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CDS I 2022 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2022 (Session I) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Physics]

If the magnification produced by a lens is +2, then the image is:

(a) erect, virtual and smaller than the object.
(b) inverted, real and smaller than the object.
(c) erect, virtual and larger than the object. ✓
(d) inverted, real and larger than the object.

Explanation: A positive magnification indicates an erect and virtual image. A magnitude of 2 (greater than 1) means the image is larger than the object.

Q.2 [Physics]

What is the correct sequence of resistivity of silver, nichrome and glass at room temperature?

(a) Silver < Nichrome < Glass ✓
(b) Glass < Nichrome < Silver
(c) Silver < Glass < Nichrome
(d) Nichrome < Silver < Glass

Explanation: Silver is the best conductor with the lowest resistivity (~1.6×10⁻⁸ Ω·m), nichrome is a resistive alloy (~1.1×10⁻⁶ Ω·m), and glass is an insulator with very high resistivity (~10¹⁰–10¹⁴ Ω·m), so the order is Silver < Nichrome < Glass.

Q.3 [Physics]

At the time of short-circuit, the current in the circuit:

(a) reduces substantially.
(b) does not change.
(c) increases heavily. ✓
(d) keeps on fluctuating.

Explanation: During a short-circuit, the resistance of the circuit drops to nearly zero, so by Ohm's law (I = V/R) the current increases very heavily.

Q.4 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
(b) An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
(c) The magnetic field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel straight lines.
(d) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an electric supply. ✓

Explanation: A green insulated wire is the earth (ground) wire, not the live wire. The live wire is typically red or brown, so statement (d) is incorrect.

Q.5 [Physics]

A boy completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200 m in 30 s. What will be the displacement at the end of 3 minutes and 45 seconds?

(a) 50 m
(b) 100 m
(c) 200 m ✓
(d) 236 m

Explanation: 3 min 45 s = 225 s. Number of rounds = 225/30 = 7.5. After 7.5 rounds the boy is at the diametrically opposite point from the start, so displacement = diameter = 200 m.

Q.6 [Physics]

What happens to the gravitational force between two objects if the mass of one object is doubled and the distance between them is also doubled?

(a) The force would remain the same
(b) The force would be doubled
(c) The force would be halved ✓
(d) The force would increase by a factor of 4

Explanation: F = Gm₁m₂/r². Doubling one mass multiplies F by 2, but doubling the distance divides F by 4, giving a net factor of 2/4 = 1/2, so the force is halved.

Q.7 [Chemistry]

The number of moles of oxygen gas used in the complete combustion of 1 mole of glucose is:

(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6 ✓
(d) 12

Explanation: The balanced equation for glucose combustion is C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O, so 6 moles of O₂ are required per mole of glucose.

Q.8 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not an example of an oxidation reaction?

(a) The taste of butter changes if left for a longer period
(b) A white substance is formed when an aqueous solution of barium chloride is mixed with sodium sulphate solution ✓
(c) A reddish-brown powder gets coated on articles made of iron
(d) Wine gets sour with time

Explanation: Mixing barium chloride with sodium sulphate produces a white precipitate of barium sulphate — this is a double displacement (precipitation) reaction, not an oxidation reaction. The others (rancidity of butter, rusting of iron, souring of wine) all involve oxidation.

Q.9 [Chemistry]

Methanoic acid is normally found in:

(a) muscles
(b) urine
(c) ant stings ✓
(d) human brain

Explanation: Methanoic acid (formic acid, HCOOH) is the irritant injected by ants during stings; its name derives from the Latin 'formica' meaning ant.

Q.10 [Chemistry]

What is the number of moles of 'He' in 104 g of helium gas?

(a) 52
(b) 26 ✓
(c) 13
(d) 65

Explanation: Molar mass of He = 4 g/mol. Moles = 104/4 = 26 moles.

Q.11 [Chemistry]

While burning hydrocarbon fuels, if we see a yellow flame with lots of black smoke, it means that the fuel is:

(a) made of saturated hydrocarbons.
(b) made of unsaturated hydrocarbons. ✓
(c) burning completely.
(d) wet.

Explanation: Unsaturated hydrocarbons have a higher carbon-to-hydrogen ratio and burn with incomplete combustion producing a sooty yellow flame with black smoke (unburnt carbon particles).

Q.12 [Chemistry]

The number of saturated and unsaturated bonds in cyclohexane are:

(a) 9 and 0 respectively.
(b) 18 and 3 respectively.
(c) 18 and 0 respectively. ✓
(d) 9 and 8 respectively.

Explanation: Cyclohexane (C₆H₁₂) has 6 C–C single bonds and 12 C–H single bonds, giving 18 sigma (saturated) bonds and 0 pi (unsaturated) bonds.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.13 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is true when non-metals are dissolved in water?

(a) They produce basic oxides.
(b) They produce acidic oxides. ✓
(c) They produce neutral oxides.
(d) They provide hydroxides.

Explanation: Non-metals typically form acidic oxides (e.g., SO₂, CO₂, NO₂) which dissolve in water to form acids (H₂SO₃, H₂CO₃, HNO₃).

Q.14 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to genetically modified organisms?

(a) In this technique a gene from one organism is isolated and transferred to the cell of another organism.
(b) This technique has applications only in plants. ✓
(c) Genes for insect resistance may spread from crop plants to wild plants.
(d) To produce a transgenic animal the novel genes are inserted at a very early stage of development.

Explanation: Genetic modification technology is applied to animals, microorganisms, and plants — not only to plants. Transgenic animals, bacteria producing insulin, and GM crops all demonstrate this broad applicability.

Q.15 [Biology]

Suppose, due to an accident, the delicate lining of the mouth and the oesophagus of a person is injured. In this case, which one of the following tissues will be affected?

(a) Smooth muscle
(b) Cuboidal epithelium
(c) Squamous epithelium ✓
(d) Striated muscle

Explanation: The inner lining (mucosa) of the mouth and oesophagus is composed of stratified squamous epithelium, which is flat, scale-like cells well suited to resist abrasion.

Q.16 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements is correct about the cell membrane?

(a) It is made up of cellulose.
(b) It is a permeable structure for all substances.
(c) It is flexible and enables the cell to engulf many materials. ✓
(d) It does not allow diffusion of gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Explanation: The cell membrane is a flexible phospholipid bilayer that allows the cell to change shape and perform endocytosis (engulfing materials). Cellulose is the component of cell walls in plants, not the cell membrane, and the membrane is selectively permeable, not freely permeable to all substances.

