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CDS II 2022 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2022 (Session II) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Economy / Industry]

Which one of the following is the first and the oldest Government-owned coal mining company in India?

(a) Neyveli Lignite Corporation
(b) Singareni Collieries Company Limited ✓
(c) Coal India Limited
(d) Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

Explanation: Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL), established in 1920 under the Hyderabad State, is the oldest and first government-owned coal mining company in India, predating Coal India Limited which was formed in 1975.

Q.2 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a tributary of Barak River in Manipur?

(a) Dhaleswari ✓
(b) Subansiri
(c) Dhansiri
(d) Manas

Explanation: Dhaleswari (also spelled Tlawng in Mizoram) is a tributary of the Barak River that flows through Manipur and Mizoram. Subansiri, Dhansiri, and Manas are tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Q.3 [Geography]

Which types of vegetation will you find on the way as you travel from Bikaner to Konark by road by shortest distance?

(a) Tropical thorny, Desert, Moist deciduous, Mangrove
(b) Desert, Tropical thorny, Moist deciduous, Mangrove ✓
(c) Moist deciduous, Tropical thorny, Mangrove, Desert
(d) Desert, Tropical thorny, Mangrove, Moist deciduous

Explanation: Travelling from Bikaner (Rajasthan) eastward to Konark (Odisha coast), you first pass through Desert vegetation (Thar Desert near Bikaner), then Tropical thorny scrub (eastern Rajasthan/MP border), then Moist deciduous forests (Odisha interior), and finally Mangrove vegetation near the coast at Konark.

Q.4 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about Karewas: • These are the lacustrine deposits of Pleistocene period. • These are found along the lower slopes of Pir Panjal. • Karewas are well known for the cultivation of saffron, almond and walnut. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct — Karewas are indeed lacustrine (lake) deposits of the Pleistocene era and are famous for saffron, almond and walnut cultivation. Statement 2 is incorrect; Karewas are found along the upper slopes (not lower slopes) of the Pir Panjal range in the Kashmir Valley.

Q.5 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about an Indian State: • It is well known globally for its variety of rocks and minerals. • It has the largest deposits of Chrysotile Asbestos in the country. • The Neelam Sanjiva Reddy Sagar Hydel Project is located in this State. Identify the State from the following:

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Andhra Pradesh ✓
(d) Chhattisgarh

Explanation: Andhra Pradesh is known for its mineral diversity, holds the largest Chrysotile Asbestos deposits in India, and the Neelam Sanjiva Reddy Sagar (Srisailam) Hydel Project is located on the Krishna River in Andhra Pradesh.

Q.6 [Economy]

During 2020–21, when India was passing through the adverse effects of COVID-19, which one of the following sectors witnessed positive growth?

(a) Mining and quarrying
(b) Electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services
(c) Financial, real estate and professional services
(d) Public administration, defence and other services ✓

Explanation: During COVID-19 in 2020-21, most sectors contracted. However, Public administration, defence and other services recorded positive growth due to increased government spending on health, relief measures and defence, making it one of the few sectors with positive GVA growth.

Q.7 [Economy / Finance]

Which one of the following statements about a borrower from a Microfinance Company is not correct?

(a) The borrower should not have annual income beyond a limit.
(b) The borrower should not seek loan amount beyond a limit.
(c) The borrower should not refuse to offer a collateral. ✓
(d) The borrower should not refuse to pay any rate of interest offered.

Explanation: Microfinance loans are specifically collateral-free (unsecured) loans — a defining feature is that borrowers are NOT required to provide collateral. Hence statement (c) is incorrect. Income and loan amount limits do apply, and interest rate regulations also exist.

Q.8 [Economy / Finance]

Which one of the following statements about Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) is not correct?

(a) NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
(b) NBFCs cannot give loans. ✓
(c) NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.
(d) NBFCs cannot offer deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation.

Explanation: Giving loans and advances is a core activity of NBFCs — they are specifically defined as companies that provide loans and advances. The other three statements are correct restrictions on NBFCs compared to commercial banks.

Q.9 [Economy / Industry]

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has revised the base year index of Eight Core Industries having a combined weight of about 40.27 percent in the Index of Industrial Production. Which one of the following is not one of the Eight Core Industries?

