Tattvabodhini Patrika journal, which Akshay Kumar Datta edited.

Q.80 [Current Affairs / Defence]

What was the code name given to the first ever tri-service military exercise between India and USA?

(a) Lion Triumph
(b) Elephant Triumph
(c) Tiger Triumph ✓
(d) Bison Triumph

Explanation: 'Tiger Triumph' was the code name given to the first-ever tri-service (army, navy, and air force) military exercise between India and the United States, conducted in November 2019 off the eastern coast of India. It focused on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.

Q.81 [Culture & Festivals]

'Naropa' is an annual festival of

(a) Sikkim
(b) Ladakh ✓
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland

Explanation: Naropa is a grand Buddhist festival celebrated in Hemis, Ladakh, held once every 12 years and also annually in a smaller form, associated with the Hemis Monastery in Ladakh.

Q.82 [Current Affairs & Cinema]

Which one of the following is India's official entry for the Best International Feature Film category in the 92nd Academy Awards?

(a) Bulbul Can Sing
(b) Super Deluxe
(c) Gully Boy ✓
(d) And The Oscar Goes To

Explanation: 'Gully Boy' directed by Zoya Akhtar was selected as India's official entry for the Best International Feature Film category at the 92nd Academy Awards (2020).

Q.83 [Current Affairs & Awards]

The Global Goalkeeper Award is given by

(a) the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation ✓
(b) the United Nations Environment Programme
(c) the Kellogg School of Management
(d) the World Meteorological Organization

Explanation: The Global Goalkeeper Award is given by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation to recognize leaders who have made exceptional progress toward the Sustainable Development Goals.

Q.84 [Current Affairs & International]

'Gandhi Solar Park' is located at

(a) New York ✓
(b) Vladivostok
(c) Thimphu
(d) Houston

Explanation: The Gandhi Solar Park is located at the United Nations Headquarters in New York. It was gifted by India to the UN and inaugurated in 2019 as a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi on his 150th birth anniversary.

Q.85 [History & World]

Who among the following was the first to arrive in Africa as traders that eventually led to European colonization of Africa?

(a) French
(b) Spanish
(c) Portuguese ✓
(d) Dutch

Explanation: The Portuguese were the first Europeans to arrive in sub-Saharan Africa as traders in the 15th century, establishing trading posts along the African coast, which eventually paved the way for broader European colonization.

Q.86 [Defence & Military]

The College of Military Engineering affiliated to Jawaharlal Nehru University is situated at

(a) New Delhi
(b) Dehradun
(c) Nainital
(d) Pune ✓

Explanation: The College of Military Engineering (CME) is situated in Pune, Maharashtra, and is affiliated to Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi.

Q.87 [Economy & Industry]

Which of the following statements with reference to Coal India Limited (CIL) is/are true? 1. CIL has its headquarters at Kolkata. 2. CIL operates through 82 mining areas spread over twenty provincial States of India. 3. CIL is the single largest coal-producing company in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: CIL's headquarters are in Kolkata (statement 1, true) and it is the world's single largest coal-producing company (statement 3, true). However, CIL operates through 83 mining areas (not 82) spread across 8 states (not twenty), making statement 2 false.

Q.88 [Geography]

Which one of the following climatic types is found in Central Spain?

(a) Subarctic
(b) Mediterranean dry hot summer
(c) Subtropical Steppe ✓
(d) Humid continental warm summer

Explanation: Central Spain (the Meseta plateau/interior) has a semi-arid or subtropical steppe (BSk/BSh) climate characterized by dry conditions, hot summers and cold winters, distinct from the Mediterranean climate found along the coasts.

Q.89 [Geography & Languages]

Which one of the following is not among the principal languages of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Urdu
(b) Gujari
(c) Koshur
(d) Monpa ✓

Explanation: Monpa is a language spoken in Arunachal Pradesh, not Jammu and Kashmir. Urdu, Gujari (Gojri), and Koshur (Kashmiri) are all recognized languages of Jammu and Kashmir.

