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CDS II 2020 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2020 (Session II) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Economy]

As per the Budget Estimates of 2019-20, the following are some of the important sources of tax receipts for the Union Government: 1. Corporation Tax 2. Taxes on Income other than Corporation Tax 3. Goods and Services Tax 4. Union Excise Duties Which one of the following is the correct descending order of the aforesaid tax receipts as a percentage of GDP?

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 3, 2, 4 ✓
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(d) 2, 4, 3, 1

Explanation: In Union Budget 2019-20, Corporation Tax was the largest tax source, followed by GST, then Income Tax (other than corporation tax), then Union Excise Duties, making the order 1, 3, 2, 4.

Q.2 [Economy]

As per the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Ranking, India's rank has improved from 142 in 2014 to 63 in 2019. During this period, in which of the following parameters has India's rank deteriorated?

(a) Ease of starting a business
(b) Getting electricity
(c) Registering property ✓
(d) Paying taxes

Explanation: While India improved significantly in most parameters like getting electricity and paying taxes, its rank in registering property deteriorated during this period.

Q.3 [Economy/Polity]

Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Food Security Act is not correct?

(a) The Act was enacted in the year 2013.
(b) The Act was rolled out in the year 2014.
(c) The Act legally entitles 67 percent of the population to receive highly subsidised food grains.
(d) The Act is not being implemented in all the States/Union Territories. ✓

Explanation: The National Food Security Act 2013 has been implemented in all States and Union Territories; hence statement (d) is incorrect. The Act covers 67% of the population and was enacted in 2013 and rolled out from 2014.

Q.4 [Economy]

Which one of the following statements about Indian economy during 2019-20 is not correct?

(a) There has been deceleration in growth rate.
(b) There has been sluggish growth in tax revenue relative to the Budget Estimates.
(c) Fiscal deficit as percentage of GDP has been as per the Budget Estimates. ✓
(d) The non-tax revenue registered a considerably higher growth.

Explanation: During 2019-20, India's fiscal deficit exceeded the Budget Estimate target of 3.3% of GDP and reached around 3.8%, so statement (c) is not correct.

Q.5 [Economy]

As per the Budget Estimates of expenditure on major subsidies during 2019-20, the maximum expenditure was likely to be on

(a) urea subsidy
(b) petroleum subsidy
(c) food subsidy ✓
(d) fertilizer subsidy

Explanation: Food subsidy has consistently been the largest subsidy outlay in India's Union Budget; in 2019-20 Budget Estimates it was the highest among all major subsidies at over Rs. 1.84 lakh crore.

Q.6 [Geography]

Which one of the following Indian places receives minimum rainfall in a year?

(a) Jodhpur
(b) Leh ✓
(c) New Delhi
(d) Bengaluru

Explanation: Leh in Ladakh is a cold desert lying in a rain shadow region beyond the Himalayas and receives the least annual rainfall (less than 100 mm) among the given options.

Q.7 [Geography]

Timber vegetation is generally not found in which of the following regions?

(a) Subtropical region
(b) Temperate region
(c) Alpine region
(d) Tundra region ✓

Explanation: Tundra regions are characterised by permafrost and extremely cold temperatures where trees cannot grow; vegetation is limited to mosses, lichens, and low shrubs, so timber vegetation is absent.

Q.8 [Geography]

Decadal growth rate of population in percentage was highest in India in the year

(a) 1991
(b) 1981 ✓
(c) 1971
(d) 1961

Explanation: India recorded its highest decadal population growth rate of about 24.66% during the 1971-1981 decade, making 1981 the year with the highest decadal growth rate.

Q.9 [Geography]

The Isotherm Line, which divides India North-South in almost two equal parts in the month of January, is

(a) 10°C
(b) 25°C
(c) 15°C
(d) 20°C ✓

Explanation: The 20°C isotherm in January roughly divides India into two nearly equal halves — the northern half (below 20°C) and the southern peninsular half (above 20°C).

Q.10 [Geography]

Which one of the following indicates the Tropical Savannah climate?

(a) Aw ✓
(b) Dfc
(c) Cwg
(d) Am

Explanation: In the Köppen climate classification, 'Aw' denotes Tropical Savannah (wet and dry tropical) climate where 'A' is tropical and 'w' indicates a dry winter season.

Q.11 [Geography]

The largest geographical area of India is covered by which one of the following types of soils?

(a) Inceptisols ✓
(b) Entisols
(c) Alfisols
(d) Vertisols

Explanation: Inceptisols (corresponding largely to alluvial soils and some forest soils) cover the largest geographical area in India, spanning the vast Indo-Gangetic plain and other regions.

Q.12 [Geography]

Which one of the following cities is closest to the Equator?

(a) Mogadishu ✓
(b) Singapore
(c) Colombo
(d) Manila

Explanation: Mogadishu, the capital of Somalia, lies at approximately 2°N latitude, which is the closest to the Equator among the given cities (Singapore ~1.3°N, Colombo ~6.9°N, Manila ~14.6°N).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.13 [History]

Who among the following gave evidence before the Joint Select Committee on the Government of India Bill, 1919 in favour of female franchise? 1. Mrs. Annie Besant 2. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu 3. Mrs. Hirabai Tata Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three — Annie Besant, Sarojini Naidu, and Hirabai Tata — gave evidence before the Joint Select Committee on the Government of India Bill, 1919 in favour of female franchise.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.14 [History]

In which one of the following places was the Ahmadiyya Movement started by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad?

(a) Patna
(b) Aligarh
(c) Bhopal
(d) Gurdaspur ✓

Explanation: The Ahmadiyya Movement was founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889 at Qadian, a town in Gurdaspur district of Punjab (present-day Punjab, India).