Q.17 [Biology]

Plants prepare glucose in the process of:

(a) respiration
(b) photosynthesis ✓
(c) degradation
(d) mineral absorption

Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight, water, and CO₂ to synthesize glucose and oxygen.

Q.18 [Biology]

The disease rickets develops in children due to the deficiency of:

(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D ✓
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin B

Explanation: Vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption and bone mineralization; its deficiency leads to rickets (soft, deformed bones) in children.

Q.19 [Biology]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Blood Vessel): A. Pulmonary artery, B. Capillaries, C. Coronary artery, D. Pulmonary vein List II (Function): 1. Carries blood from lungs to heart, 2. Carries blood to heart muscle, 3. Connection between arteries and veins, 4. Carries blood from heart to lungs

(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 ✓
(b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Explanation: Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs (4); capillaries connect arteries and veins (3); coronary artery supplies blood to heart muscle (2); pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart (1). This matches option (a): A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Q.20 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements is true with regard to a greenhouse?

(a) The shorter wavelength infrared radiations from the Sun can enter into the greenhouse while longer wavelength infrared radiations from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse cannot pass back out through the glass. ✓
(b) The shorter wavelength infrared radiations from the Sun can enter into the greenhouse and the longer wavelength infrared radiations from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse can also pass back out through the glass.
(c) The shorter wavelength infrared radiations from the Sun cannot enter into the greenhouse while longer wavelength infrared radiations from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse can pass back out through the glass.
(d) No infrared radiation can pass through the glass of the greenhouse.

Explanation: Glass is transparent to the shorter-wavelength solar radiation (visible and near-infrared) but opaque to the longer-wavelength infrared radiation re-emitted by warm objects inside, trapping heat — this is the greenhouse effect.

Q.21 [Physics]

An object weighs 9N on the surface of the Earth. What would be its weight, when measured on the surface of a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 9 times that on the surface of the Earth?

(a) The weight would remain the same
(b) The weight would be equal to 1 N
(c) The weight would become 9 times ✓
(d) The weight will be reduced to 1/9 N

Explanation: Weight = mass × g. If g becomes 9 times, weight also becomes 9 times (9N × 9 = 81N), so the weight becomes 9 times the original.

Q.22 [Physics]

The twinkling of a star is due to:

(a) atmospheric reflection of starlight.
(b) atmospheric refraction of starlight. ✓
(c) continuous change in the position of the star.
(d) oscillation of starlight.

Explanation: Stars twinkle because their light undergoes atmospheric refraction as it passes through layers of the atmosphere with varying densities, causing the apparent position and brightness to fluctuate.

Q.23 [Physics]

A convex lens has a focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should an object be placed in front of the lens to get a real image of the same size of the object?

(a) 15 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 30 cm ✓
(d) 40 cm

Explanation: For a real image of the same size as the object, the object must be placed at 2f (twice the focal length). Here f = 15 cm, so the object distance = 2 × 15 = 30 cm.

Q.24 [Science & Technology]

Which one of the following statements about biogas is not correct?

(a) It is mainly composed of methane gas.
(b) It is a non-renewable source of energy. ✓
(c) It is formed by the decomposition of cow dung in the absence of oxygen.
(d) It burns without smoke and leaves no residue.

Explanation: Biogas is a renewable source of energy since it is produced from organic waste (like cow dung) through anaerobic decomposition, which can be continuously regenerated.

Q.25 [Chemistry]

Which of the following mineral acids is found in human stomach?

(a) Hydrochloric acid ✓
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Uric acid
(d) Methanoic acid

Explanation: The human stomach secretes hydrochloric acid (HCl), a mineral (inorganic) acid, which aids in digestion and kills harmful microorganisms. Lactic acid and methanoic acid are organic acids.

Q.26 [Biology]

Which one of the following living organisms gives litmus?

(a) Protozoa
(b) Virus
(c) Lichen ✓
(d) Saccharomyces

Explanation: Litmus is a natural dye extracted from lichens (specifically Roccella tinctoria), which are symbiotic organisms composed of fungi and algae. It is widely used as an acid-base indicator.

Q.27 [Environment]

Which one of the following is the main reason of acid rains?

(a) Dissolution of sulphur and nitrogen oxides in rain ✓
(b) Dissolution of minerals in rain
(c) Dissolution of dust particles in rain
(d) Dissolution of soil solution in rain

Explanation: Acid rain is primarily caused by sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) released from burning fossil fuels, which dissolve in atmospheric water to form sulphuric and nitric acids.

Q.28 [Biology]

Mutation in a virus is caused due to a change in its:

(a) cell size.
(b) genetic material. ✓
(c) shape.
(d) colour.

Explanation: A mutation is defined as a change in the genetic material (DNA or RNA) of an organism. In viruses, mutations occur when there are changes in their nucleic acid sequence.

Q.29 [Biology]

Yeast, which is used to make bread, belongs to the group:

(a) Protista
(b) Fungi ✓
(c) Monera
(d) Protozoa

Explanation: Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is a unicellular eukaryotic organism classified under the kingdom Fungi. It is used in bread-making due to its ability to ferment sugars and produce CO2.

Q.30 [Biology]

Hyphae are:

(a) produced by yeast.
(b) thin threads formed by many fungi. ✓
(c) reproductive cells.
(d) responsible for preventing the cell from losing water in wet conditions.

Explanation: Hyphae are the long, branching filamentous structures that make up the body (mycelium) of most fungi. They are thin thread-like structures that collectively form the fungal network.

Q.31 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the first urban settlement in the world to reach a population size of one million (million-plus city)?

(a) London ✓
(b) Paris
(c) New York
(d) Washington D.C.

Explanation: London was the first city in the world to reach a population of one million, achieving this milestone around 1800–1810 during the Industrial Revolution.

Q.32 [Geography]

Which one of the following climatic types (Köppen's Scheme) is best suited to describe the climate of the western fringe of Rajasthan?

(a) Amw
(b) Aw
(c) Bwhw ✓
(d) Cwg

Explanation: The western fringe of Rajasthan (Thar Desert region) has a hot desert climate. Under the Köppen classification, BWh denotes a hot desert climate; Bwhw is the appropriate code for hot desert conditions found in western Rajasthan.

Q.33 [Geography]

Where are the Bermuda Islands located?