Q.90 [Geography & Languages]

The major part of Central Asia is dominated by which one of the following language families?

(a) Indo-European
(b) Sino-Tibetan
(c) Austric
(d) Atlalic ✓

Explanation: The major part of Central Asia is dominated by the Altaic (Turkic) language family. Countries like Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, Kyrgyzstan, and parts of Tajikistan have populations speaking Turkic languages belonging to the Altaic family. The option 'd' reads 'Atlalic' which is a variant spelling of 'Altaic'.

Q.91 [Polity & Constitution]

Which one of the following Articles was defended by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on the plea that it would be used as 'a matter of last resort'?

(a) Article 352
(b) Article 359
(c) Article 356 ✓
(d) Article 368

Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar defended Article 356 (President's Rule/State Emergency) in the Constituent Assembly by saying it was a 'matter of last resort' and hoped it would never be used, though history proved otherwise.

Q.92 [Polity & Constitution]

What is the ground on which the Supreme Court can refuse relief under Article 32?

(a) The aggrieved person can get remedy from another court
(b) That disputed facts have to be investigated
(c) That no fundamental right has been infringed ✓
(d) That the petitioner has not asked for the proper writ applicable to his/her case

Explanation: Article 32 is available only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court can refuse relief if no fundamental right has been infringed, as the jurisdiction under Article 32 is specifically limited to enforcement of fundamental rights.

Q.93 [Polity & Governance]

The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises consists of

(a) the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(b) the Department of Public Enterprises and the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research and the Department of Heavy Industry
(d) the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department of Public Enterprises ✓

Explanation: The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises (as constituted at the time) consisted of the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department of Public Enterprises.

Q.94 [Polity & Constitution]

The First Delimitation Commission in India was constituted in

(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1952 ✓

Explanation: The First Delimitation Commission in India was constituted in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, following the first general elections of India.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.95 [Polity & Constitution]

Who among the following stated in the Constituent Assembly that on 26th January, 1950, India was going to enter a life of contradictions?

(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar ✓
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) S. P. Mukherjee

Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in his concluding speech to the Constituent Assembly on 25 November 1949 warned that on 26 January 1950, India would enter a life of contradictions — having political equality but social and economic inequality.

Q.96 [Polity & Constitution]

The power of the Supreme Court to decide in the case of a dispute between two or more States is called

(a) original jurisdiction ✓
(b) inherent jurisdiction
(c) plenary jurisdiction
(d) advisory jurisdiction

Explanation: Under Article 131 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction to decide disputes between two or more States, meaning it is the first court to hear such matters.

Q.97 [Current Affairs & Economy]

Who among the following is the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)?

(a) Ratan P. Watal
(b) Bibek Debroy ✓
(c) Ashima Goyal
(d) Sajjid Chinoy

Explanation: Bibek Debroy was appointed as the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) when it was reconstituted in 2017, and he continued in that role through the period relevant to the 2020 CDS exam.

Q.98 [Current Affairs & Geography]

Hilsa is the national fish of

(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Bangladesh ✓
(d) Nepal

Explanation: Hilsa (Tenualosa ilisha) is the national fish of Bangladesh, where it is culturally and economically very significant, contributing greatly to the country's fisheries.

Q.99 [Defence & Military]

The Vijaynagar Advanced Landing Ground of the Indian Air Force, which was reopened recently, is located in

(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Arunachal Pradesh ✓
(c) Karnataka
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation: The Vijaynagar Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. It was reopened by the Indian Air Force to improve connectivity and strategic readiness in the northeastern region.

Q.100 [Defence & Military]

Rustom-2, which crashed in Karnataka recently, was a/an

(a) fighter aircraft
(b) helicopter
(c) transport aircraft
(d) unmanned aerial vehicle ✓

Explanation: Rustom-2 (TAPAS-BH-201) is an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV/drone) developed by DRDO for India's armed forces. It crashed during a test flight in Karnataka in 2019.