Q.15 [History]

With whom did Subhas Chandra Bose form an alliance to destroy the Holwell Monument in Calcutta during 1939-40?

(a) The Communist Party of India
(b) The Muslim League ✓
(c) The Hindu Mahasabha
(d) The Unionist Party

Explanation: Subhas Chandra Bose formed an alliance with the Muslim League (led by Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy in Bengal) to launch the agitation demanding removal of the Holwell Monument in 1940.

Q.16 [History]

Who among the following created the first All India Trade Union Congress in 1920?

(a) B. P. Wadia
(b) S. A. Dange
(c) N. M. Joshi ✓
(d) B. T. Ranadive

Explanation: N. M. Joshi (Narayan Malhar Joshi) was instrumental in founding the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in 1920 and served as its first general secretary; Lala Lajpat Rai was the first president.

Q.17 [History]

Which one among the following was India's first trade union in the proper sense of the term?

(a) Bombay Labour Union
(b) Ahmedabad Labour Union
(c) Madras Labour Union ✓
(d) Allahabad Labour Union

Explanation: The Madras Labour Union, established in 1918 by B. P. Wadia, is considered India's first trade union in the proper sense of the term as it had a formal constitution and organised sustained activities.

Q.18 [History]

Who among the following formed the Seva Samiti Boy Scouts Association in 1914?

(a) Hriday Nath Kunzru ✓
(b) S. G. Vaze
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Shri Ram Bajpai

Explanation: Hriday Nath Kunzru (Pandit Hridayanath Kunzru) founded the Seva Samiti Boy Scouts Association at Allahabad in 1914 to promote scouting among Indian youth.

Q.19 [Polity]

Which one among the following is not correct about the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha?

(a) The Secretary General is the advisor to the Speaker.
(b) The Secretary General acts under the authority in the name of the Speaker. ✓
(c) The Secretary General works under the Speaker with delegated authority.
(d) The Secretary General passes orders in the name of the Speaker.

Explanation: The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha does not act 'under the authority' in the name of the Speaker; rather, the Secretary General works under the Speaker and passes orders in the name of the Speaker, but acts on delegated authority — option (b) misstates the relationship.

Q.20 [Polity/History]

Who among the following moved the motion of Secret Sitting Session of the Assembly (1942)?

(a) M. S. Aney ✓
(b) G. V. Mavalankar
(c) C. M. Stephen
(d) A. Ayyangar

Explanation: M. S. Aney moved the motion for the Secret Sitting Session of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1942, which discussed the Quit India Movement resolution passed by the Congress.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.21 [Polity]

Which one among the following statements pertaining to the President's term of office is not correct?

(a) The President holds office for a term of five years.
(b) The President may be removed from the office by way of impeachment.
(c) The President may resign before the expiration of his/her term by writing to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. ✓
(d) The President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his/her term, continue to hold office until his/her successor enters upon his/her office.

Explanation: Under Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution, the President resigns by writing to the Vice-President of India, not to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Q.22 [Polity]

Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Article 14 and Article 19?

(a) Article 31A and Article 31C ✓
(b) Article 31B and Article 31D
(c) Article 12 and Article 13
(d) Article 16 and Article 17

Explanation: Article 31A (saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates) and Article 31C (saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles) are constitutional exceptions to Articles 14 and 19.

Q.23 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not the necessary condition for the issue of a writ of Quo Warranto?

(a) The office must be a public office.
(b) The office must be created by the Statute or by the Constitution itself.
(c) The office must not be a substantive one. ✓
(d) There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute in appropriating such person to that office.

Explanation: For Quo Warranto, the office must be a substantive (permanent/public) office — requiring that it be NOT substantive is incorrect; substantive nature is in fact a necessary condition.

Q.24 [Polity]

Which one of the following Commissions is related to Article 338A?

(a) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(b) The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes ✓
(c) The National Commission for Backward Classes
(d) The National Commission for Women

Explanation: Article 338A of the Constitution establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, inserted by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.

Q.25 [Current Affairs]

August 12 is celebrated as

(a) World Elephant Day
(b) World No-Tobacco Day
(c) International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking
(d) International Youth Day ✓

Explanation: August 12 is observed as International Youth Day as designated by the United Nations; World Elephant Day is also on August 12, but International Youth Day is the more prominently recognized UN observance for that date. Note: Both World Elephant Day and International Youth Day fall on August 12 — however, the UN officially designates August 12 as International Youth Day, making option (d) the intended answer.

Q.26 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following countries had chosen the name 'Nisarga' for the cyclone which devastated the coastline of Maharashtra and Gujarat in June 2020?

(a) Maldives
(b) Bangladesh ✓
(c) Thailand
(d) Japan

Explanation: Cyclone Nisarga (June 2020) was named by Bangladesh as part of the WMO/ESCAP naming convention for cyclones in the North Indian Ocean region.

Q.27 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following played the role of Shakuntala Devi in the biopic movie based on the life of the famous mathematician?

(a) Madhuri Dixit
(b) Rani Mukherjee
(c) Tabu
(d) Vidya Balan ✓

Explanation: Vidya Balan played the titular role in the 2020 biographical film 'Shakuntala Devi', portraying the renowned Indian mathematician known as the 'human computer'.

Q.28 [Current Affairs]

G. C. Murmu, who was appointed as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in August 2020, was the Lieutenant Governor/Administrator of which one of the following Union Territories prior to this appointment?

(a) Ladakh
(b) Jammu and Kashmir ✓
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Puducherry

Explanation: G. C. Murmu served as the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (after its reorganisation in October 2019) before being appointed CAG of India in August 2020.

Q.29 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following States is planned to host the Khelo India Youth Games (4th Edition)?

