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CDS I 2021 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2021 (Session I) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Economics]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Real GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at common prices.
(b) Potential GDP is the real GDP that the economy would produce if its resources were fully employed.
(c) Nominal GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at constant prices. ✓
(d) Real GDP per capita is the ratio of real GDP divided by population.

Explanation: Nominal GDP is calculated by valuing outputs at current (market) prices, not constant prices. It is Real GDP that uses constant prices. Option (c) incorrectly defines Nominal GDP.

Q.2 [Economics]

The mismatch in the regional or occupational pattern of job vacancies and the pattern of worker availability results in

(a) Structural unemployment ✓
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Altered unemployment
(d) Cyclical unemployment

Explanation: Structural unemployment arises from a mismatch between the skills or location of job seekers and the requirements or location of job vacancies, making option (a) correct.

Q.3 [Economics]

The situation in an economy which is growing slowly along with rapid inflation (rising price level) is called

(a) Stagnation
(b) Deflation
(c) Stagflation ✓
(d) Recession

Explanation: Stagflation refers to the combination of stagnant economic growth and high inflation simultaneously, which exactly describes the situation in the question.

Q.4 [Economics]

The increase in private investment spending induced by the increase in Government spending is known as

(a) Crowding in ✓
(b) Deficit financing
(c) Crowding out
(d) Sectoral Output

Explanation: Crowding in occurs when increased government spending stimulates private investment, as opposed to crowding out which suppresses it. The question describes a positive spillover effect, so the answer is (a).

Q.5 [Economics]

The asset or assets that a borrower pledges in order to guarantee repayment of a loan is called as

(a) Cheque
(b) Collateral ✓
(c) Guarantee card
(d) Bond

Explanation: Collateral is the asset pledged by a borrower as security against a loan; if the borrower defaults, the lender can seize the collateral.

Q.6 [Economics]

The percentage by which the money the borrower pays back exceeds the money that was borrowed is called as

(a) Bank rate
(b) Nominal interest rate ✓
(c) Real interest rate
(d) Terms of credit

Explanation: The nominal interest rate is the percentage of the principal that a borrower pays back on top of the principal, without adjusting for inflation. This matches the definition given in the question.

Q.7 [History]

Which one of the following statements about the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931 is correct?

(a) The Government would not release those prisoners who had been non-violent.
(b) The Government would not release those prisoners who had indulged in the peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops.
(c) The Congress did not agree to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(d) The Congress agreed to take part in the Second Round Table Conference. ✓

Explanation: Under the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931, the Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference; option (d) is correct.

Q.8 [History]

Who among the following founded the Bhil Seva Mandal in 1922?

(a) Dayaram Gidumal
(b) Gurusaday Dutt
(c) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(d) Amritlal Vithaldas Thakkar ✓

Explanation: Amritlal Vithaldas Thakkar, also known as Thakkar Bapa, founded the Bhil Seva Mandal in 1922 to work for the welfare of tribal communities.

Q.9 [History]

In 1911, who among the following introduced a bill in the Imperial Legislative Council for introduction of compulsory and free primary education in India?

(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Sir Harcourt Butler
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale ✓

Explanation: Gopal Krishna Gokhale introduced the Elementary Education Bill in the Imperial Legislative Council in 1911, advocating for free and compulsory primary education across India.

Q.10 [History]

Which one of the following statements about the Act V of 1843 relating to Slavery in India is correct?

(a) It gave the masters the right to wilfully keep their slaves tied to their estates.
(b) It denied the masters the use of Courts to assert their claims on slaves. ✓
(c) The Law Courts and masters worked jointly in resolving the cases of desertion.
(d) The slaves became the owners of the land.

Explanation: Act V of 1843 (Indian Slavery Act) abolished slavery by making it illegal for courts to recognise the status of slavery, thereby denying masters legal recourse to assert any claim over slaves.

Q.11 [History]

Which Maratha statesman signed the Treaty of Bassein on December 31, 1802?

(a) Baji Rao II ✓
(b) Vithuji Holkar
(c) Daulat Rao Sindhia
(d) Madhava Rao Narayan

Explanation: The Treaty of Bassein (1802) was signed by Peshwa Baji Rao II with the British East India Company, making the Marathas a subsidiary ally of the British.

Q.12 [History]

The Amara-Nayaka system was a major political innovation of which Indian imperial rulers?

(a) Cholas
(b) Chalukyas
(c) Guptas
(d) Vijayanagara ✓

Explanation: The Amara-Nayaka system was a distinctive feature of the Vijayanagara Empire, in which military commanders were granted land in exchange for military service and revenue collection.

Q.13 [Science & Technology]

KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative to provide opportunities to women scientists who

(a) had a break in their career due to family reasons. ✓
(b) are pursuing innovative research in life sciences.
(c) have collaborative projects with labs in foreign countries.
(d) have leading edge projects in Nano-Science and Technology.

Explanation: The KIRAN scheme by DST (Department of Science and Technology) is specifically designed to support women scientists who had a break in their research career due to family or social reasons.

Q.14 [Science & Technology]

NIDHI is an umbrella scheme for the promotion of

(a) young and aspiring innovators. ✓
(b) senior citizens
(c) primary health care.
(d) primary education in rural areas.

Explanation: NIDHI (National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations) is a DST umbrella programme aimed at nurturing and promoting young and aspiring innovators and startups in India.

Q.15 [Government Schemes]

The Saubhagya Scheme aims at universal

(a) LPG connection.
(b) household electrification. ✓
(c) primary school education.
(d) public health insurance.

Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana – 'Saubhagya' scheme was launched in 2017 to achieve universal household electrification across India.