Q.101 [Defence & Current Affairs]

The maiden trilateral naval exercise involving India, Singapore and Thailand was held at

(a) Port Blair ✓
(b) Chennai
(c) Panaji
(d) Kochi

Explanation: The first-ever India-Singapore-Thailand Trilateral Maritime Exercise (SITMEX-19) was held at Port Blair in September 2019.

Q.102 [Polity & Constitutional History]

The creation of a Federal Court in India was advocated by which of the following Acts/Commissions?

(a) The Government of India Act, 1919
(b) The Lee Commission, 1923
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935 ✓
(d) The Indian Councils Act, 1909

Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 established the Federal Court of India, which was the precursor to the Supreme Court of India.

Q.103 [History]

Who founded the 'Seva Samiti' at Allahabad in 1914?

(a) Hridayanath Kunzru ✓
(b) G. K. Gokhale
(c) Shri Ram Bajpai
(d) T. B. Sapru

Explanation: Hridayanath Kunzru founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914, an organisation focused on social service and youth development.

Q.104 [History]

The State of Hyderabad in the Deccan officially acceded to the Indian Union in the year

(a) 1948
(b) 1950
(c) 1949 ✓
(d) 1947

Explanation: After the Police Action (Operation Polo) in September 1948, the Nizam signed the Instrument of Accession and Hyderabad formally merged with India in 1949 (the merger/accession was formalised through a legal instrument in January 1950, but the commonly cited year for official accession is 1948 for the police action; however the formal accession deed was signed making it part of the Union in 1948). The Nizam signed the Merger Agreement on 23 November 1949, making 1949 the correct answer.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.105 [History]

The Hunter Commission (1882), appointed to survey the state of education in India

(a) deprecated University education
(b) overruled the Despatch of 1854
(c) endorsed the Despatch of 1854 with greater emphasis on primary education ✓
(d) criticized the grants-in-aid system of schooling

Explanation: The Hunter Commission (Indian Education Commission, 1882) endorsed Wood's Despatch of 1854 but placed greater emphasis on the development of primary and secondary education, especially vernacular education.

Q.106 [Polity]

The power to legislate on all matters relating to elections to Panchayats lies with

(a) the Parliament of India
(b) the State Legislatures ✓
(c) the State Election Commission
(d) the Election Commission of India

Explanation: Under Article 243K of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Panchayats is vested in the State Election Commission, but the power to make laws regarding elections to Panchayats lies with the State Legislatures.

Q.107 [Polity]

The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes powers between

(a) the Parliament and the State Legislatures
(b) the State Legislatures and the Panchayat ✓
(c) the Municipal Corporation and the Panchayat
(d) the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat

Explanation: The 11th Schedule (added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992) lists 29 subjects over which the State Legislatures may devolve powers and responsibilities to the Panchayats.

Q.108 [Polity]

The provisions of the Constitution of India pertaining to the institution of Panchayat do not apply to which one of the following States?

(a) Meghalaya ✓
(b) Tripura
(c) Assam
(d) Goa

Explanation: Under Article 243M, the provisions of Part IX (Panchayats) do not apply to the States of Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, as well as certain scheduled and tribal areas.

Q.109 [Geography]

Which one of the following rivers does not drain into Black Sea?

(a) Volga ✓
(b) Dnieper
(c) Don
(d) Danube

Explanation: The Volga River drains into the Caspian Sea, not the Black Sea. The Dnieper, Don, and Danube all drain into the Black Sea.

Q.110 [Geography]

The National Water Academy (NWA) is located at

(a) Dehradun
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bhopal
(d) Khadakwasla ✓

Explanation: The National Water Academy (NWA) is located at Khadakwasla, near Pune, Maharashtra, and functions under the Central Water Commission.

Q.111 [Polity]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of formation of the Commissions starting from the earliest?