(a) Caribbean Sea
(b) North Atlantic Ocean ✓
(c) Gulf of Mexico
(d) Mediterranean Sea

Explanation: The Bermuda Islands are located in the North Atlantic Ocean, approximately 1,070 km east-southeast of Cape Hatteras, North Carolina, USA. They are not in the Caribbean Sea.

Q.34 [Geography]

Which one of the following States/Union Territories has the highest percentage of forest area to the total geographical area?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Lakshadweep ✓
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram

Explanation: Lakshadweep has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its total geographical area (approximately 90%+), as its small coral islands are densely covered with coconut and other vegetation classified as forest.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.35 [Geography]

In India, the period of steady population growth refers to the decade(s) of:

(a) 1981–2011
(b) 1951–1981 ✓
(c) 1921–1951
(d) 1911–1921

Explanation: The period 1951–1981 is referred to as the period of steady (or rapid) population growth in India, during which the population grew consistently at high rates due to declining death rates while birth rates remained high.

Q.36 [Geography]

Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is known for:

(a) Solar energy
(b) Geothermal energy ✓
(c) Bioenergy
(d) Wind energy

Explanation: Manikaran in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh is famous for its hot springs and is India's most prominent site for geothermal energy. The geothermal heat is used for cooking and space heating.

Q.37 [Economics]

Who among the following, first mooted the idea of deficit financing?

(a) Adam Smith
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) John Maynard Keynes ✓
(d) Milton Friedman

Explanation: John Maynard Keynes was the first to formally advocate deficit financing as a tool for economic stimulation, especially during the Great Depression, through his General Theory (1936), arguing governments should spend more than revenue to boost aggregate demand.

Q.38 [Economics]

Which of the following is/are the function(s) of the environment? • Supplying resources • Sustaining life • Providing aesthetic services Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The environment performs all three functions: it supplies resources (natural resources for production), sustains life (provides air, water, and ecosystem services), and provides aesthetic services (natural beauty, recreation). All three are recognized functions of the environment.

Q.39 [Economics]

Who among the following formulated the concept of poverty as a measurable indicator in Indian subcontinent?

(a) Dadabhai Naoroji ✓
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
(c) V.K.R.V. Rao
(d) M. Ranade

Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji, in his seminal work 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901), was the first to quantify and measure poverty in India by establishing a poverty line, making him the pioneer of poverty as a measurable indicator in the subcontinent.

Q.40 [Economics]

Which one of the following terms denotes the inputs in terms of tools, machines, buildings, raw materials and money in hand required at any stage of production?

(a) Fixed capital
(b) Working capital
(c) Physical capital ✓
(d) Human capital

Explanation: Physical capital refers to all man-made inputs used in production, including tools, machines, buildings, raw materials, and money in hand. It encompasses all tangible assets required at any stage of production.

Q.41 [Economics]

Which one of the following inputs is required in less quantity in case of non-farming activities?

(a) Land ✓
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Raw material

Explanation: Non-farming activities (like manufacturing, trade, services) require less land compared to farming activities, which are inherently land-intensive. Labour, capital, and raw materials are all required in significant quantities for non-farm work.

Q.42 [Economics / Social Policy]

Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 is correct?

(a) It ensures 175 days of employment to needy persons in rural areas.
(b) It gives higher wages to women workers.
(c) People are generally given both skilled and unskilled jobs.
(d) This is implemented only in rural areas of India. ✓

Explanation: MGNREGA is specifically applicable to rural areas only, as it targets rural unemployment. It guarantees 100 days (not 175) of unskilled manual work, and wages are equal for men and women (not higher for women).

Q.43 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not mentioned as a form of Emergency in the Constitution of India?

(a) National Emergency
(b) State Emergency in terms of Proclamation of President's Rule in a State
(c) Financial Emergency
(d) Health Emergency ✓

Explanation: The Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergencies under Articles 352, 356, and 360: National Emergency, President's Rule (State Emergency), and Financial Emergency. Health Emergency is not a constitutionally recognised form of emergency.

Q.44 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a provision related to a Money Bill?

(a) Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
(b) Appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) Imposition of fines by local authority for local purpose ✓
(d) Custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India

Explanation: Under Article 110, a Money Bill deals with taxation, appropriation of Consolidated Fund, etc. The imposition of fines or penalties by local bodies for local purposes is explicitly excluded from the definition of a Money Bill under Article 110(1)(g).

Q.45 [Economics / Taxation]

Which one of the following items is not covered under GST?

(a) Cosmetics
(b) Medical grade oxygen
(c) Jewellery
(d) Petrol ✓

Explanation: Petrol (petroleum products) is kept outside the purview of GST in India and continues to be taxed under the pre-GST regime (central excise and VAT). Cosmetics, medical oxygen, and jewellery are all covered under GST.

Q.46 [Polity]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Committee on Estimates is an ad hoc committee of the Parliament. 2. Committee on Railway Convention is a standing committee of the Parliament.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Explanation: The Committee on Estimates is a standing (permanent) committee of Parliament, not an ad hoc one. The Committee on Railway Convention is a joint committee constituted as needed and is not a regular standing committee. Both statements are incorrect.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.47 [Polity / Ideology]

Which one of the following is not an Indian form of Socialism?

(a) Democratic Socialism
(b) Radical Socialism ✓
(c) Communitarian Socialism
(d) Nehruvian Socialism

Explanation: Indian socialist thought encompasses Democratic Socialism (pursued through parliamentary means), Communitarian Socialism (community-based), and Nehruvian Socialism (state-led mixed economy). Radical Socialism, which advocates revolutionary overthrow of the existing order, is not characteristically an Indian form of socialism.

Q.48 [International Relations]

Which one of the following best describes BRICS?

(a) A group of five nuclear powers
(b) A group of five industrialized nations
(c) A group of five major emerging economies ✓
(d) A group of five potentially strong UN Security Council members from the Countries of the Global South

Explanation: BRICS — comprising Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa — is widely defined as a grouping of five major emerging economies. The term was coined by economist Jim O'Neill to identify large, fast-growing economies.

Q.49 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Indian Federalism?

(a) The federating units consented to form a union ✓
(b) Residuary powers vest with the Centre
(c) Single citizenship
(d) An extensive Union and Concurrent list

Explanation: Unlike classical federalism (e.g., the USA), the Indian federation was not formed by an agreement among pre-existing independent units. India's Constitution was created by a Constituent Assembly and the states did not separately consent to join the union. The other features (residuary powers with Centre, single citizenship, extensive Union list) are all features of Indian federalism.