(a) Kerala
(b) Haryana ✓
(c) Gujarat
(d) Manipur

Explanation: The 4th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was planned to be hosted by Haryana (held in Panchkula, Shahabad, and other venues in the state).

Q.30 [Geography]

Which one among the following is not a coral reef island?

(a) Great Barrier Reef, Australia
(b) Rainbow Reef, Fiji
(c) Swaraj Island, India
(d) Kyushu Island, Japan ✓

Explanation: Kyushu is one of Japan's main volcanic/continental islands and is not a coral reef island, whereas the Great Barrier Reef, Rainbow Reef, and Swaraj (Havelock) Island are coral reef formations.

Q.31 [Economics]

Since 2014-15, India has consistently run trade surplus with which one among the following countries?

(a) China
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) USA ✓
(d) Germany

Explanation: India has consistently maintained a trade surplus with the USA since 2014-15, exporting more goods and services to the US than it imports, making it one of India's key surplus trading partners.

Q.32 [Economics]

Arrange the following countries in descending order as per the Global Human Development Index, 2019: 1. Germany 2. USA 3. South Africa 4. India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 ✓
(b) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation: In the HDI 2019 report, Germany ranked 4th, USA ranked 15th, South Africa ranked 113th, and India ranked 129th — thus the descending order is Germany, USA, South Africa, India (1, 2, 3, 4).

Q.33 [Economics]

As per the use-based classification of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), the maximum weight has been assigned to

(a) primary goods
(b) intermediate goods ✓
(c) consumer durables
(d) consumer non-durables

Explanation: In the use-based classification of IIP (base year 2011-12), intermediate goods carry the highest weight (approximately 56.3%), reflecting their dominant share in industrial output.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.34 [Economics]

Normally, there will not be a shift in the demand curve when

(a) price of a commodity falls ✓
(b) consumers want to buy more at any given price
(c) average income rises
(d) population grows

Explanation: A change in the price of the commodity itself causes a movement along the existing demand curve (change in quantity demanded), not a shift of the demand curve; shifts occur due to non-price factors like income, population, or preferences.

Q.35 [Economics]

A market, in which there are a large number of firms, homogeneous product, infinite elasticity of demand for an individual firm and no control over price by firms, is termed as

(a) oligopoly
(b) imperfect competition
(c) monopolistic competition
(d) perfect competition ✓

Explanation: Perfect competition is characterised by a large number of sellers, homogeneous (identical) products, perfectly elastic demand for individual firms, and price-taking behaviour with no market power.

Q.36 [Science & Environment]

Which one of the following statements with regard to ozone is not correct?

(a) Ozone is found mostly at 15–55 km in the atmosphere.
(b) Ozone is produced by gaseous chemical reactions.
(c) 16th November is celebrated as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer. ✓
(d) Ozone is a form of oxygen in which three oxygen atoms are bounded together.

Explanation: The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer is celebrated on 16th September (not 16th November), commemorating the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987.

Q.37 [Geography]

Sea of Azov is connected to

(a) Black Sea ✓
(b) Baltic Sea
(c) Mediterranean Sea
(d) North Sea

Explanation: The Sea of Azov is a shallow inland sea connected to the Black Sea via the Strait of Kerch; it is located to the north of the Black Sea between Ukraine and Russia.

Q.38 [Geography]

Climax mine, the largest producer of molybdenum, is located in

(a) Canada
(b) USA ✓
(c) Australia
(d) South Africa

Explanation: The Climax Mine in Lake County, Colorado, USA, is historically the world's largest molybdenum mine and has been a dominant producer of molybdenum ore.

Q.39 [Geography]

Which one among the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in geographical area?

(a) Chandigarh
(b) Puducherry
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
(d) Lakshadweep ✓

Explanation: Lakshadweep, with a total land area of approximately 32 sq km, is the smallest Union Territory of India by geographical area.

Q.40 [Geography]

Buenos Aires and Montevideo are situated across the banks of

(a) River Plate ✓
(b) Orinoco River
(c) Purus River
(d) Madeira River

Explanation: Buenos Aires (Argentina) and Montevideo (Uruguay) are situated on opposite banks of the Río de la Plata (River Plate), a wide estuary on the southeastern coast of South America.

Q.41 [Geography]

The largest barrier reef system in the world is found at

(a) East Australian Coast
(b) West Australian Coast
(c) North Australian Coast ✓
(d) South Australian Coast

Explanation: The Great Barrier Reef, the world's largest coral reef system, is located along the north-eastern (North) coast of Australia in the Coral Sea.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.42 [History]

During the 19th century, who among the following wrote Satapatra Series?

(a) M. G. Ranade
(b) B. G. Tilak
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) G. H. Deshmukh ✓

Explanation: Gopal Hari Deshmukh (Lokahitawadi) wrote the Satapatra (Hundred Letters) series in Marathi in the 19th century, advocating social reform.

Q.43 [History]

Which one of the following was not a demand made by the Congress moderates?

(a) Universal adult franchise ✓
(b) Repeal of the Arms Act
(c) Extension of Permanent Settlement
(d) Higher jobs for Indians in the army

Explanation: The Congress moderates demanded constitutional reforms and civil rights such as repeal of the Arms Act, extension of Permanent Settlement, and higher civil and military posts for Indians, but universal adult franchise was not among their demands as they sought gradual reform within the colonial framework.

Q.44 [History]

Who among the following founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association (1893)?

(a) Auckland Colvin
(b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) Theodore Beck ✓
(d) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

Explanation: Theodore Beck, the principal of MAO College Aligarh, founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association in 1893 to rally Muslim support for British policies and counter Congress influence.