(a) Coal
(b) Refinery products
(c) Rubber products ✓
(d) Cement

Explanation: The Eight Core Industries are: Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilisers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. Rubber products is not part of this list, making option (c) the correct answer.

Q.10 [Economy]

Consider the following statements about the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): • The MSMEs comprise a dynamic sector of the Indian economy providing large employment opportunities. • MSMEs require low capital cost and help industrialization of backward regions. • MSMEs contribute enormously to socio-economic development. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) None
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements about MSMEs are correct. MSMEs are indeed a dynamic sector with large employment generation, require low capital, support backward area industrialization, and make enormous contributions to socio-economic development.

Q.11 [Science / Chemistry]

Stinging hair of nettle leaves inject fluid in the human body causing burning pain. The fluid is

(a) Methanoic acid ✓
(b) Tartaric acid
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Sulphuric acid

Explanation: The stinging hairs of nettle (Urtica) inject methanoic acid (formic acid, HCOOH) along with other chemicals into the skin, causing the characteristic burning and stinging pain.

Q.12 [Science / Chemistry]

Milk of Magnesia is used when people suffer from indigestion of food. It is a

(a) Strong base
(b) Mild base ✓
(c) Strong acid
(d) Mild acid

Explanation: Milk of Magnesia is magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)₂, which is a mild (weak) base. It neutralises excess stomach acid to relieve indigestion without causing harm, as a strong base would be corrosive.

Q.13 [Science / Physics]

Which of the following pairs of metals are very good conductors of heat?

(a) Silver and Copper ✓
(b) Silver and Lead
(c) Copper and Mercury
(d) Lead and Mercury

Explanation: Silver has the highest thermal conductivity of all metals, and copper has the second highest. Lead and mercury are comparatively poor conductors of heat, so the correct pair of very good heat conductors is silver and copper.

Q.14 [Science / Physics]

School bells are made of metals because metals are

(a) Malleable
(b) Sonorous ✓
(c) Ductile
(d) Lustrous

Explanation: Metals are sonorous — they produce a ringing sound when struck. This property makes them suitable for bells. Malleability, ductility, and lustre are other metallic properties but are not the reason bells are made of metal.

Q.15 [Science / Chemistry]

Consider the following statements about Tincture of Iodine: • It is an antiseptic solution. • Iodine is kept in alcohol-water mixture. • Concentration of iodine is very low. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3 ✓
(d) None

Explanation: All three statements are correct. Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic (statement 1), it is a solution of iodine dissolved in an alcohol-water mixture (statement 2), and it contains a low concentration of iodine — typically around 2–7% (statement 3).

Q.16 [Science / Chemistry]

Cl⁻ is not isoelectronic with

(a) K+
(b) Mg²⁺
(c) S²⁻ ✓
(d) P³⁻

Explanation: Cl⁻ has 18 electrons (17+1). K⁺ has 18 electrons (19-1), Mg²⁺ has 18 electrons (12+6... wait: 12-2=10, no — Mg²⁺ has 10 electrons). Let me recount: Cl⁻ = 17+1 = 18e. K⁺ = 19-1 = 18e (isoelectronic). Mg²⁺ = 12-2 = 10e (NOT isoelectronic). S²⁻ = 16+2 = 18e (isoelectronic). P³⁻ = 15+3 = 18e (isoelectronic). So Cl⁻ is NOT isoelectronic with Mg²⁺.

Q.17 [Science / Biology]

In plant cells

(a) Nucleus does not need a membrane but chloroplasts are surrounded by their own membrane.
(b) Nucleus and chloroplasts are surrounded separately by their own membrane. ✓
(c) Nucleus is surrounded by membrane but chloroplasts do not need membrane.
(d) Both nucleus and chloroplasts are not surrounded by any membrane.

Explanation: In plant cells, the nucleus is enclosed by a double nuclear membrane (nuclear envelope) and chloroplasts are surrounded by their own double membrane (envelope). Both organelles have their own distinct membrane systems.

Q.18 [Science / Biology]

Which one of the following statements about starch and glycogen is correct?