Q.50 [History / Art & Culture]

Which of the following statements about sculptures at Sanchi is/are correct? 1. In some sculptures there is representation of Shalabhanjika. 2. The figure of Shalabhanjika is represented by a woman surrounded by lotuses and elephants. 3. The Shalabhanjika motif was not directly inspired by Buddhist ideas.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: Shalabhanjika is indeed represented at Sanchi (statement 1 correct). The motif — a woman grasping a tree branch — is a pre-Buddhist fertility symbol not directly inspired by Buddhist doctrine (statement 3 correct). However, she is typically depicted with a tree, not surrounded by lotuses and elephants (statement 2 is incorrect; that description better fits Gajalakshmi).

Q.51 [History / Modern India]

In which one of the following years was the first telegraphic connection established between Europe and India?

(a) 1851
(b) 1854
(c) 1865 ✓
(d) 1871

Explanation: The first telegraphic connection between Europe and India was established in 1865 through an overland route via Turkey and Persia. The first telegraph line within India (Calcutta to Diamond Harbour) was established in 1851.

Q.52 [History / Bhakti Movement]

Who among the following was the founder of the Virashaiva Movement in Karnataka?

(a) Basavanna ✓
(b) Appar
(c) Sambandar
(d) Sundarar

Explanation: Basavanna (12th century) was the founder of the Virashaiva (Lingayat) movement in Karnataka. Appar, Sambandar, and Sundarar were Tamil Shaiva Nayanar saints, not associated with Virashaivism.

Q.53 [History / Archaeology]

The ruins of Hampi were brought to light by which of the following British officers of the East India Company?

(a) Colonel Colin Mackenzie ✓
(b) James Prinsep
(c) William Jones
(d) James Rennell

Explanation: Colonel Colin Mackenzie, surveyor-general of India, surveyed and brought the ruins of Hampi (the Vijayanagara capital) to scholarly attention in 1800. James Prinsep deciphered Brahmi script, William Jones founded the Asiatic Society, and James Rennell was a geographer.

Q.54 [History / Medieval Literature]

Which one of the following works was composed by Krishnadevaraya on statecraft in Telugu?

(a) Amuktamalyada ✓
(b) Jambavati Kalyanam
(c) Rayavachakamu
(d) Satyavadu Parinaya

Explanation: Amuktamalyada (also called Vishnuchittiyam) is a Telugu poem by Krishnadevaraya that contains passages on statecraft and good governance. Jambavati Kalyanam is also his work but is a play; Rayavachakamu is a prose chronicle by another author.

Q.55 [Geography / Soils]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Soil Type) — List II (Salient Characteristic) A. Entisols — 1. Soils having weakly or quickly developed horizons B. Inceptisols — 2. Weakly developed soils with no horizons C. Histosols — 3. These soils are very old and highly weathered D. Oxisols — 4. These soils have very high quantity of organic matter in the upper layers

(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 ✓
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation: Entisols are weakly developed soils with no distinct horizons (A-2); Inceptisols have weakly but quickly developed horizons (B-1); Histosols are organic soils with very high organic matter (C-4); Oxisols are old, highly weathered tropical soils (D-3). This matches option (a).

Q.56 [Geography / Geomorphology]

A peripediment in a desert or semi-desert region is also known as:

(a) Inselberg
(b) Zeugen
(c) Bajada ✓
(d) Playa

Explanation: A peripediment, the outer, gentler slope of a pediment in arid regions, is commonly referred to as a bajada (or bahada) — a broad alluvial apron formed by coalescing alluvial fans at the base of mountains. An inselberg is an isolated rock hill, a zeugen is a table-rock, and a playa is a dry lake bed.

Q.57 [Geography / Volcanology]

Individual lava flows are normally only a few feet thick, but over a long period of time, repeated flows may build up a volcano. Such volcanoes are termed as:

(a) Shield volcano ✓
(b) Composite volcano
(c) Strato-volcano
(d) Cinder-cone volcano

Explanation: Shield volcanoes are built up by repeated, low-viscosity lava flows that spread widely but are individually thin. Over time these accumulate into broad, gently sloping structures. Composite/strato-volcanoes are built of alternating layers of lava and pyroclastic material.

Q.58 [Geography / Oceanography]

Isohalines are lines joining equal:

(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) rainfall
(d) salinity ✓

Explanation: Isohalines are lines on a map or chart connecting points of equal salinity in a body of water. Isotherms connect equal temperature, isobars equal pressure, and isohyets equal rainfall.

Q.59 [Economics / Foreign Investment]

Which one of the following would be considered as Foreign Direct Investment?

(a) A foreign company buying shares in stock exchanges in India
(b) A foreign country pension fund investing in Indian stock markets
(c) A foreign merchant banker buying shares from Indian stock markets
(d) A foreign entity setting up an educational institution in India ✓

Explanation: Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) involves a lasting interest and control in an enterprise — such as setting up a business (like an educational institution) in another country. Portfolio investments through stock exchanges (options a, b, c) are classified as Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), not FDI.

Q.60 [Economics / Microeconomics]

Which one of the following does not influence quantity demanded for a good?

(a) Good's own price
(b) Price of a complementary good
(c) Price of a substitute good
(d) Prices of inputs into production of the good ✓

Explanation: The quantity demanded of a good is influenced by its own price, prices of related goods (substitutes and complements), income, and consumer preferences. Prices of inputs into production affect the supply side, not the demand side, so option (d) does not influence quantity demanded.

Q.61 [Economy/Demographics]

Infant mortality ratio of which one of the following countries is comparable to that of India?

(a) China
(b) United States of America
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) None of the above ✓

Explanation: India's infant mortality rate (~27-28 per 1000 live births around 2022) is not closely comparable to China (~5), USA (~5.4), or Sri Lanka (~7). None of these matches India's rate, making 'd' correct.

Q.62 [Economics]

Which of the following factors signify monopolistic competition? 1. Differentiated products 2. Large number of buyers and sellers 3. Barriers to entry 4. Homogeneous products Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Monopolistic competition is characterised by differentiated products (not homogeneous) and a large number of buyers and sellers. There are no significant barriers to entry in monopolistic competition, distinguishing it from oligopoly or monopoly.