Q.45 [History]

After the First World War, the Triveni Sangh was formed by

(a) the Jats and Gujjars
(b) the Rajputs and Yadavs
(c) the Jats and Yadavs
(d) the Ahirs and Kurmis ✓

Explanation: The Triveni Sangh was a social and political organisation formed in Bihar in the 1930s by three backward castes — Yadavs (Ahirs), Kurmis, and Koiris — to unite against upper-caste domination.

Q.46 [History]

Who among the following was the first to accept a ministerial position in the Central Provinces in October 1925?

(a) B. S. Moonje
(b) M. R. Jayakar
(c) S. B. Tambe ✓
(d) B. N. Sasmal

Explanation: S. B. Tambe was the first Swarajist leader to accept a ministerial position in the Central Provinces in October 1925, breaking the Swaraj Party's policy of non-cooperation with the colonial government.

Q.47 [History]

Who among the following formed the National Liberation Federation (Liberal Party)?

(a) Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das
(b) Muhammad Ali and C. R. Das
(c) T. B. Sapru and M. R. Jayakar ✓
(d) M. R. Jayakar and C. R. Das

Explanation: The National Liberation Federation (also known as the Indian Liberal Federation) was formed by moderate leaders including T. B. Sapru and M. R. Jayakar after moderate Congress leaders separated from the main Congress.

Q.48 [Polity]

The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Ministry of

(a) Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Home Affairs ✓
(c) Commerce and Industry
(d) Finance

Explanation: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is chaired by the Prime Minister and functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, which coordinates disaster management in India.

Q.49 [Polity]

The socialist idea of Sapta Kranti (Seven Revolutions) was proposed by

(a) Ram Manohar Lohia ✓
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) M. G. Ranade
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan

Explanation: Ram Manohar Lohia proposed the concept of Sapta Kranti (Seven Revolutions) encompassing social, economic, and political dimensions including equality between men and women, caste abolition, and anti-colonialism.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.50 [Polity]

Which one among the following is not a character of a secular State?

(a) It refuses theocracy.
(b) It separates religion from the State.
(c) A State in order to be secular must be democratic. ✓
(d) It must prevent religious conflict and promote religious harmony.

Explanation: A secular state need not necessarily be democratic; secularism refers to the separation of religion from state affairs, not to the form of government. Hence the statement that a state must be democratic to be secular is incorrect.

Q.51 [Polity]

A special address by the Governor refers to the address delivered by the Governor

(a) when President's Rule is called for
(b) when a national emergency necessitates dissolution of Legislative Assembly
(c) at the commencement of the first session after general election and at the first session of each year ✓
(d) whenever he/she has concluded that such is necessary

Explanation: Under Article 176 of the Constitution, the Governor addresses the Legislative Assembly at the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the commencement of the first session of each year; this is referred to as the special address.

Q.52 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements in relation to Panchayats is not correct?

(a) Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to the composition of Panchayats.
(b) Panchayat area means the territorial area of a Panchayat.
(c) Gram Sabha includes all persons in the electoral rolls of village within a Panchayat.
(d) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs has nothing to do with proportion of their population. ✓

Explanation: Article 243D of the Constitution mandates that seats reserved for SCs and STs in Panchayats shall be in proportion to their population in that Panchayat area, so the statement in option (d) is incorrect.

Q.53 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements with regard to 'protective democracy' is not correct?

(a) It propounds that citizen participation is essential in democracies. ✓
(b) Citizens must be able to protect themselves from governmental encroachments.
(c) It is compatible with laissez-faire capitalism.
(d) Political equality is understood in formal terms as equal voting rights.

Explanation: Protective democracy, associated with thinkers like Jeremy Bentham and James Mill, focuses on protecting citizens from tyranny through representative government and does not emphasise active citizen participation — that is a feature of developmental or participatory democracy. Hence option (a) is not correct for protective democracy.

Q.54 [Current Affairs]

In August 2020, a blast has taken place at Beirut killing about one hundred people and thousand wounded. The blast was caused by

(a) dynamite
(b) ammonium nitrate ✓
(c) RDX
(d) mercury nitride

Explanation: The Beirut port explosion of August 4, 2020 was caused by the detonation of approximately 2,750 tonnes of ammonium nitrate that had been stored unsafely in a warehouse.

Q.55 [Current Affairs]

What is 'Little Boy'?

(a) The fission bomb dropped at Hiroshima ✓
(b) The fusion bomb dropped at Nagasaki
(c) The first nuclear bomb tested by America
(d) The first nuclear bomb tested by North Korea

Explanation: 'Little Boy' was the codename for the uranium-235 gun-type fission bomb dropped on Hiroshima on 6 August 1945; the bomb dropped on Nagasaki was 'Fat Man', a plutonium implosion device.

Q.56 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following Indian institutes was approved by the Drugs Controller General of India for conducting human trials of the Oxford-AstraZeneca Covid-19 vaccine candidate?

(a) Bharat Biotech
(b) AIIMS
(c) Serum Institute of India ✓
(d) National Institute of Epidemiology

Explanation: The Serum Institute of India (SII), Pune, was approved by the DCGI to conduct phase II/III human trials of the Oxford-AstraZeneca Covid-19 vaccine (Covishield) in India in 2020.

Q.57 [Current Affairs]

The recent explosion near OIL well in Baghjan is due to

(a) removing the spool during the blowout control operations ✓
(b) transfer of oil from its depot to a pipeline
(c) the leakage of methyl isocyanide
(d) the leakage of radiations from radioactive substance

Explanation: The Baghjan oil well blowout (Assam, 2020) caught fire when the spool was removed during blowout control operations, causing a massive explosion and fire at the Oil India Limited well.

Q.58 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following is the architect of the Ram Temple being constructed at Ayodhya?