(a) Both starch and glycogen are found in plant cells.
(b) Both starch and glycogen are found in animal cells.
(c) Starch is present in plant cells and glycogen is present in animal cells. ✓
(d) Both starch and glycogen are present in plant cells as well as animal cells.

Explanation: Starch is the storage polysaccharide in plants (found in plant cells), while glycogen is the storage polysaccharide in animals and fungi (found in animal cells, especially liver and muscle). They are not interchangeable between kingdoms.

Q.19 [Science / Biology]

Which one of the following statements about the process of photosynthesis is correct?

(a) Light energy is directly converted to kinetic energy which oxidizes carbon dioxide.
(b) Light energy is directly converted to chemical energy which causes reduction of water.
(c) Chlorophyll absorbs the chemical energy of light which causes oxidation of carbon dioxide.
(d) Chlorophyll absorbs light energy which causes splitting of water molecules and reduction of carbon dioxide. ✓

Explanation: In photosynthesis, chlorophyll absorbs light energy which is used in the light reactions to split water molecules (photolysis/oxidation of water, releasing O₂) and the resulting energy drives the Calvin cycle where CO₂ is reduced to carbohydrates. Option (d) correctly describes both photolysis and carbon fixation.

Q.20 [Science / Biology]

Kwashiorkor, a form of malnutrition, is caused by the deficiency of

(a) Minerals
(b) Vitamins
(c) Fats
(d) Proteins ✓

Explanation: Kwashiorkor is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition caused specifically by protein deficiency (despite adequate or near-adequate calorie intake). Its hallmark signs include oedema, distended abdomen, and skin lesions.

Q.21 [Biology]

Which one of the following pairs of enzymes do not work at acidic pH?

(a) Trypsin and Pepsin
(b) Chymotrypsin and Pepsin
(c) Trypsin and Amylase ✓
(d) Pepsin and Amylase

Explanation: Trypsin works optimally at alkaline pH (~8) and Amylase (salivary/pancreatic) works at neutral to slightly alkaline pH (~7-8); neither functions at acidic pH. Pepsin, by contrast, works at highly acidic pH (~2).

Q.22 [Biology]

Urea is produced by metabolism of

(a) Proteins ✓
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Lipids
(d) Both Proteins and Carbohydrates

Explanation: Urea is produced in the liver through the urea cycle as a result of amino acid (protein) catabolism; the ammonia released from deamination of amino acids is converted to urea.

Q.23 [Biology]

Deficiency of iron causes

(a) Anaemia ✓
(b) Scurvy
(c) Rickets
(d) Cholera

Explanation: Iron deficiency leads to iron-deficiency anaemia because iron is essential for haemoglobin synthesis. Scurvy is due to Vitamin C deficiency, Rickets is due to Vitamin D deficiency, and Cholera is a bacterial infection.

Q.24 [Physics]

If an object of mass 10 kg is moving with a uniform speed of 10 m/s, then the linear momentum and the kinetic energy of the object, respectively, are

(a) 100 N·s and 500 J ✓
(b) 100 N·s and 1000 J
(c) 200 N·s and 500 J
(d) 200 N·s and 1000 J

Explanation: Linear momentum p = mv = 10 × 10 = 100 N·s. Kinetic energy KE = ½mv² = ½ × 10 × 100 = 500 J. Hence option (a).

Q.25 [Physics]

An electrical circuit having combinations of resistances and capacitance is given below. The current, flowing through the circuit will be (Image based question – circuit diagram not visible in text)

(a) 1 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 1.5 A
(d) 0.5 A

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.26 [Physics]

The pitch of a sound wave depends upon which one of its following characteristics?

(a) Speed
(b) Loudness
(c) Amplitude
(d) Frequency ✓

Explanation: Pitch is the perceptual correlate of frequency; a higher frequency produces a higher pitch. Amplitude relates to loudness, not pitch.

Q.27 [Physics]

The device used for measuring electric current in a circuit is called

(a) Ammeter ✓
(b) Motor
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Generator

Explanation: An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit to measure electric current. A voltmeter measures potential difference, while a motor and generator are energy-conversion devices.

Q.28 [Physics]

A metal wire of length l and diameter d has a resistance R. What would be the resistance of another wire of the same metal and of same length but having double the diameter?