Q.16 [Government Schemes]

Mission Indradhanush aims at

(a) reducing child deaths due to pneumonia.
(b) reducing the impact of rotavirus.
(c) elimination of maternal tetanus.
(d) full immunisation of children. ✓

Explanation: Mission Indradhanush, launched in 2014, aims to achieve full immunisation coverage for all children under two years and pregnant women who have been left out or missed by routine immunisation programmes.

Q.17 [Government Schemes]

Which one of the following statements about the DDU — GKY is not correct?

(a) It is a skill training programme.
(b) It is for rural youth from poor families.
(c) Its objective is placement in wage employment.
(d) It relies entirely on skill training by Government agencies. ✓

Explanation: DDU-GKY (Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana) primarily involves private sector and non-government training partners; it does not rely entirely on government agencies, making option (d) incorrect.

Q.18 [Government Schemes]

Which of the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana are correct? 1. It is part of Government of India's poverty reduction strategy. 2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for road connectivity in rural areas. 3. It provides connectivity in rural areas.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: All three statements are correct: PMGSY is a centrally sponsored scheme for rural road connectivity, explicitly listed under India's poverty reduction strategy, and it does provide connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.

Q.19 [Geography]

India's territorial limit extends towards the sea up to

(a) 10 nautical miles
(b) 12 nautical miles ✓
(c) 14 nautical miles
(d) 15 nautical miles

Explanation: Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), every coastal state including India has a territorial sea that extends up to 12 nautical miles from its baseline.

Q.20 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a cold ocean current?

(a) Brazilian Current
(b) Gulf Stream
(c) North Equatorial Current
(d) California Current ✓

Explanation: The California Current is a cold Pacific Ocean current that flows southward along the western coast of North America. The Brazilian Current and Gulf Stream are warm currents, and the North Equatorial Current is also warm.

Q.21 [Geography]

Identify the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics: • They are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. • They are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. • They are mainly found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

(a) Laterite soil
(b) Red and yellow soil
(c) Saline soil
(d) Black soil ✓

Explanation: Black soil (Regur soil) is rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina, is clayey, deep and impermeable, and is predominantly found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat — the Deccan Trap region.

Q.22 [Agriculture / Geography]

Arabica, Robusta and Liberica are varieties of

(a) Coffee ✓
(b) Tea
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Cotton

Explanation: Arabica, Robusta and Liberica are the three main commercially cultivated species of coffee (Coffea genus).

Q.23 [Economics / Industry]

Aluminium is manufactured from

(a) Copper ore
(b) Bauxite ore ✓
(c) Mica ore
(d) Manganese ore

Explanation: Aluminium is extracted from bauxite ore through the Bayer process to obtain alumina, which is then smelted via the Hall-Héroult electrolytic process.

Q.24 [Geography / Trade]

Which one of the following sea ports gained significance for handling iron-ore exports to Japan?

(a) Kandla
(b) Ennore
(c) Kochi
(d) Mormugao ✓

Explanation: Mormugao port in Goa became significant for exporting iron ore to Japan, being situated close to the iron-ore mining regions of Goa and Karnataka.

Q.25 [Economics]

Which one of the following is not a function of money?

(a) Acts as an intermediate in the exchange process
(b) Acts as a store of value
(c) Used as the unit of account
(d) Used for regulating consumption ✓

Explanation: The standard functions of money are medium of exchange, store of value, unit of account, and standard of deferred payment. Regulating consumption is not a recognised function of money.

Q.26 [Economics / Macroeconomics]

The situation where the equilibrium level of real GDP falls short of potential GDP is known as

(a) Recessionary gap ✓
(b) Inflationary gap
(c) Demand-side inflation
(d) Supply-side inflation

Explanation: A recessionary (or deflationary) gap occurs when actual/equilibrium real GDP is below the potential (full-employment) GDP, indicating underutilisation of resources.

Q.27 [Economics / Public Finance]

The excess of total expenditure of Government over its total receipts, excluding borrowings, is known as

(a) Primary deficit
(b) Fiscal deficit ✓
(c) Current deficit
(d) Capital deficit

Explanation: Fiscal deficit is the difference between total government expenditure and total receipts excluding borrowings; it measures the extent to which the government borrows to finance its spending.

Q.28 [Economics / International Finance]

Exchange rates state the value of one currency in terms of other currencies. Which one of the following statements with respect to the exchange rate of currency is correct?

(a) Floating exchange rates are rates in which the Governments interfere by buying or selling their currencies.
(b) Fixed exchange rates are rates set by Government decisions and maintained by Government actions. ✓
(c) Under the Bretton Woods System, the exchange rates are floated in terms of rise or fall in price of gold.
(d) Under the classical gold standard, the exchange rates are fixed in terms of price of dollar.

Explanation: Fixed exchange rates are indeed set by government (or central bank) decisions and maintained through official intervention; option (a) describes a managed/dirty float, not a pure float, and options (c) and (d) are factually incorrect descriptions of those systems.

Q.29 [History / Mughal Period]

Francois Bernier was physician to

(a) Prince Murad
(b) Princess Jahanara
(c) Emperor Shah Jahan
(d) Prince Dara Shikoh ✓

Explanation: Francois Bernier, the French physician and traveller who visited Mughal India, served as personal physician to Prince Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan.

Q.30 [History / Colonial Economy]

Which one of the following British firms was taken over by Soorajmull-Nagarmull group?

(a) McLeod
(b) Octavius Steel ✓
(c) Davenport
(d) Andrew Yule

Explanation: The Soorajmull-Nagarmull group, a prominent Indian business house, took over Octavius Steel, a British managing agency firm, as part of the Indianisation of business houses in the post-independence period.

Q.31 [History / Colonial Land Revenue]

Which one of the following statements with regard to ryotwari settlement is not correct?