(a) P. O. Sompura
(b) Chandrakant Sompura ✓
(c) Brinda Somaya
(d) B. V. Doshi

Explanation: Chandrakant Sompura, a renowned temple architect from the Sompura family of Gujarat, is the chief architect of the Ram Mandir being constructed in Ayodhya.

Q.59 [Geography]

Which one of the following countries is not located on the Tropic of Capricorn?

(a) Chile
(b) Brazil
(c) Paraguay
(d) Uruguay ✓

Explanation: The Tropic of Capricorn passes through Chile, Brazil, and Paraguay in South America, but Uruguay lies entirely north of the Tropic of Capricorn (it is located between approximately 30°S and 35°S, south of the tropic at 23.5°S).

Q.60 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Active Volcano): A. Mount Merapi, B. Sakurajima, C. Mount Vesuvius, D. Mauna Loa List-II (Location): 1. Hawaii, 2. Italy, 3. Japan, 4. Indonesia Codes given: (a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4 (b) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4 (c) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1 (d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

(a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(b) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
(c) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1
(d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1 ✓

Explanation: Mount Merapi is in Indonesia (4), Sakurajima is in Japan (3), Mount Vesuvius is in Italy (2), and Mauna Loa is in Hawaii (1), giving the match A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1.

Q.61 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a major tectonic plate?

(a) Saudi Arabian plate ✓
(b) Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
(c) India-Australia-New Zealand plate
(d) Pacific plate

Explanation: The Saudi Arabian plate is a minor tectonic plate, not one of the seven major tectonic plates. The Pacific plate, Antarctic plate, and Indo-Australian plate are all major tectonic plates.

Q.62 [Geography]

Which one of the following is considered as the deepest point of the oceans?

(a) Tonga Trench
(b) Mariana Trench ✓
(c) Philippine Trench
(d) Kermadec Trench

Explanation: The Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean, specifically the Challenger Deep, is the deepest known point on Earth at approximately 11,034 metres below sea level.

Q.63 [Geography]

The four planets closest to the Sun are called

(a) terrestrial planets ✓
(b) giant planets
(c) dwarf planets
(d) gas planets

Explanation: Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are the four inner planets closest to the Sun and are called terrestrial (or rocky) planets because they have solid, rocky surfaces.

Q.64 [Geography]

Which one of the following countries does not have Tundra vegetation?

(a) Belarus ✓
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) Canada

Explanation: Belarus is a landlocked country in Eastern Europe at mid-latitudes and does not have tundra biome. Tundra is found in high-latitude regions of Russia, Canada, and Alaska (USA).

Q.65 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a fluvial landform?

(a) Cirque ✓
(b) Gorge
(c) Braids
(d) Canyon

Explanation: A cirque is a glacial landform — a bowl-shaped depression formed by glacial erosion. Gorges, braided channels, and canyons are all formed by river (fluvial) action.

Q.66 [History]

In the Gandhara School of Art, initially blue schist and green phyllite were used. When did stucco completely replace stone as main material used by Gandhara School sculptors?

(a) 1st century CE
(b) 2nd century CE
(c) 3rd century CE
(d) 5th century CE ✓

Explanation: Stucco (a lime plaster) completely replaced stone as the primary medium in Gandhara sculpture by the 5th century CE, allowing greater flexibility in modelling figures.

Q.67 [History]

Which one of the following statements about Gupta coins is not correct?

(a) Gupta kings issued large number of gold coins known as Dinar.
(b) Chandragupta I, Kumaragupta I, Skandagupta and Budhagupta issued silver coins.
(c) The obverses of coins are carved with the images of the kings and on the reverse are carved deities.
(d) The largest number of coins issued by the Guptas were of copper. ✓

Explanation: The Guptas are primarily renowned for their prolific gold coinage (Dinars); gold coins far outnumber copper coins in Gupta numismatic records, making statement (d) incorrect.

Q.68 [History]

Who among the following wrote The Philosophy of the Bomb?

(a) Sukhdev
(b) Chandrashekhar Azad
(c) Bhagwati Charan Vohra ✓
(d) Bhagat Singh

Explanation: 'The Philosophy of the Bomb' was a 1930 revolutionary pamphlet written by Bhagwati Charan Vohra, a key member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.

Q.69 [History]

At which one of the following Sessions of the Indian National Congress was the resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy passed?

(a) Tripuri Session
(b) Lahore Session
(c) Lucknow Session
(d) Karachi Session ✓

Explanation: The Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931, presided over by Vallabhbhai Patel, passed the landmark resolution on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Policy.

Q.70 [History]

Which one of the following towns was not a centre of the Revolt of 1857?

(a) Ayodhya
(b) Agra ✓
(c) Delhi
(d) Kanpur

Explanation: Agra was not a major centre of the 1857 Revolt; British forces maintained control there throughout. Delhi, Kanpur, and Ayodhya (Faizabad region) were significant centres of the uprising.

Q.71 [History]

Consider the following statements: The Azamgarh Proclamation refers to 1. the declaration by the rebels of 1857 2. the statement by the leader of the underground movement in the Revolt of 1942 Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — the Azamgarh Proclamation was indeed issued by rebels of 1857. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Azamgarh Proclamation has no connection with the Quit India Movement of 1942.

Q.72 [History]

Ibn Batuta went to China as the envoy of which one of the following Delhi Sultans?

(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Muhammad bin Tughluq ✓
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Firoz Shah Tughluq

Explanation: Ibn Batuta served at the court of Muhammad bin Tughluq and was sent by him as an ambassador to China in 1342, as recorded in his travelogue Rihla.

Q.73 [History]

Al-Biruni's Kitab-ul-Hind was written in which language?

(a) Arabic ✓
(b) Persian
(c) Urdu
(d) Turkish

Explanation: Al-Biruni wrote Kitab-ul-Hind (also known as Tahqiq-i-Hind) in Arabic around 1030 CE. Al-Biruni was a Central Asian scholar who learned Sanskrit to study Indian culture.