Q.63 [Polity]

Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India, as it stands amended, includes which of the following? 1. Freedom of speech and expression 2. Assemble peaceably and without arms 3. To acquire and dispose property 4. To move freely throughout the territory of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only ✓

Explanation: Article 19(1) currently has six freedoms: speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession. The right to acquire and dispose of property (originally 19(1)(f)) was deleted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment in 1978, so statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Q.64 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Election Commission is not correct?

(a) It conducts elections to the office of the Vice President of India.
(b) An Election Commissioner can be removed from his office without the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. ✓
(c) Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
(d) Governor of a State is constitutionally bound to provide support staff to the Election Commission, if required.

Explanation: Under Article 324(5), an Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. Thus, statement (b) is incorrect.

Q.65 [Polity]

Which of the following statements with regard to the Preamble to the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. Equality of status and equality of opportunity find mention in the Preamble. 2. The expression 'unity and integrity of the Nation' was not there in the Preamble since the beginning. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Preamble mentions 'equality of status and of opportunity', so statement 1 is correct. The phrase 'unity and integrity of the Nation' was inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976; originally it read only 'unity of the Nation', so statement 2 is also correct.

Q.66 [Polity]

In Part-IVA of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not mentioned as a duty of every citizen of India?

(a) To render national service when called upon to do so
(b) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
(c) To value and preserve a unitary national culture ✓
(d) To develop the spirit of inquiry and reform

Explanation: Article 51A lists Fundamental Duties. The duty is to 'value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture', not 'unitary national culture'. Option (c) misrepresents the actual wording and is therefore not mentioned as stated.

Q.67 [History]

Which of the following terms were used in the Indo-Persian sources of the Mughal period to denote a peasant? 1. Raiyat 2. Asami 3. Muzarian 4. Majur Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: In Mughal Indo-Persian sources, 'Raiyat', 'Asami', and 'Muzarian' (muzara'in) all referred to peasants or cultivators. 'Majur' referred more to a labourer or wage worker, not specifically a peasant in the agrarian hierarchy described in Mughal sources.

Q.68 [History]

Who among the following pioneering Bengali women serialised her autobiography Amar Katha between 1910 and 1913?

(a) Binodini Dasi ✓
(b) Rashsundari Debi
(c) Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
(d) Kailashbashini Debi

Explanation: Binodini Dasi, a famous Bengali actress, serialised her autobiography 'Amar Katha' (My Story) in the journal Natyamandir between 1910 and 1913. Rashsundari Debi wrote 'Amar Jiban', an earlier autobiography.

Q.69 [History]

Arrange the following events chronologically starting from the earliest: 1. Ahmedabad Mill Strike 2. Champaran Satyagraha 3. Foundation of the Satyagraha Sabha 4. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4 ✓
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3
(d) 4, 2, 1, 3

Explanation: Champaran Satyagraha: 1917; Ahmedabad Mill Strike: February–March 1918; Foundation of the Satyagraha Sabha: February 1919; Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: April 1919. Correct chronological order is 2, 1, 3, 4.

Q.70 [History]

The year 1916 is important in Indian history for: 1. Lucknow Session of the Congress 2. Congress – League Pact 3. Formation of Home Rule League Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three events occurred in 1916: the Lucknow Session of the Indian National Congress, the Congress–League Pact (Lucknow Pact), and the formation of the Home Rule Leagues by Tilak (April 1916) and Annie Besant (September 1916).

Q.71 [Geography]

(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 ✓
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation: South-Eastern Railway HQ is Kolkata; South-Central Railway HQ is Secunderabad; South-Western Railway HQ is Hubli; South-East-Central Railway HQ is Bilaspur. This matches option (a): A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

Q.72 [Geography]

Ten Degree Channel is found between:

(a) North Andaman and Middle Andaman
(b) South Andaman and Little Andaman
(c) Little Andaman and Car Nicobar ✓
(d) Car Nicobar and Great Nicobar

Explanation: The Ten Degree Channel (lying at approximately 10°N latitude) separates Little Andaman (part of the Andaman Islands) from Car Nicobar (the northernmost of the Nicobar Islands).

Q.73 [Geography]

(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 ✓
(c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Explanation: Barkana Falls is in Karnataka; Dudhsagar Falls is in Goa; Duduma Falls is in Odisha (on the Machkund River, Odisha-AP border, primarily in Odisha); Kiliyur Falls is in Tamil Nadu. This matches option (b): A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Q.74 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a resultant of the El Nino effect?

(a) Distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation
(b) Flow of the South-East Trade Winds towards the Indian Ocean ✓
(c) Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water
(d) Reduction in the amount of planktons which reduces the number of fish in the sea

Explanation: El Nino actually weakens or reverses the South-East Trade Winds in the Pacific; it does not cause them to flow towards the Indian Ocean. The other three effects — distorted atmospheric circulation, irregular evaporation, and reduced plankton/fish — are genuine El Nino consequences.

Q.75 [Polity]

According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The executive powers of the Union shall be vested in the President of India.
(b) Parliament, by law, can confer functions on authorities other than the President of India.
(c) The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of all Members of Parliament and all Members of all State Legislatures. ✓
(d) A person, having held office as the President, shall be eligible for election to that office for the second term.

Explanation: Under Article 54, the President is elected by an electoral college comprising elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (not all members, only elected ones, and not members of Legislative Councils). Option (c) is incorrect because it says 'all Members of Parliament' (including nominated) and 'all Members of all State Legislatures' (including MLCs and nominated members).

Q.76 [Polity]

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India requires the Prime Minister of India to furnish information related to decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President of India?

(a) Article 78 ✓
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 75
(d) Article 81

Explanation: Article 78 of the Constitution specifically deals with the duties of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of Union affairs and proposals for legislation.

Q.77 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) All executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the name of the President of India.
(b) The President of India appoints a person as Attorney General of India provided she/he is qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court. ✓
(c) The total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers cannot exceed ten percent of the total number of members of the House of People.
(d) The President of India is bound to act as per the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.

Explanation: Under Article 76, the Attorney General must be qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court (not a High Court). The qualification is specifically Supreme Court standard, making statement (b) incorrect.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.78 [Polity]

The issue, 'whether Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code is violative of Articles 21, 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India' was decided in which one of the following cases?