(a) In southern and western India, the ryotwari settlement was adopted.
(b) Ryotwari was in principle a direct contract between the ryot and the state.
(c) It means a tax contract valid for usually 30 years.
(d) In principle, it strengthened the former elite, the zamindars and weakened the peasantry. ✓

Explanation: Ryotwari settlement was a direct contract between peasants (ryots) and the state, deliberately bypassing zamindars; it did not strengthen zamindars — option (d) describes the effect of the Permanent Zamindari Settlement, not ryotwari.

Q.32 [History / Colonial India]

Which one of the following statements about the British Indian Medical Service (IMS) is not correct?

(a) IMS began in 1764.
(b) It recruited health professionals by means of a competitive examination.
(c) Indians were never admitted to IMS. ✓
(d) The IMS was at first meant to look after the troops.

Explanation: Indians were eventually admitted to the IMS, particularly after the early 20th century when the service was gradually opened to Indians through competitive examinations, making statement (c) incorrect.

Q.33 [History / Colonial Trade]

When was the monopoly of China trade lost by East India Company?

(a) 1813
(b) 1833 ✓
(c) 1838
(d) 1860

Explanation: The Charter Act of 1833 ended the East India Company's monopoly over trade with China (its India trade monopoly had already been abolished by the Charter Act of 1813).

Q.34 [Polity / Disaster Management]

National Disaster Management Authority is headed by

(a) the Prime Minister. ✓
(b) the Home Minister.
(c) the President.
(d) the Health Minister.

Explanation: Under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by the Prime Minister of India as its ex-officio Chairperson.

Q.35 [Polity / Parliament]

Which of the following statements regarding the 'casting vote' in the Parliament is/are correct? • It is cast by the Speaker or a person acting as such. • It is cast in addition to voting in the first instance. • It is cast in the case of equality of votes. • It is always cast to maintain the status quo.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Under Article 100 of the Constitution, the Speaker does not vote in the first instance and exercises a casting vote only in case of equality of votes; the casting vote need not always maintain the status quo (that is a convention, not a rule), making statements 1 and 3 correct.

Q.36 [Polity / Fundamental Rights]

Equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India is guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 14 ✓
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 22

Explanation: Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

Q.37 [Political Theory / Jurisprudence]

'Legal Positivism' theory was developed by

(a) T.H. Green
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) John Austin ✓
(d) Patrick Devlin

Explanation: John Austin is regarded as the founder of Legal Positivism; his command theory of law, articulated in 'The Province of Jurisprudence Determined' (1832), laid the foundation of positivist jurisprudence.

Q.38 [Political Theory]

Who among the following said that Democracy means a system of 'Government by Consent'?

(a) John Locke ✓
(b) J.S. Mill
(c) Jeremy Bentham
(d) J.J. Rousseau

Explanation: John Locke is associated with the concept of government by consent; he argued in his 'Two Treatises of Government' that legitimate political authority rests on the consent of the governed.

Q.39 [Geography / Agriculture]

Milpa and Ladang are different names for

(a) shifting cultivation. ✓
(b) mixed farming.
(c) truck farming.
(d) plantation agriculture.

Explanation: Milpa (used in Central America/Mexico) and Ladang (used in Southeast Asia) are regional names for shifting cultivation, a type of subsistence agriculture where land is cleared, cultivated briefly, and then abandoned.

Q.40 [Geography / Human Development]

Which one of the following approaches of human development was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and emphasised on health, education, food, water supply, sanitation and housing?

(a) Welfare approach
(b) Basic needs approach ✓
(c) Income approach
(d) Capability approach

Explanation: The Basic Needs approach was proposed by the ILO in the 1970s and focused on fulfilling minimum requirements of health, education, food, water supply, sanitation and housing for all people.

Q.41 [Geography]

Which one of the following tributaries of river Indus feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal Project?

(a) Chenab
(b) Satluj ✓
(c) Ravi
(d) Jhelum

Explanation: The Bhakra Nangal Project is built on the Satluj (Sutlej) River in Himachal Pradesh/Punjab, which is a tributary of the Indus.

Q.42 [Geography]

When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions into a lake or depression, the pattern is known as

(a) Trellis
(b) Dendritic
(c) Radial
(d) Centripetal ✓

Explanation: Centripetal drainage pattern occurs when streams flow inward toward a central depression or lake from all directions, as opposed to radial which flows outward.

Q.43 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements about the Coriolis force is not correct?

(a) It is maximum at the Poles.
(b) It is absent at the Equator.
(c) It deflects the wind to the right direction in the southern hemisphere. ✓
(d) It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere.

Explanation: The Coriolis force deflects winds to the LEFT in the southern hemisphere and to the right in the northern hemisphere; option (c) is therefore incorrect.

Q.44 [History]

Chronologically arrange the following treaties/conventions signed between the Marathas and the British (starting with the earliest): 1. Treaty of Salbai 2. Treaty of Purandar 3. Convention of Wadgaon 4. Treaty of Surat Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4-2-3-1 ✓
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 1-3-2-4
(d) 1-2-3-4

Explanation: Treaty of Surat (1775) → Treaty of Purandar (1776) → Convention of Wadgaon (1779) → Treaty of Salbai (1782), giving the order 4-2-3-1.

Q.45 [History]

Which of the following statements about the Sanyasi and Faqir disturbances/rebellions are correct? 1. Governor-General Warren Hastings faced the persistent Sanyasi and Faqir disturbances in Bengal and Bihar. 2. There were a number of Shaivite Naga Sanyasis who formed into armed bands. 3. Majnu Shah, who led bands into Bengal from 1771, was their prominent leader. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: All three statements are correct: Warren Hastings did face these disturbances, Shaivite Naga Sanyasis formed armed bands, and Majnu Shah was the prominent Faqir leader who led raids from 1771 onwards.

Q.46 [History]

In 1943, young leaders in which one of the following districts of Maharashtra set up a parallel Government (prati sarkar) with volunteer corps (seva dals) and village units (tufan dals)?