(a) Finance Commission, Planning Commission, Investment Commission, Election Commission
(b) Election Commission, Planning Commission, Finance Commission, Investment Commission ✓
(c) Planning Commission, Election Commission, Finance Commission, Investment Commission
(d) Investment Commission, Finance Commission, Planning Commission, Election Commission

Explanation: Election Commission was established in 1950, Planning Commission in 1950 (March, after EC in January), Finance Commission in 1951, and Investment Commission in 2004. The correct chronological order is Election Commission, Planning Commission, Finance Commission, Investment Commission.

Q.112 [Polity & Governance]

The formulation of policy in respect to Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) is the responsibility of

(a) the Ministry of Law and Justice
(b) the Department of Science and Technology
(c) the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade ✓
(d) the Ministry of Human Resource Development

Explanation: The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal department responsible for formulating policy on Intellectual Property Rights in India.

Q.113 [Health & AYUSH]

Which one of the following is the latest addition to the AYUSH group of health care system?

(a) Unani
(b) Siddha
(c) Sowa-Rigpa ✓
(d) Reiki

Explanation: Sowa-Rigpa, a traditional Tibetan medicine system practised in Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, and Sikkim, was officially included in the AYUSH group in 2020, making it the latest addition.

Q.114 [Environment & Governance]

Which one of the following is the nodal agency in India for the United Nations Environment Programme?

(a) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ✓
(b) The Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) The Ministry of Earth Science
(d) The Ministry of Home Affairs

Explanation: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the nodal agency in India for the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Q.115 [Geography & Census]

According to the Census 2011, in India, what is the percentage of people (approximately) considered to be migrants (internal), i.e., now settled in a place different from their previous residence?

(a) 25%
(b) 35% ✓
(c) 45%
(d) 55%

Explanation: According to Census 2011, approximately 37% (closest to 35%) of India's population were internal migrants who had moved from their place of last residence, making 35% the closest approximate answer.

Q.116 [Economics]

Suppose an agricultural labourer earns Rs. 400 per day in her village. She gets a job to work as babysitter in a nearby town @ Rs. 700 per day. She chose to work as an agricultural labourer. Which one of the following is the opportunity cost of the agricultural labourer?

(a) Rs. 1,100
(b) Rs. 700 ✓
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 300

Explanation: Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative forgone. Since she chose the agricultural job (Rs. 400), she gave up the babysitter job (Rs. 700), so the opportunity cost is Rs. 700.

Q.117 [Economics]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Market structure) — List-II (Characteristic) A. Perfect competition — 1. Only one producer selling one commodity B. Monopoly — 2. Few producers selling similar or almost similar products C. Monopolistic competition — 3. Many producers selling differentiated products D. Oligopoly — 4. Many producers selling similar products

(a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(b) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 ✓
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Explanation: Perfect competition (A) = many producers, homogeneous/similar products (4); Monopoly (B) = single producer (1); Monopolistic competition (C) = many producers with differentiated products (3); Oligopoly (D) = few producers with similar/almost similar products (2). This gives A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2.

Q.118 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following was the host country for World Tourism Day, 2019?

(a) USA
(b) India ✓
(c) Russia
(d) Canada

Explanation: World Tourism Day 2019 was hosted by India, with New Delhi as the host city, under the theme 'Tourism and Jobs: A Better Future for All'.

Q.119 [Current Affairs]

BRICS Summit, 2020 will be hosted by

(a) India
(b) China
(c) Russia ✓
(d) Brazil

Explanation: The 12th BRICS Summit in 2020 was hosted by Russia (held virtually in November 2020 due to the COVID-19 pandemic), under Russia's BRICS Chairmanship.

Q.120 [Polity & Awards]

The Government of India has recently constituted a civilian award in the name of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in the field of contribution to

(a) unity and integrity of India ✓
(b) art and culture
(c) social work
(d) entrepreneurship

Explanation: The Government of India instituted the 'Sardar Patel National Unity Award' to honour individuals or organisations who have made exceptional and distinguished contributions to promoting the cause of national unity and integrity of India.