Q.74 [Polity]

Which of the following statements with regard to the privileges of the Members of the Parliament are correct? 1. Privileges would not be fettered by the Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India. 2. Privileges must be read subject to the Articles 20-22 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India. 3. Immunity is available in relation to both civil and criminal prosecution. 4. Immunity is available in relation to freedom of speech even in his/her private or personal capacity. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation: Parliamentary privilege under Article 105 exempts MPs from Article 19(1)(a) constraints (statement 1 correct) and must be read subject to Articles 20-22 and 32 (statement 2 correct). Statement 3 is incorrect as criminal immunity is limited; statement 4 is incorrect as immunity applies only to speech inside Parliament, not in a private capacity.

Q.75 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements with regard to the appointment of the Members of the Parliamentary Committees is correct?

(a) The Members are only appointed.
(b) The Members are only elected.
(c) The Members are only nominated.
(d) The Members are appointed or elected on a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. ✓

Explanation: Under Parliamentary rules, members of Parliamentary Committees may be appointed, elected, or nominated depending on the type of committee — all through the authority of the Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Q.76 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a classified category of political parties as outlined by the Election Commission of India?

(a) National Parties
(b) State Recognised Parties
(c) Regional Parties ✓
(d) Registered Unrecognised Parties

Explanation: The Election Commission of India classifies parties as National Parties, State Parties (State Recognised), and Registered Unrecognised Parties. 'Regional Parties' is not an official ECI classification category.

Q.77 [Polity]

Which of the following terms were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the Constitutional Amendment, 1976? 1. Socialist 2. Secular 3. Integrity 4. Fraternity Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' into the Preamble. 'Fraternity' was already present in the original Preamble of 1950.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.78 [Polity]

Who among the following was the advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

(a) B. N. Rau ✓
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(d) Alladi Krishnaswamy

Explanation: Sir B. N. Rau (Benegal Narsing Rau) served as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India. He prepared the initial draft of the Constitution and also consulted constitutional experts worldwide.

Q.79 [Polity]

In the Indian judicial system, writs are issued by

(a) the Supreme Court only
(b) the High Courts only
(c) the Supreme Court and High Courts only ✓
(d) the Supreme Court, High Courts and Lower Courts

Explanation: Under the Indian Constitution, only the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) have the power to issue writs. Lower courts do not have this power.

Q.80 [Polity]

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act falls under which one of the following Parts of the Constitution of India?

(a) Part I
(b) Part II ✓
(c) Part IV
(d) Part VI

Explanation: Citizenship is dealt with under Part II of the Constitution of India (Articles 5-11). The Citizenship (Amendment) Act therefore falls under Part II, which governs citizenship provisions.

Q.81 [Current Affairs]

Recently a rare kind of yellow turtle was discovered in India. The State in which it was seen is

(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Odisha ✓
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: The rare albino yellow turtle (flapshell turtle) was discovered in Odisha (Balasore district) in 2020, reported widely in Indian news media.

Q.82 [Current Affairs]

ASEEM is

(a) Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Measurement
(b) Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping ✓
(c) Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Enterprises Medium
(d) Automatic Skilled Employer Mission

Explanation: ASEEM stands for Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping, a portal launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship to map skilled workers with employers.

Q.83 [Current Affairs / Polity]

The Government of India programme regarding 'Stay in India and Study in India' is initiated by

(a) the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
(b) the Ministry of Culture
(c) the Ministry of Education ✓
(d) the Ministry of Tourism

Explanation: The 'Study in India' programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Education (formerly HRD) to attract foreign students to Indian higher education institutions.

Q.84 [Geography / Science]

Which one of the following lakes in India has a large quantity of a substance found in the Moon?

(a) Lonar Lake, Maharashtra ✓
(b) Pangong Lake, Ladakh
(c) Chilika Lake, Odisha
(d) Loktak Lake, Manipur

Explanation: Lonar Lake in Maharashtra is a meteor-impact crater lake and contains anorthosite, a rock type abundantly found on the Moon's surface, making it geologically unique.

Q.85 [Science & Technology]

The Pragyan rover installed in Chandrayaan-2 mission had how many wheels?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6 ✓

Explanation: The Pragyan rover on Chandrayaan-2 had 6 wheels, designed to navigate the lunar surface with a rocker-bogie suspension system.

Q.86 [Physics]

If the linear momentum of a moving object gets doubled due to application of a force, then its kinetic energy will

(a) remain same
(b) increase by four times ✓
(c) increase by two times
(d) increase by eight times

Explanation: Kinetic energy KE = p²/(2m). If momentum p is doubled, KE becomes (2p)²/(2m) = 4p²/(2m), so KE increases by four times.

Q.87 [Physics]

If the distance between two objects is increased by two times, the gravitational force between them will

(a) remain same
(b) increase by two times
(c) decrease by two times
(d) decrease by four times ✓

Explanation: By Newton's law of gravitation, F ∝ 1/r². If distance doubles (r→2r), F becomes F/(2)² = F/4, so the force decreases by four times.

Q.88 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements about the properties of neutrons is not correct?

(a) Neutron mass is almost equal to proton mass.
(b) Neutrons possess zero charge.
(c) Neutrons are located inside the atomic nuclei.
(d) Neutrons revolve around the atomic nuclei. ✓

Explanation: Neutrons are located inside the nucleus along with protons; they do not revolve around the nucleus. Electrons revolve around the nucleus.

Q.89 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements regarding ultraviolet light is not correct?

(a) It is an electromagnetic wave.
(b) It can travel through vacuum.
(c) It is a longitudinal wave. ✓
(d) Its wavelength is shorter/smaller than that of visible light.