(a) Pune
(b) Nasik
(c) Nagpur
(d) Satara ✓

Explanation: The Satara 'Prati Sarkar' (parallel government) was established in 1943 in Satara district of Maharashtra during the Quit India Movement, led by Nana Patil and others.

Q.47 [History]

Who founded the Central Hindu School at Benaras which was later developed into Benaras Hindu University?

(a) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(b) Annie Besant ✓
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) Madame H.P. Blavatsky

Explanation: Annie Besant founded the Central Hindu College (School) at Benaras in 1898, which was later incorporated into Banaras Hindu University established by Madan Mohan Malaviya in 1916.

Q.48 [Polity]

Which one among the following is not a feature of centralization?

(a) National unity
(b) Uniformity
(c) Prosperity
(d) Liberty ✓

Explanation: Liberty (freedom/autonomy) is not a feature of centralization; centralization tends to concentrate power and restrict local autonomy, whereas national unity, uniformity, and efficient administration (prosperity) are its typical features.

Q.49 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not an objective of NITI Aayog?

(a) It provides a critical direction and strategic input for development process.
(b) It functions as a 'think tank' in providing key elements of policy.
(c) It monitors and evaluates the implementation of the programmes.
(d) It offers a platform for resolution of inter-state conflicts as 'provider of first and last resort'. ✓

Explanation: NITI Aayog is not mandated to resolve inter-state conflicts as a 'provider of first and last resort'; that role belongs to constitutional/judicial bodies. NITI Aayog's role is advisory, policy-oriented, and cooperative federalism-focused.

Q.50 [Polity]

Article 231 of the Constitution of India grants power to establish a common High Court for two or more states to

(a) the Parliament. ✓
(b) the Supreme Court.
(c) the President of India.
(d) the Union Cabinet.

Explanation: Article 231 empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states or for two or more states and a Union Territory by law.

Q.51 [Polity]

Which one among the following motions cannot be made while introducing an ordinary Bill in the Parliament?

(a) That the Bill be taken into consideration
(b) That the Bill be circulated for the purpose of eliciting public opinion
(c) That the Bill be referred to a Select Committee
(d) That the Bill be referred to a Joint Committee of the House without the concurrence of the other House ✓

Explanation: A Bill can be referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses only with the concurrence of both Houses; a single House cannot unilaterally refer a Bill to a Joint Committee without the other House's concurrence, making option (d) the motion that cannot be made.

Q.52 [Polity]

Which one among the following was eliminated by the 44th Amendment Act of the Parliament?

(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right to Property ✓
(d) Right to Education

Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 removed the Right to Property (Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31) from the list of Fundamental Rights, making it only a legal right under Article 300A.

Q.53 [Geography]

Identify the crop on the basis of the following characteristics: 1. It is a kharif crop. 2. Aus, Aman and Boro are its three different growing periods in an agricultural year. 3. About one-fourth of the total cropped area of India is under its cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Wheat
(b) Rice ✓
(c) Pulses
(d) Cotton

Explanation: Aus, Aman, and Boro are the three distinct growing seasons of Rice in India (primarily in Bengal/Assam). Rice is also a kharif crop and occupies about one-fourth of total cropped area in India.

Q.54 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a type of igneous rock?

(a) Marble
(b) Halite
(c) Granite ✓
(d) Shale

Explanation: Granite is a coarse-grained intrusive igneous rock. Marble is metamorphic, Shale is sedimentary, and Halite is a sedimentary evaporite mineral.

Q.55 [Geography]

Ozone layer, which absorbs the ultra-violet radiation, is found in which one of the following layers of the atmosphere?

(a) Ionosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere ✓

Explanation: The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere, approximately 15–35 km above Earth's surface, where it absorbs most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.

Q.56 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements about primary waves of earthquakes is not correct?

(a) They are similar to sound waves.
(b) They can travel only through solid materials. ✓
(c) They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
(d) They move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.

Explanation: Primary (P) waves are compressional waves that can travel through solids, liquids, and gases — not only through solid materials. Statement (b) is therefore incorrect; it is S-waves that cannot travel through liquids.

Q.57 [Geography]

Alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. They are generally

(a) poor in potash and rich in phosphorus.
(b) poor in both potash and phosphorus.
(c) rich in both potash and phosphorus.
(d) rich in potash and poor in phosphorus. ✓

Explanation: Alluvial soils are generally rich in potash but deficient in phosphorus and nitrogen, making option (d) correct.

Q.58 [History]

Who among the following was popularly known as 'Lokahitwadi'?

(a) Gopal Hari Deshmukh ✓
(b) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Jyotiba Phule

Explanation: Gopal Hari Deshmukh (1823–1892), a social reformer from Maharashtra, was popularly known by the pen name 'Lokahitwadi' (well-wisher of the people).

Q.59 [History]

Who among the following socialist activists persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the salt march protest to men alone?

(a) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay ✓
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Matangini Hazra
(d) Mithuben Petit

Explanation: Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, a socialist and feminist activist, persuaded Gandhiji to allow women to participate in the Salt March (Dandi March) of 1930, breaking his initial plan to limit it to men.

Q.60 [History]

Which one of the following painters was not associated with Humayun?

(a) Mir Sayyid Ali
(b) Maulana Dost Musawir
(c) Maulana Yusuf
(d) Bihzad ✓

Explanation: Bihzad (Kamal ud-Din Bihzad) was a celebrated Persian painter of the Timurid and Safavid eras who died before Humayun's reign effectively patronised artists; he was not directly associated with Humayun's court. Mir Sayyid Ali, Maulana Dost Musawir, and Maulana Yusuf were all painters associated with Humayun.