(a) R
(b) R/4 ✓
(c) R/2
(d) 2R

Explanation: Resistance R = ρl/A, where A = π(d/2)². Doubling the diameter increases the area by a factor of 4, so the new resistance = R/4.

Q.29 [Polity / Current Affairs]

In India, which one of the following is responsible for the implementation of the Government of India's policy in all matters concerning telecommunications?

(a) Digital Communications Commission ✓
(b) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(c) Telecom Advisory Committee
(d) Telecommunications Consultants India Limited

Explanation: The Digital Communications Commission (formerly Telecom Commission) is the apex body under the Department of Telecommunications responsible for implementing the Government's telecom policy. TRAI is a regulatory authority, not a policy-implementation body.

Q.30 [Science & Technology / Current Affairs]

Consider the following statements about James Webb Space Telescope (JWST): 1. It is the largest observatory ever launched into space. 2. It has been developed by NASA in partnership with the European Space Agency and the Canadian Space Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. JWST is the largest and most powerful space telescope ever launched, and it was developed through a partnership between NASA, ESA, and CSA.

Q.31 [Current Affairs / Economy]

India has achieved the 10 percent Ethanol blending much ahead of the targeted date. Which one among the following greatly benefits from this?

(a) Cassava plantations
(b) Maize farming
(c) Sugar industry ✓
(d) Wine industry

Explanation: India's ethanol blending programme primarily uses ethanol derived from sugarcane and its by-products (molasses, B-heavy molasses, sugarcane juice), making the sugar industry the primary beneficiary.

Q.32 [Current Affairs / Economy]

Consider the following statements regarding e-RUPI prepaid digital vouchers: 1. The maximum amount of e-RUPI is rupees one lakh. 2. Beneficiaries can receive e-RUPI without having a bank account. 3. To receive e-RUPI on mobile phones, beneficiaries need a smart phone with Internet connection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 ✓
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (maximum value is ₹1 lakh per voucher) and Statement 2 is correct (e-RUPI can be received via SMS/QR code without a bank account). Statement 3 is incorrect because e-RUPI can be received on a feature phone via SMS without a smartphone or internet connection.

Q.33 [Science & Technology / Current Affairs]

Recently, India's first green hydrogen-based advanced fuel cell electric vehicle (FCEV) was launched. It has no tailpipe emissions other than

(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Water ✓

Explanation: In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to produce electricity, and the only by-product/tailpipe emission is water (H₂O). FCEVs are thus considered zero-emission vehicles.

Q.34 [Polity / Constitution]

Which one of the following languages was added to the Eighth Schedule by a Constitutional Amendment in 1967?

(a) Khasi
(b) Kashmiri
(c) Sindhi ✓
(d) Urdu

Explanation: Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution by the 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967, making it the 15th scheduled language at the time.

Q.35 [History]

What were Manigramam and Nanadesi in early medieval India?

(a) Cluster of non-revenue paying villages
(b) Village-level community groups
(c) Guilds of Indian merchants ✓
(d) Literary societies in the capital towns

Explanation: Manigramam and Nanadesi were prominent merchant guilds (trade corporations) active in early medieval South India, engaged in long-distance trade across the Indian Ocean region.

Q.36 [History]

The Dutch were defeated by Marthanda Varma of Travancore Kingdom in the battle of

(a) Wandiwash
(b) Rakshasi-Tangadi
(c) Pullalur
(d) Colachel ✓

Explanation: The Battle of Colachel (1741) was fought between the Travancore kingdom under Marthanda Varma and the Dutch East India Company; it resulted in a decisive victory for Travancore and marked the end of Dutch power in India.

Q.37 [History / Philosophy]

To which one of the following schools of philosophy did Kumarila Bhatta and Prabhakara belong?

(a) Lokayata
(b) Madhyamika
(c) Purva-Mimamsa ✓
(d) Uttara-Mimamsa

Explanation: Kumarila Bhatta and Prabhakara were two leading philosophers of the Purva-Mimamsa school, which focuses on the interpretation of the ritualistic portions (Karma-kanda) of the Vedas.