(a) Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
(b) Vishakha vs. State of Rajasthan
(c) Shayara Bano vs. Union of India
(d) Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of Delhi and others ✓

Explanation: The Delhi High Court in Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of Delhi and Others (2009) first ruled that Section 377 IPC, insofar as it criminalised consensual same-sex acts between adults, violated Articles 21, 14, and 15 of the Constitution.

Q.79 [Polity]

Which one of the following writs means 'you may have the body'?

(a) Habeas Corpus ✓
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto

Explanation: 'Habeas Corpus' is a Latin phrase meaning 'you may have the body' or 'you shall have the body'. It is a writ issued to produce a detained person before the court to examine the legality of the detention.

Q.80 [History]

Who among the following belonged to Serampore Mission? 1. William Carey 2. Joshua Marshman 3. William Ward 4. David Hare Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: The Serampore Mission (also called the Serampore Trio) was founded by William Carey, Joshua Marshman, and William Ward. David Hare was a Scottish watchmaker and philanthropist who contributed to education in Bengal but was not a member of the Serampore Mission.

Q.81 [History]

Consider the following statements: • In the 19th century, peasants in various parts of India rose in revolt against moneylenders and grain dealers. • In May 1875, at village Supa in Poona District in the Bombay Deccan, peasants attacked shopkeepers, burnt the bahi khatas (account books), looted grain shops and set fire to the houses of Sahukars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Deccan Riots of 1875 (Poona/Bombay Deccan) are a well-documented example of peasant uprisings against moneylenders in 19th-century India, and the specific incident at village Supa in May 1875 is historically accurate.

Q.82 [History / Polity]

Which one of the following was not a part of Kautilya's Saptanga Theory of the State?

(a) Amatya
(b) Janapada
(c) Durga
(d) Dhamma ✓

Explanation: Kautilya's Saptanga Theory lists seven elements of the state: Swami (king), Amatya (ministers), Janapada (territory/population), Durga (fortification), Kosha (treasury), Danda (army), and Mitra (ally). Dhamma is a Buddhist concept, not part of Kautilya's theory.

Q.83 [History]

Consider the following statements about Ashoka's faith in Buddhism: • Rummindei Pillar Inscription and Nigali Sagar Pillar Inscription provide clear evidence of Ashoka's faith in Buddhism. • Minor Rock Edict-I gives evidence of a sudden change in Ashoka's faith in Buddhism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Rummindei and Nigali Sagar inscriptions confirm Ashoka's devotion to Buddhist sacred sites, while Minor Rock Edict-I explicitly mentions his conversion and deepened commitment to Buddhism after joining the Sangha.

Q.84 [Geography]

Which of the following variable(s) is/are displayed in population pyramids? • Age-groups • Sex indicators (male and female) Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Population pyramids display both age-groups (on the vertical axis) and sex (male on one side, female on the other), making both statements correct.

Q.85 [Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Lake) — List II (State) A. Kaliveli — 1. Sikkim B. Khajjiar — 2. Kerala C. Khecheopalri — 3. Himachal Pradesh D. Vembanad — 4. Tamil Nadu

(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 ✓

Explanation: Kaliveli is in Tamil Nadu, Khajjiar in Himachal Pradesh, Khecheopalri in Sikkim, and Vembanad in Kerala — matching option (d): A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.

Q.86 [Geography / Environment]

Which one of the following is the most important factor for the formulation of smog?

(a) Long winter nights
(b) Formation of an 'inversion lid' ✓
(c) Presence of many air pollutant resources
(d) Rapid fall in temperature with increasing height above the sea level

Explanation: Temperature inversion (the 'inversion lid') traps pollutants near the ground by preventing the normal upward dispersal of air, which is the most critical factor in smog formation. Without inversion, pollutants disperse even if many sources exist.

Q.87 [Geography]

Mount Thullier (642 m) is an important mountain peak of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is located in:

(a) North Andaman
(b) Middle Andaman
(c) South Andaman
(d) Great Nicobar ✓

Explanation: Mount Thullier, the highest point in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands at 642 m, is located in Great Nicobar Island, the southernmost island of the archipelago.

Q.88 [Geography / Physical Geography]

Which one of the following land surfaces has the highest albedo?

(a) A snow covered mountain ✓
(b) A barren rocky piedmont surface
(c) A sandy desert
(d) A mangrove forest

Explanation: Snow and ice have the highest albedo (reflectivity) of any natural surface, reflecting 80–90% of incoming solar radiation, far more than rocky surfaces (~15–35%), sandy deserts (~30–40%), or forests (~10–20%).

Q.89 [Polity / Law]

Which one of the following terms represents the maxim, "no man/person shall be condemned unheard"?

(a) Autrefois acquit
(b) Non bis in idem
(c) Autrefois convict
(d) Audi Alteram Partem ✓

Explanation: 'Audi Alteram Partem' is the Latin maxim meaning 'hear the other side' or 'no person shall be condemned unheard,' a fundamental principle of natural justice. Autrefois acquit/convict relate to double jeopardy, and non bis in idem means 'not twice for the same.'

Q.90 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha is not correct?

(a) He shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People.
(b) He may, at any time, resign by writing his resignation to the President of India. ✓
(c) He may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by majority of all the then members of the House.
(d) While the office of the Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker.

Explanation: Under Article 94 of the Constitution, the Speaker resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker, not to the President of India. Therefore statement (b) is incorrect.

Q.91 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about a Bill for Amendment of the Constitution of India is not correct?

(a) It is governed by Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India.
(b) Joint sitting can be resorted to for passing a Bill amending the Constitution of India. ✓
(c) The State Legislatures cannot initiate any Bill or proposal for amendment of the Constitution of India.
(d) The previous sanction of the President of India is not required for introducing any Bill in the Parliament for amendment of the Constitution of India.

Explanation: Article 368 does not provide for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in case of a deadlock on a Constitutional Amendment Bill — joint sitting under Article 108 is only for ordinary legislation. Hence statement (b) is not correct.

Q.92 [Polity]

Which one of the following methods is followed in electing the President of India?

(a) Proportional Representation only
(b) First-Past-the-Post System only
(c) Proportional Representation and the Single Transferable Vote System ✓
(d) Proportional Representation and the First-Past-the-Post System

Explanation: Under Article 55 of the Constitution, the President is elected by the method of Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV), with voting by secret ballot.