Q.61 [History]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Author): A. Brindavan Das, B. Krishnadas Kaviraj, C. Mukundaram Chakravarti, D. Rameshwar Bhattacharya List II (Poetical Work): 1. Shivasankirttan, 2. Chandimangal, 3. Chaitanyacharitamrita, 4. Chaitanyamangal Code: A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4

(a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 ✓
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Explanation: Brindavan Das authored Chaitanyamangal (4), Krishnadas Kaviraj wrote Chaitanyacharitamrita (3), Mukundaram Chakravarti composed Chandimangal (2), and Rameshwar Bhattacharya wrote Shivasankirttan (1).

Q.62 [History]

Which one of the following scholars of Akbar's court translated Bhaskaracharya's Lilavati into Persian?

(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Faizi ✓
(c) Fathullah Shirazi
(d) Ataullah Rashidi

Explanation: Faizi, the court poet and scholar in Akbar's Navratnas, translated the Sanskrit mathematical treatise Lilavati by Bhaskaracharya into Persian.

Q.63 [Polity]

Who among the following was the Chairman of the National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution (2000)?

(a) Justice J.S. Verma
(b) Justice Y.K. Sabharwal
(c) Justice Ranganath Mishra
(d) Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah ✓

Explanation: Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah, former Chief Justice of India, was appointed as the Chairman of the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution set up in 2000.

Q.64 [Polity]

M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations has recommended the disposal of a bill reserved for the consideration of the Union Executive within

(a) four months.
(b) six months. ✓
(c) eight months.
(d) five months.

Explanation: The Punchhi Commission (2007-2010) recommended that bills reserved by the Governor for the President's consideration should be disposed of within six months.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.65 [History]

Who among the following founded the Marathi newspaper Kesari?

(a) Lokmanya Tilak ✓
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation: Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Lokmanya Tilak) founded the Marathi newspaper Kesari in 1881, which became a powerful platform for Indian nationalism.

Q.66 [Economy]

Which public sector undertaking is designated with 'Navratna' status?

(a) IndianOil Corporation Limited
(b) Gas Authority of India Limited
(c) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
(d) Bharat Electronics Limited ✓

Explanation: Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) holds Navratna status. IndianOil, GAIL, and BPCL have Maharatna status, which is a higher category than Navratna.

Q.67 [Polity]

Which of the following statements with regard to the creation of a new state or alteration of boundaries of states is/are correct? 1. An amendment has to be moved in the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India. 2. Ratification by one half of the states is necessary after the amendment is made by the Parliament. 3. The legislation can be passed by a simple majority of both Houses of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only ✓
(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Under Article 3, Parliament can create new states or alter boundaries by a simple majority — it does not require a constitutional amendment under Article 368, and state ratification is not needed. Only statement 3 is correct.

Q.68 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the largest linguistic group of India?

(a) Sino-Tibetan
(b) Austric
(c) Indo-Aryan ✓
(d) Dravidian

Explanation: The Indo-Aryan linguistic group is the largest in India, comprising over 70% of the population, including speakers of Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Gujarati, and other major languages.

Q.69 [Geography]

Which one of the following water bodies separates the Andaman and the Nicobar islands?

(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Ten Degree Channel ✓
(c) Eleven Degree Channel
(d) Palk Strait

Explanation: The Ten Degree Channel (10°N latitude) separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands. The Eleven Degree Channel separates Car Nicobar from the Little Andaman.

Q.70 [Geography]

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India?

(a) 83°30′ E
(b) 82°30′ E ✓
(c) 82°30′ W
(d) 83°30′ W

Explanation: The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30′ East longitude, passing through Mirzapur (Uttar Pradesh), and Indian Standard Time (IST) is UTC+5:30 based on this meridian.

Q.71 [Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I: A. Cyclones, B. Hurricanes, C. Typhoons, D. Willy-willies List II: 1. Western Australia, 2. South China Sea, 3. Indian Ocean, 4. Atlantic Ocean Code: A B C D (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 1 2 4 3

(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 ✓
(c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Explanation: Cyclones form over the Indian Ocean (3), Hurricanes over the Atlantic Ocean (4), Typhoons over the South China Sea (2), and Willy-willies are tropical cyclones of Western Australia (1). Hence A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Q.72 [Economy]

Which of the following is/are social security scheme(s)? 1. Atal Pension Yojana 2. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana 3. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: All three — Atal Pension Yojana (pension scheme), PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (life insurance), and PM Suraksha Bima Yojana (accident insurance) — are government social security schemes launched in 2015.

Q.73 [General Knowledge]

Which one of the following units is not a part of All India Radio's Transcription and Programme Exchange Service?

(a) Central Archives
(b) Sound Archives
(c) Advanced Research Unit ✓
(d) Transcription Unit

Explanation: All India Radio's Transcription and Programme Exchange Service includes the Central Archives, Sound Archives, and Transcription Unit. The Advanced Research Unit is not a part of this service.

Q.74 [Polity]

Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are correct? 1. All seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election. 2. The 'Gram Sabha' consists of persons registered in the village electoral rolls. 3. The Chairperson of a Panchayat is elected in accordance with a law passed by each state. 4. All states in India have a three-tier system of Panchayats. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct as per the 73rd Amendment. Statement 4 is incorrect because states with population below 20 lakh are not required to have a three-tier system; they may have two tiers.

Q.75 [Polity]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The elections to the Panchayat are conducted by the State Election Commission. 2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner of India. 3. The State Legislatures have the power to make laws on all matters relating to Panchayat elections. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (Article 243K). Statement 2 is incorrect — the State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor, not the Chief Election Commissioner of India. Statement 3 is correct as state legislatures have the power to legislate on Panchayat elections.

Q.76 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Union Cabinet?

(a) It is part of the Parliament. ✓
(b) It is responsible to the Parliament.
(c) It remains in power till it enjoys the confidence of the Parliament.
(d) A person from outside the Parliament can never be appointed a member of the Cabinet.