Explanation: Ultraviolet light is a transverse electromagnetic wave, not a longitudinal wave. Longitudinal waves (like sound) require a medium; light is transverse.

Q.90 [Physics]

If the speed of light in air is represented by c and the speed in a medium is v, then the refractive index of the medium can be calculated using the formula

(a) v / c
(b) c / v ✓
(c) (c – v) / c
(d) (c – v) / v

Explanation: Refractive index n = speed of light in air / speed of light in medium = c/v. This is the standard definition of refractive index.

Q.91 [Biology]

Under the Kingdom Plantae, which of the following individuals are predominantly aquatic?

(a) Bryophytes
(b) Algae ✓
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms

Explanation: Algae are predominantly aquatic organisms found in both freshwater and marine environments; they are classified under Kingdom Plantae (or Protista in some classifications) and are the most aquatic of the options.

Q.92 [Biology]

All the individuals of a particular organism, such as rose plants, belong to a taxonomic category called

(a) species ✓
(b) genus
(c) family
(d) order

Explanation: All individuals of a particular type of organism (e.g., all rose plants of the same type) belong to the same species, which is the most basic unit of taxonomy.

Q.93 [Biology]

Pearls are harvested from

(a) Prawn
(b) Pila
(c) Tuna
(d) Oyster ✓

Explanation: Pearls are produced by oysters (and some other molluscs) as a natural defense mechanism against irritants; pearl farming involves cultivating oysters.

Q.94 [Biology]

Wings of birds and bats are considered analogous structures because they have

(a) common origin and common function
(b) different origin and common function ✓
(c) common origin and different function
(d) different origin and different function

Explanation: Analogous structures have different evolutionary origins but perform the same function. Bird and bat wings both enable flight (common function) but evolved independently from different ancestral structures (different origin).

Q.95 [Biology]

Apart from hyper acid secretion, peptic ulcers are also developed due to bacterial infection. The causative agent is

(a) Helicobacter pylori ✓
(b) E. coli
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(d) Salmonella typhimurium

Explanation: Helicobacter pylori is the bacterium responsible for causing peptic ulcers by infecting the stomach lining; this discovery earned Marshall and Warren the Nobel Prize in 2005.

Q.96 [Chemistry]

A mixture of sodium chloride (salt) and ammonium chloride can be separated by

(a) sublimation ✓
(b) filtration
(c) chromatography
(d) distillation

Explanation: Ammonium chloride undergoes sublimation (converts directly from solid to gas) on heating, while sodium chloride does not. This property is used to separate the two.

Q.97 [Chemistry]

Symbol of element was introduced by

(a) John Dalton
(b) Antoine Lavoisier
(c) Jöns Jacob Berzelius ✓
(d) Robert Boyle

Explanation: Jöns Jacob Berzelius introduced the modern system of chemical symbols for elements (using one or two letters from the element's Latin name) in 1813.

Q.98 [Chemistry]

Identify the correct pair of elements among the following which are liquid at room temperature and standard pressure.

(a) Bromine and fluorine
(b) Mercury and rubidium
(c) Bromine and thallium
(d) Bromine and mercury ✓

Explanation: At room temperature and standard pressure, only bromine (a non-metal) and mercury (a metal) exist as liquids among all elements; fluorine, rubidium, and thallium are gases or solids.

Q.99 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following oxides shows both acidic and basic behaviour?

(a) Zinc oxide ✓
(b) Copper oxide
(c) Magnesium oxide
(d) Calcium oxide

Explanation: Zinc oxide (ZnO) is an amphoteric oxide — it reacts with both acids and bases. Copper oxide, magnesium oxide, and calcium oxide are basic oxides only.

Q.100 [Chemistry]

Silver articles turn black when kept in the open for longer time due to the formation of

(a) H₂S
(b) AgS
(c) Ag₂SO₄
(d) Ag₂S ✓

Explanation: Silver reacts with hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) present in the atmosphere to form silver sulphide (Ag₂S), a black compound, causing the tarnishing of silver articles.

Q.101 [Physics]

Which of the following lenses will bend the light rays through largest angle?

(a) +2.0 D
(b) +2.5 D ✓
(c) –1.5 D
(d) –2.0 D

Explanation: The power of a lens (in diopters) is directly related to its ability to bend light. A higher absolute value of power means greater bending; +2.5 D has the highest absolute value among the options.

Q.102 [Physics]

A luminous object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a converging lens of focal length 25 cm. The image obtained on the screen is:

(a) erect and magnified
(b) erect and smaller
(c) inverted and magnified ✓
(d) inverted and smaller

Explanation: Using lens formula: 1/v – 1/u = 1/f, with u = –40 cm and f = +25 cm, v = +66.7 cm. Since v is positive and |v| > |u|, the image is real, inverted, and magnified.

Q.103 [Physics]

When a light ray enters into glass medium from water at an angle of incidence 0°, what would be the angle of refraction?

(a) 90°
(b) 45°
(c) 0° ✓
(d) The ray will not enter at all

Explanation: When a ray hits a surface at 0° angle of incidence (i.e., along the normal), it passes straight through without bending, so the angle of refraction is also 0°.

Q.104 [Physics]

Which one of the following phenomena verifies the fact that light travels much faster than sound?

(a) Twinkling of stars in night sky
(b) Lighting of a matchstick
(c) Thunderstorm ✓
(d) Mirage

Explanation: During a thunderstorm, we see lightning before hearing thunder because light travels at ~3×10⁸ m/s while sound travels at only ~340 m/s, clearly demonstrating light is much faster.

Q.105 [Physics]

Which one of the following combinations of source and screen would produce sharpest shadow of an opaque object?