Q.93 [History / Ancient India]

From among the following Mahajanapadas, identify the gana/sangha (oligarchy):

(a) Magadha
(b) Vajji ✓
(c) Avanti
(d) Kosala

Explanation: Vajji (also spelled Vrijji) was a confederacy and is the most prominent example of a gana-sangha (republican/oligarchic state) among the sixteen Mahajanapadas. Magadha, Avanti, and Kosala were monarchies.

Q.94 [History / Modern India]

The provision for separate electorate for Muslims was given in:

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 ✓
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(c) Communal Award, 1932
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Explanation: The Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act, 1909) introduced the concept of separate electorates for Muslims for the first time, a key demand of the Muslim League. This was a landmark communal concession in British Indian constitutional history.

Q.95 [History / Modern India]

Which of the following was/were the founder member(s) of Hindustan Socialist Republican Army established in September, 1928? • Bhagat Singh • Jatindranath • Ajoy Ghosh • Phanindranath Ghosh Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was reorganized/founded in September 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi. Bhagat Singh, Jatindranath Das (Jatindranath), and Ajoy Ghosh were among the key founders. Phanindranath Ghosh was associated with the organisation but is not listed as a founding member of the September 1928 meeting.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.96 [History / Modern India]

Who among the following did not belong to the group of 'No-Changers'?

(a) M.A. Ansari
(b) Vithalbhai Patel ✓
(c) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
(d) Kasturi Ranga Iyengar

Explanation: After the suspension of Non-Cooperation Movement, Congress split into 'No-Changers' (who opposed council entry) and 'Pro-Changers' (Swarajists). Vithalbhai Patel sided with the Swarajists (Pro-Changers) who wanted to enter legislative councils. C. Rajagopalachari, M.A. Ansari, and Kasturi Ranga Iyengar were No-Changers.

Q.97 [History / Modern India]

The headquarters of Ghadar Movement/Party were at

(a) San Francisco ✓
(b) Stanford University
(c) Portland
(d) Florida

Explanation: The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 in San Francisco, California, USA, where its headquarters (Yugantar Ashram) were also located. The party was primarily composed of Indian immigrants on the West Coast of America.

Q.98 [History / Modern India]

Which one of the following pairs of Newspaper and Editor is not correctly matched? Newspaper — Editor (a) Navjivan — Mahatma Gandhi (b) Mahratta — Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) Bengalee — Surendranath Banerjea (d) Voice of India — Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(a) Navjivan — Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mahratta — Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bengalee — Surendranath Banerjea
(d) Voice of India — Gopal Krishna Gokhale ✓

Explanation: 'Voice of India' was founded and edited by Dadabhai Naoroji, not Gopal Krishna Gokhale. The other pairings — Navjivan with Gandhi, Mahratta with Tilak, and Bengalee with Banerjea — are all correct.

Q.99 [History / Modern India]

Which one of the following was not included in the terms and conditions of Subsidiary Alliance System of Lord Wellesley?

(a) The British would protect their ally.
(b) The ally was free to enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare. ✓
(c) In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
(d) The ally would have to provide resources for the maintenance of the British armed contingent.

Explanation: Under the Subsidiary Alliance system, the ally was expressly forbidden from entering into any foreign alliance or going to war without British permission. Option (b) states the opposite of what the treaty required, making it the incorrect condition.

Q.100 [Geography / Environment]

Which one of the following is an exhaustible but renewable natural resource?

(a) Solar energy
(b) Water in usable condition ✓
(c) Soil
(d) Landscape in its natural condition

Explanation: Water in usable condition is exhaustible (can be depleted/polluted beyond usable limits locally) but renewable (replenished through the hydrological cycle). Solar energy is inexhaustible; soil and landscape are renewable only over very long geological timescales and are often classified as non-renewable for practical purposes.

Q.101 [Current Affairs]

Recently, the term 'two-pillar solution/two-pillar package' often seen in the news, refers to

(a) Global energy security in near future
(b) International cyber crime reporting
(c) Minimum global corporate tax ✓
(d) Prevention of international money laundering

Explanation: The 'two-pillar solution' refers to the OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework agreement on international tax reform, specifically establishing a global minimum corporate tax rate of 15% (Pillar Two) and reallocating taxing rights of large multinationals (Pillar One).

Q.102 [Science & Technology]

Consider the following pairs of vaccine and category/type: 1. Covaxin – Inactivated pathogen-based vaccine 2. Covishield – mRNA vaccine 3. Sputnik V – Viral vector-based vaccine Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Covaxin is an inactivated whole-virion vaccine (pair 1 correct). Covishield is an adenoviral vector-based vaccine, NOT mRNA (pair 2 incorrect). Sputnik V is a viral vector-based vaccine (pair 3 correct). Hence 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q.103 [Economy]

What is 'Unicorn Company' often mentioned in Indian news?

(a) Any privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion ✓
(b) Any public sector company to be merged with another public sector company
(c) Privatization of any loss-making State-owned company
(d) Any foreign multinational company doing business in India in collaboration with an Indian company

Explanation: A 'Unicorn' is a term used in the startup ecosystem for a privately held startup company that has achieved a valuation of over $1 billion.

Q.104 [Environment]

A global initiative popularly known as '30 x 30 target' is often seen in the news. Which one of the following statements best reflects this initiative?

(a) At least 30% of the planet should be protected by 2030. ✓
(b) At least 30% of the cultivated area should be brought under organic farming by 2030.
(c) At least 30% of the energy requirements should be met by renewable sources by 2030.
(d) At least 30% of the people below poverty line should be brought out of their poverty by 2030.

Explanation: The '30x30' target is a global conservation goal to protect at least 30% of the world's land and oceans by the year 2030, discussed prominently at CBD COP15.

Q.105 [Science & Technology]

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding LOFAR (Low Frequency Array)?

(a) It is the world's most powerful radio antenna. ✓
(b) It is a space technology launched by NASA to discover exoplanets.
(c) It is an arrangement of satellites in space for the purpose of creating Satellite Navigation System.
(d) It is a wireless communication technology for 5G services.

Explanation: LOFAR (Low Frequency Array) is a large radio telescope network based primarily in the Netherlands. It is considered the world's largest and most sensitive low-frequency radio telescope/antenna array.

Q.106 [International Relations]

In the recently formed grouping of countries generally known as 'Middle-East Quad', in addition to India, which of the following are other members?

(a) Egypt, Saudi Arabia and USA
(b) Israel, UAE and USA ✓
(c) Egypt, UAE and UK
(d) Israel, Saudi Arabia and UK

Explanation: The I2U2 group (also called the Middle-East Quad) comprises India, Israel, UAE, and USA, launched in 2021 to promote cooperation in water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.