Explanation: The Union Cabinet is the executive body and is NOT part of Parliament. It is responsible to Parliament, but Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha — not the Cabinet.

Q.77 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the composition of the Parliament is not correct?

(a) Representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people. ✓
(b) Representatives from Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by direct elections.
(c) Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members.
(d) Lok Sabha has seats reserved for SCs and STs.

Explanation: Representatives of states in Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies (indirect election), not directly by the people. Hence statement (a) is incorrect.

Q.78 [Polity]

Which among the following fundamental rights is/are available to non-citizens? 1. Freedom of speech 2. Protection against self-incrimination 3. Religious freedom 4. Non-discrimination in matters of employment Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 2 only

Explanation: Protection against self-incrimination (Article 20) and religious freedom (Article 25) are available to all persons including non-citizens. Freedom of speech (Article 19) and non-discrimination in employment (Article 16) are available only to citizens.

Q.79 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is not correct?

(a) He is not eligible for re-election. ✓
(b) He must not be less than 35 years of age.
(c) He is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.
(d) His term of office is five years.

Explanation: The Vice-President of India is eligible for re-election. Article 66 places no bar on re-election, and historically Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and others have served two terms. Statement (a) is therefore incorrect.

Q.80 [Polity]

A motion of no-confidence is moved against

(a) an individual Minister.
(b) the Council of Ministers. ✓
(c) the Prime Minister.
(d) a political party.

Explanation: Under Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. A no-confidence motion is moved against the Council of Ministers as a whole, not against an individual minister or the Prime Minister alone.

Q.81 [Defence & Technology]

Which one of the following is correct about 'Pinaka'?

(a) It is a multi-barrel rocket system. ✓
(b) It is a type of battle tank.
(c) It is an advanced submarine.
(d) It is an indigenously developed drone system.

Explanation: Pinaka is India's indigenously developed multi-barrel rocket launcher system developed by DRDO, capable of firing salvos of rockets in quick succession.

Q.82 [International Affairs]

Which one of the following is not a member of the Quad group of nations?

(a) France ✓
(b) USA
(c) Australia
(d) Japan

Explanation: The Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) consists of USA, India, Australia, and Japan. France is not a member of this grouping.

Q.83 [Defence & Military Exercises]

The first phase of Exercise Malabar, 2020 was conducted at

(a) Port Blair
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam ✓
(d) Kochi

Explanation: The first phase of Exercise Malabar 2020 was conducted at Visakhapatnam in November 2020, involving naval forces of India, USA, Japan, and Australia.

Q.84 [Current Affairs]

Hollywood actor Sir Sean Connery, who died recently, was popularly known for the portrayal of the role of

(a) Rocky
(b) Captain Jack Sparrow
(c) Terminator
(d) James Bond ✓

Explanation: Sir Sean Connery was most famous for playing the iconic British spy James Bond (Agent 007) in the early Bond films starting with Dr. No (1962).

Q.85 [Geography & Infrastructure]

The Luhri Hydro-Electric Power Project is being constructed on the river

(a) Satluj ✓
(b) Beas
(c) Ravi
(d) Chenab

Explanation: The Luhri Hydro-Electric Power Project is located on the Satluj (Sutlej) River in Himachal Pradesh, with a capacity of 210 MW.

Q.86 [Defence & Military Exercises]

'CARAT Bangladesh 2020' was a joint naval exercise between Bangladesh and

(a) India
(b) USA ✓
(c) Japan
(d) Thailand

Explanation: CARAT (Cooperation Afloat Readiness and Training) Bangladesh 2020 was a bilateral naval exercise between Bangladesh and the United States Navy.

Q.87 [International Affairs]

Peninsula Shield Force is a military arm of

(a) Organization of Islamic Cooperation
(b) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries
(c) Gulf Cooperation Council ✓
(d) Arab League

Explanation: The Peninsula Shield Force is the joint military force of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), established to defend member states against external threats.

Q.88 [Defence & Military]

Which one of the following ships was involved in 'Mission Sagar – II'?

(a) INS Shakti
(b) INS Vikramaditya
(c) INS Kesari
(d) INS Airavat ✓

Explanation: INS Airavat was deployed for Mission Sagar-II, which involved delivery of humanitarian aid including medicines and food to friendly nations in the Indian Ocean region.

Q.89 [Environment & Ecology]

In the year 2020 which one of the following tiger reserves of India was declared by UNESCO as a Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Panna Tiger Reserve ✓
(b) Namdapha Tiger Reserve
(c) Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
(d) Pench Tiger Reserve

Explanation: Panna Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh was added to UNESCO's World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2020, recognizing its significance for biodiversity conservation.

Q.90 [Geography & Infrastructure]

The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation System, which was in the news recently, is constructed in

(a) Kerala
(b) Gujarat
(c) Telangana ✓
(d) Maharashtra

Explanation: The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is located in Telangana state and is one of the world's largest multi-stage lift irrigation projects, drawing water from the Godavari river.

Q.91 [Biology]

Cell wall is not present in cells of

(a) Bacteria
(b) Plants
(c) Fungi
(d) Humans ✓

Explanation: Animal cells, including human cells, lack a cell wall. Cell walls are present in bacteria (peptidoglycan), plants (cellulose), and fungi (chitin).

Q.92 [Biology]

A child receives a tall beautiful plant as a birthday gift from his father with a quiz. The father asked her how she would verify whether this tall plant was the progeny of both the tall parents or one tall and one short parent plant. She could verify this through

(a) cross-pollination
(b) self-pollination ✓
(c) tissue culture
(d) vegetative propagation

Explanation: Self-pollination would reveal the genotype: if the tall plant is homozygous (TT from two tall parents), all offspring will be tall; if heterozygous (Tt from one tall and one short parent), short offspring (tt) will appear in the next generation.