(a) A point source and an opaque screen ✓
(b) An extended source and an opaque screen
(c) A point source and a transparent screen
(d) An extended source and a transparent screen

Explanation: A point source emits light from a single point, producing a completely sharp umbra (no penumbra) on an opaque screen, giving the sharpest possible shadow.

Q.106 [Physics]

Which one among the following is a non-conventional source of energy?

(a) Petroleum
(b) Coal
(c) Radioactive elements
(d) Solar energy ✓

Explanation: Solar energy is a non-conventional (renewable) source of energy. Petroleum, coal, and radioactive elements (used in nuclear power) are conventional energy sources.

Q.107 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements about phloem is correct?

(a) Phloem transports water and minerals.
(b) Phloem transports photosynthetic products. ✓
(c) Phloem is a simple tissue.
(d) Phloem gives support to the plant.

Explanation: Phloem is the vascular tissue responsible for transporting photosynthetic products (sugars/food) from leaves to other parts of the plant; water and minerals are transported by xylem.

Q.108 [Biology]

Mature sclerenchyma cells have

(a) cellulose wall and are living
(b) lignified wall and are living
(c) suberized wall and are dead
(d) lignified wall and are dead ✓

Explanation: Mature sclerenchyma cells have thick, lignified cell walls and are dead at maturity; they provide mechanical support to the plant.

Q.109 [Biology]

In human beings, the chromosomes that determine birth of a normal female child are

(a) one X chromosome from mother and one X chromosome from father ✓
(b) one X chromosome from mother and one Y chromosome from father
(c) two X chromosomes from mother and one X chromosome from father
(d) one X chromosome and one Y chromosome from father and one X chromosome from mother

Explanation: Females have XX sex chromosomes. The mother (XX) contributes one X, and the father (XY) contributes one X for a female child, making the combination XX.

Q.110 [Biology]

Antibiotic such as penicillin blocks

(a) cell wall formation in bacteria ✓
(b) RNA synthesis in bacteria
(c) DNA synthesis in bacteria
(d) division in bacteria

Explanation: Penicillin inhibits the cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains in bacterial cell walls, thereby blocking cell wall formation and causing bacteria to lyse.

Q.111 [Chemistry]

The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is

(a) Protium
(b) Deuterium
(c) Tritium ✓
(d) Hydronium

Explanation: Tritium (³H) is the radioactive isotope of hydrogen with one proton and two neutrons; protium and deuterium are stable isotopes, and hydronium (H₃O⁺) is an ion, not an isotope.

Q.112 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is used for storing biological tissues?

(a) Liquid nitrogen ✓
(b) Liquid helium
(c) Liquid argon
(d) Liquid bromine

Explanation: Liquid nitrogen (at –196°C) is widely used in cryopreservation to store biological tissues, cells, and samples because it maintains ultra-low temperatures safely.

Q.113 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following does not form oxide on reaction with oxygen?

(a) Magnesium
(b) Lead
(c) Tin
(d) Silver ✓

Explanation: Silver is a noble metal that does not react with oxygen under normal conditions to form an oxide; magnesium, lead, and tin all readily form oxides.

Q.114 [Chemistry]

The valency of phosphorus is

(a) 2, 3
(b) 3, 4
(c) 4, 5
(d) 3, 5 ✓

Explanation: Phosphorus exhibits variable valency of 3 (as in PCl₃, phosphorus trichloride) and 5 (as in PCl₅, phosphorus pentachloride) due to the availability of vacant d-orbitals.

Q.115 [Chemistry]

Lead nitrate on heating gives

(a) PbO, NO₂
(b) PbO and NO₂ ✓
(c) PbO, NO
(d) PbO₂ and NO

Explanation: Thermal decomposition of lead nitrate: 2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂. The products are lead monoxide (PbO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) along with oxygen.

Q.116 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following is a decommissioned aircraft carrier?

(a) INS Rajput
(b) INS Chakra
(c) INS Khanderi
(d) INS Viraat ✓

Explanation: INS Viraat, the former British aircraft carrier HMS Hermes, was decommissioned by the Indian Navy in March 2017 after serving for about 30 years.

Q.117 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following has won the Singles Title in Wimbledon Tennis Championship (Women) in the year 2019?

(a) Karolina Pliskova
(b) Simona Halep ✓
(c) Serena Williams
(d) Naomi Osaka

Explanation: Simona Halep won the 2019 Wimbledon Women's Singles title, defeating Serena Williams 6–2, 6–2 in the final in a dominant performance.

Q.118 [Current Affairs]

Recently islands of Andaman and Nicobar were connected with mainland by Submarine Optical Fibre Cable. Which one of the following islands was not connected initially?

(a) Shaheed Island
(b) Swaraj Island
(c) Little Andaman ✓
(d) Port Blair

Explanation: When the submarine optical fibre cable project initially connected Andaman and Nicobar Islands to the mainland, Little Andaman was not part of the initial connection phase.

Q.119 [Current Affairs]

In August 2020, who among the following was administered the oath as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka for the fourth time?

(a) Gotabaya Rajapaksa
(b) Basil Rajapaksa
(c) Mahinda Rajapaksa ✓
(d) Namal Rajapaksa

Explanation: Mahinda Rajapaksa was sworn in as Prime Minister of Sri Lanka for the fourth time in August 2020, after his Sri Lanka Podujana Peramuna party won a landslide victory in parliamentary elections.

Q.120 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following Indian Ocean island nations has recently declared a state of environmental emergency due to oil spill from a grounded ship?

(a) Maldives
(b) Mauritius ✓
(c) Madagascar
(d) Sri Lanka

Explanation: Mauritius declared a state of environmental emergency in August 2020 after the MV Wakashio, a Japanese bulk carrier, ran aground and spilled approximately 1,000 tonnes of fuel oil near its coast.