Q.107 [Defence]

The terms 'Pinaka and Smerch' mentioned in news recently refer to

(a) Cruise missiles
(b) Nuclear-powered submarines
(c) Rocket launcher systems ✓
(d) Weaponised drones

Explanation: Pinaka is India's indigenously developed multi-barrel rocket launcher system, and Smerch (BM-30) is a Russian heavy multiple rocket launcher system. Both are rocket artillery systems.

Q.108 [History / International Relations]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India had accorded recognition to Bangladesh even before the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971. 2. In March 2021, both India and Bangladesh had decided to celebrate 6 December as Maitri Diwas.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: India recognised Bangladesh on 6 December 1971, which was after the war had decisively turned in Bangladesh's favour but Bangladesh was liberated on 16 December 1971 — so statement 1 is debatable, but officially India recognised Bangladesh on 6 Dec before formal liberation on 16 Dec. However, India and Bangladesh did agree to celebrate 6 December as Maitri Diwas during PM Modi's visit in March 2021, making statement 2 correct. Statement 1 is correct as India recognised Bangladesh on 6 December 1971, before the formal liberation on 16 December 1971. Hence both are correct.

Q.109 [Defence]

Recently India signed a contract for the manufacture of nearly 6 lakh AK-203 rifles with which one of the following countries?

(a) Canada
(b) Russia ✓
(c) France
(d) Israel

Explanation: India signed a deal with Russia for the manufacture of approximately 6 lakh (600,000) AK-203 assault rifles at the Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited (IRRPL) facility in Amethi, Uttar Pradesh.

Q.110 [Current Affairs]

In December 2021, who among the following succeeded Angela Merkel as the Chancellor of Germany?

(a) Olaf Scholz ✓
(b) Annalena Baerbock
(c) Armin Laschet
(d) Jana Puglierin

Explanation: Olaf Scholz of the Social Democratic Party (SPD) was sworn in as Chancellor of Germany on 8 December 2021, succeeding Angela Merkel after 16 years.

Q.111 [Current Affairs / Awards]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Nilamani Phookan Jr. is the 56th Jnanpith Award winner. 2. Damodar Mauzo is the 57th Jnanpith Award winner.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Nilamani Phookan Jr. (Assamese poet) received the 56th Jnanpith Award (for 2021), and Damodar Mauzo (Konkani writer) received the 57th Jnanpith Award (for 2022). Both statements are correct.

Q.112 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following statements about Anil Menon is correct?

(a) He is an engineer who revolutionised organic farming.
(b) He is a diplomat selected in a UN Peace-Keeping mission.
(c) He is a physician selected by NASA to be an astronaut. ✓
(d) He is a star football player.

Explanation: Dr. Anil Menon is an Indian-American physician and flight surgeon who was selected by NASA as an astronaut candidate in December 2021, becoming the first SpaceX flight surgeon.

Q.113 [Science & Technology]

India's maiden human space mission will be launched in 2023. What is its name?

(a) Vayumitra
(b) Vikram
(c) Chandrayaan-3
(d) Gaganyaan ✓

Explanation: Gaganyaan is India's first crewed orbital spacecraft mission by ISRO. Vayumitra is the name of the humanoid robot (space mannequin) that will be sent on unmanned test flights prior to the crewed mission.

Q.114 [Sports]

Which one of the following teams won the Senior Women's National Football Championship, 2021?

(a) Manipur ✓
(b) Railways
(c) West Bengal
(d) Odisha

Explanation: Manipur won the Senior Women's National Football Championship 2021, defeating Railways in the final. Manipur is a traditional powerhouse in Indian women's football.

Q.115 [Environment]

Which of the following about Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary is/are correct? 1. It is recently declared as a Ramsar Site (wetlands of international importance) 2. It is located in Uttar Pradesh

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary was declared a Ramsar Site in 2021, so statement 1 is correct. However, it is located in Gujarat (near Jamnagar), not Uttar Pradesh, making statement 2 incorrect.

Q.116 [Current Affairs]

Which one among the following countries has announced a plan that sets a goal of having fewer than 5% of its populace smoking by 2025?

(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) New Zealand ✓
(d) Russia

Explanation: New Zealand announced its Smokefree Aotearoa 2025 Action Plan with the ambitious goal of reducing the smoking rate to below 5% of the population by 2025, one of the world's most stringent anti-smoking targets.

Q.117 [Sports]

Who among the following won the FIDE World Chess Championship, 2021?

(a) Nepomniachtchi
(b) Magnus Carlsen ✓
(c) Ding Liren
(d) Anish Giri

Explanation: Magnus Carlsen of Norway successfully defended his World Chess Championship title in 2021 by defeating Ian Nepomniachtchi of Russia, winning the match 7.5–3.5 in Dubai.

Q.118 [Environment]

With reference to Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, Sultanpur National Park, Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary and Wadhwana Wetland, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. All of them are Ramsar sites. 2. All of them are naturally formed wetlands. 3. All of them are birding sites.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All four were designated Ramsar sites in 2021 (statement 1 correct). They are all important birding sites (statement 3 correct). However, Sultanpur National Park and Bhindawas are man-made/managed wetlands, not all naturally formed (statement 2 incorrect). Hence 1 and 3 are correct.

Q.119 [Science & Technology]

To study which one of the following was a spacecraft launched that would be farthest from the Sun and would run exclusively on solar power?

(a) Jupiter's Trojan asteroids ✓
(b) Saturn's rings and moons
(c) Mars' atmosphere
(d) Kuiper Belt and Oort Cloud

Explanation: NASA's Lucy spacecraft, launched in October 2021, is designed to study Jupiter's Trojan asteroids. It is the farthest spacecraft from the Sun to run exclusively on solar power, using large solar panels.

Q.120 [History / Archaeology]

Recently, archaeological studies at which one among the following revealed that by 1200 BCE there was a flourishing agrarian civilization and the cultivation of rice was well-established at this place?

(a) Raichur Doab
(b) Krishna Delta
(c) Vicinity of Vamsadhara river
(d) Vicinity of Thamirabarani river ✓

Explanation: Archaeological studies near the Thamirabarani river in Tamil Nadu revealed evidence of a flourishing agrarian civilization with well-established rice cultivation dating back to around 1200 BCE, indicating early agricultural settlements in South India.