Q.93 [Biology]

A student was doing an experiment on increasing the cell division among plants. She asked her supervisor to suggest the specific plant hormone for the same. Had you been her supervisor, which plant hormone would you suggest?

(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Cytokinin ✓
(d) Auxin

Explanation: Cytokinins are plant hormones that primarily promote cell division (cytokinesis). They work in conjunction with auxins to regulate cell division and differentiation in plants.

Q.94 [Biology]

Which cell organelles have their own DNA and Ribosomes?

(a) Golgi body and Endoplasmic Reticulum
(b) Mitochondria and Plastids ✓
(c) Lysosome and Golgi body
(d) Vacuole and Plastids

Explanation: Mitochondria and plastids (chloroplasts) are semi-autonomous organelles that contain their own DNA and ribosomes, supporting the endosymbiotic theory of their evolutionary origin.

Q.95 [Biology]

Osmosis is the process of movement of water molecules from its

(a) higher concentration to its lower concentration through a cell wall.
(b) lower concentration to its higher concentration through a fully permeable membrane.
(c) higher concentration to its lower concentration through a fully permeable membrane.
(d) higher concentration to its lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane. ✓

Explanation: Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a region of higher water concentration (lower solute concentration) to lower water concentration (higher solute concentration) through a semi-permeable membrane.

Q.96 [Agriculture]

Growing of two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern is known as

(a) mixed cropping
(b) inter cropping ✓
(c) mixed farming
(d) hybrid farming

Explanation: Inter cropping refers to growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land in a definite row pattern, unlike mixed cropping where seeds are mixed and sown without any set pattern.

Q.97 [Chemistry]

When we heat lead nitrate $[Pb(NO_3)_2]$ in a boiling tube, we observe the emission of brown fumes. Which one of the following is the brown gas?

(a) NO
(b) $NO_2$ ✓
(c) $N_2O$
(d) $N_2O_5$

Explanation: When lead nitrate is heated, it decomposes to give lead monoxide (PbO), nitrogen dioxide ($NO_2$, brown fumes), and oxygen. The reaction is: $2Pb(NO_3)_2 \rightarrow 2PbO + 4NO_2 + O_2$.

Q.98 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following substances do silver articles react with, that makes the silver articles black?

(a) Sulphur ✓
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Phosphorus

Explanation: Silver articles turn black due to the formation of silver sulphide ($Ag_2S$) when silver reacts with sulphur compounds present in air (hydrogen sulphide), not due to oxidation.

Q.99 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following metals is kept immersed in Kerosene oil to protect it and to prevent accidental fire?

(a) Calcium
(b) Sodium ✓
(c) Vanadium
(d) Magnesium

Explanation: Sodium is a highly reactive alkali metal that reacts vigorously with water and air, so it is stored immersed in kerosene oil to prevent contact with moisture and oxygen.

Q.100 [Chemistry]

A solution contains 20 g of solute in 180 g of solvent. If the solvent is water, what is the concentration of the solution in terms of mass by mass percentage?

(a) 11.1%
(b) 22.2%
(c) 10% ✓
(d) 20%

Explanation: Mass by mass percentage = (mass of solute / mass of solution) × 100 = (20 / (20+180)) × 100 = (20/200) × 100 = 10%.

Q.101 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following elements is a non-metal but is lustrous?

(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Iodine ✓

Explanation: Iodine is a non-metal that exhibits a characteristic lustrous (shiny) appearance due to its crystalline structure. Carbon (graphite form is lustrous but carbon in general is considered, silicon and germanium are metalloids, not non-metals).

Q.102 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following metals has both malleability and ductility properties?

(a) Na
(b) Au ✓
(c) Ce
(d) Hg

Explanation: Gold (Au) is renowned for being the most malleable and ductile of all metals — it can be beaten into very thin sheets and drawn into fine wires. Mercury is a liquid at room temperature and lacks these properties.

Q.103 [Physics]

We are given three copper wires of different lengths and different areas of cross-section. Which one of the following would have highest resistivity?

(a) Copper wire of 50 cm length and 1 mm diameter
(b) Copper wire of 25 cm length and 0.5 mm diameter
(c) Copper wire of 10 cm length and 2.0 mm diameter
(d) All the wires would have same resistivity ✓

Explanation: Resistivity is an intrinsic property of a material and does not depend on the dimensions (length or cross-sectional area) of the conductor. All three wires are made of copper, so they all have the same resistivity.

Q.104 [Biology/Physics]

Which of the following statements about 'fission' is correct? 1. It is related with the creation of new individuals by means of cell division in unicellular organism. 2. It is related with the transformation of heavier nuclei into smaller nuclei. 3. It is related with the creation of a heavier nuclei by means of combining two higher nuclei. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — binary fission is reproduction in unicellular organisms. Statement 2 is correct — nuclear fission is the splitting of a heavy nucleus into smaller nuclei. Statement 3 describes nuclear fusion, not fission, so it is incorrect.

Q.105 [Physics]

Which one of the following is an electric conductor?

(a) A plastic sheet
(b) Distilled water
(c) Human body ✓
(d) A wooden thin sheet

Explanation: The human body is a conductor of electricity because it contains water with dissolved electrolytes (ions) that allow electric current to pass through. Distilled water, plastic, and wood are poor conductors (insulators).

Q.106 [Physics]

A non-spherical shining spoon can generally be considered as a

(a) Spherical mirror
(b) Parabolic mirror ✓
(c) Plane mirror
(d) Lens

Explanation: The curved reflecting surface of a spoon approximates a parabolic mirror. The concave side of a spoon converges light similar to a parabolic concave mirror, and the convex side acts like a parabolic convex mirror.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.107 [Physics]

Who amongst the following is a pioneer in discovering the heating effect of electric current?

(a) Isaac Newton
(b) Galileo Galilei
(c) James P. Joule ✓
(d) J.J. Thomson

Explanation: James Prescott Joule discovered the heating effect of electric current, which is quantified by Joule's law of heating (H = I²Rt). This effect is also known as Joule heating or ohmic heating.

Q.108 [Physics]

Which one of the following laws of electromagnetism does not give the direction of magnetic field?

(a) Right-hand thumb rule
(b) Fleming's left-hand rule
(c) Fleming's right-hand rule
(d) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction ✓

Explanation: Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction gives the magnitude of the induced EMF (related to the rate of change of magnetic flux), not the direction of the magnetic field. The right-hand thumb rule and Fleming's rules are specifically used to determine directions.

Q.109 [Biology]

An antibiotic is not useful against a virus whereas a vaccine is. Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for this?

(a) An antibiotic can break RNA only, whereas virus has DNA.
(b) An antibiotic is a carbohydrate in its chemical nature, whereas a vaccine is a protein which works well to kill a virus.
(c) Only a vaccine can break the genetic material of a virus.
(d) A virus does not use biochemical pathways which can be blocked by an antibiotic. But a vaccine can boost an immune system to fight the virus. ✓

Explanation: Antibiotics work by targeting specific bacterial biochemical pathways (e.g., cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis). Viruses lack these pathways and use the host cell's machinery, so antibiotics are ineffective. Vaccines stimulate the host's immune system to recognize and destroy the virus.

Q.110 [Biology]

'Sleeping sickness' is caused by

(a) Trypanosoma ✓
(b) Leishmania
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Paramecium

Explanation: Sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis) is caused by Trypanosoma brucei, a protozoan parasite transmitted by the tsetse fly. It affects the central nervous system causing sleep disturbances and can be fatal if untreated.

Q.111 [Biology]

Which one among the following is a free living animal?

(a) Liver fluke
(b) Wuchereria
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Planaria ✓

Explanation: Planaria is a free-living flatworm found in freshwater environments. Liver fluke and Wuchereria are parasitic helminths, and Plasmodium is a parasitic protozoan causing malaria.

Q.112 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the structure of a cardiac muscle cell?

(a) Cylindrical, Unbranched and Multinucleate
(b) Spinal shaped, Unbranched and Uninucleate
(c) Spinal shaped, Branched and Uninucleate
(d) Cylindrical, Branched and Uninucleate ✓

Explanation: Cardiac muscle cells (cardiomyocytes) are cylindrical in shape, branched (allowing interconnection via intercalated discs for coordinated contraction), and typically uninucleate (having one or sometimes two nuclei). They are striated and involuntary.

Q.113 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following naturally occurring acids is found in abundance in tomato?

(a) Acetic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Oxalic acid ✓
(d) Tartaric acid

Explanation: Oxalic acid is found in significant amounts in tomatoes. While citric acid is also present, oxalic acid is the predominant naturally occurring acid found in abundance in tomatoes, particularly concentrated in the seeds and skin.

Q.114 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers?

(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate ✓
(c) Calcium hydroxide
(d) Acetic acid

Explanation: Soda-acid fire extinguishers contain sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3, also called sodium bicarbonate or baking soda) and sulfuric acid. When mixed, they react to produce CO2 gas which smothers the fire.

Q.115 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following sodium compounds is used for softening hard water?

(a) Na2CO3 ✓
(b) NaHCO3
(c) NaOH
(d) Na2SO4

Explanation: Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3, washing soda) is used to soften hard water by precipitating the calcium and magnesium ions (which cause hardness) as their respective carbonates, thereby removing them from solution.

Q.116 [Chemistry]

Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime whose solution is used for white-washing walls. This slaked lime reacts with component (A) in air to form a thin layer of component (B) to give a shiny finish. What are the components (A) and (B)?

(a) A-O2; B-CaCO3
(b) A-CO2; B-Ca(OH)2
(c) A-O2; B-Ca(OH)2
(d) A-CO2; B-CaCO3 ✓

Explanation: Slaked lime (Ca(OH)2) reacts with carbon dioxide (CO2) in air to form calcium carbonate (CaCO3): Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O. The thin layer of CaCO3 gives the white-washed wall its shiny finish.

Q.117 [Physics]

How many internal reflections of light take place in the formation of primary rainbow?

(a) 0
(b) 1 ✓
(c) 2
(d) More than 2

Explanation: In a primary rainbow, light undergoes one internal reflection inside each raindrop (along with two refractions — one on entry and one on exit). A secondary rainbow involves two internal reflections.

Q.118 [Physics]

The direction of acceleration in uniform circular motion is along the

(a) direction of motion
(b) tangent to the circle at the point of observation
(c) direction of velocity
(d) direction perpendicular to velocity ✓

Explanation: In uniform circular motion, the centripetal acceleration is always directed toward the center of the circle, which is perpendicular to the instantaneous velocity (tangential direction). Hence the acceleration is perpendicular to the velocity at every point.

Q.119 [Physics]

The weight of an object is due to

(a) the net force acting on it ✓
(b) the total of all forces acting on it irrespective of their directions
(c) the force that it exerts on the ground
(d) its inert property

Explanation: Weight is the gravitational force acting on an object, which is the net downward force due to gravity (W = mg). It is specifically the net gravitational force, not all forces combined, and not the reaction force on the ground (which is a normal force).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.120 [Physics]

The size of particles being studied in 'nano-technology' is about

(a) 1 Å – 10 nm
(b) 1–100 nm ✓
(c) 1–50 µ
(d) 1 mm – 10 mm

Explanation: Nanotechnology deals with structures and devices at the nanoscale, typically in the range of 1 to 100 nanometers. This is the internationally accepted definition per ISO and the National Nanotechnology Initiative.