Q.38 [History / Literature]

The Tolkappiyam is

(a) A work of grammar ✓
(b) A Tamil poem in praise of Rajendra Chola
(c) An ancient didactic work in Tamil
(d) A drama composed by a Chera King

Explanation: The Tolkappiyam is the oldest extant work on Tamil grammar and poetics, traditionally attributed to Tolkappiyar. It is part of the Sangam literary tradition and deals with phonology, morphology, and poetics.

Q.39 [History / Geography]

On the banks of which one of the following rivers was the ancient Mahishmati located?

(a) Sarayu
(b) Son
(c) Narmada ✓
(d) Godavari

Explanation: Mahishmati (modern Maheshwar in Madhya Pradesh) was the ancient capital of the Haihaya kingdom and is located on the banks of the Narmada river.

Q.40 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Parliament is not correct? (a) It examines the Finance Accounts of the Government of India. (b) Fifteen members of the Committee are elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. (c) The Chairperson of the Committee is elected by its members. (d) In case a member of any other Committee constituted by the Government is elected to the PAC, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether he should continue to be a member of the former Committee.

(a) It examines the Finance Accounts of the Government of India.
(b) Fifteen members of the Committee are elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
(c) The Chairperson of the Committee is elected by its members. ✓
(d) In case a member of any other Committee constituted by the Government is elected to the PAC, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether he should continue to be a member of the former Committee.

Explanation: The Chairperson of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not elected by its members. By convention, the Chairperson is from the principal opposition party.

Q.41 [Polity]

Consider the following: • M.A. Ayyangar • G.S. Dhillon • Balram Jakhar • P.A. Sangma How many of them were the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4 ✓

Explanation: All four — M.A. Ayyangar (2nd Speaker), G.S. Dhillon (5th Speaker), Balram Jakhar (7th Speaker), and P.A. Sangma (10th Speaker) — served as Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Q.42 [Polity]

Consider the following pairs of Schedule and Content of the Constitution of India: • First Schedule: Forms of Oaths or Affirmations • Third Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Council of States • Fifth Schedule: Provisions related to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes • Ninth Schedule: Provisions related to the administration of tribal areas in certain States How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 ✓
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Explanation: Only the Fifth Schedule is correctly matched (it deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes). The Third Schedule contains Forms of Oaths or Affirmations; the First Schedule lists States and UTs; the Ninth Schedule contains Acts/Regulations protected from judicial review; the Sixth Schedule (not Ninth) deals with tribal areas in certain states.

Q.43 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Under Article 21A of the Constitution of India, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of eleven years. (b) Every religious denomination has got absolute power under Article 26 of the Constitution of India to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. (c) Only religious and linguistic minorities find mention in Article 30 of the Constitution of India in reference to the right to establish educational institutions of their choice. (d) Parliament cannot empower, even by law, any court other than the Supreme Court of India the power to issue writs within local limits of its jurisdiction.

(a) Under Article 21A, free and compulsory education is for children up to age 11
(b) Article 26 gives absolute power to religious denominations to manage their affairs
(c) Article 30 mentions only religious and linguistic minorities regarding establishing educational institutions ✓
(d) Parliament cannot empower any court other than Supreme Court to issue writs

Explanation: Article 30 specifically grants only religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article 21A covers children aged 6–14 (not up to 11); Article 26 rights are not absolute; Article 32 writs are Supreme Court's but Parliament can confer writ powers on other courts under Article 226 (High Courts already have it).

Q.44 [Geography]

Which one of the following do not influence the ocean currents?

(a) Heating by solar energy
(b) Wind
(c) Gravitational pull by Sun and Moon ✓
(d) Coriolis force

Explanation: Gravitational pull by the Sun and Moon is the primary driver of tides, not ocean currents. Ocean currents are mainly driven by wind, solar heating (temperature and density differences), and the Coriolis force.

Q.45 [Geography]

Which one of the following sedimentary rocks has not been formed mechanically?

(a) Sandstone
(b) Conglomerate
(c) Loess
(d) Geyserites ✓

Explanation: Geyserites (siliceous sinter) are chemically/organically formed sedimentary rocks precipitated from hot spring or geyser waters, not mechanically formed. Sandstone, conglomerate, and loess are all mechanically (clastic) formed sedimentary rocks.

Q.46 [Geography]

Which of the following statements about inversion of temperature is/are correct? 1. Temperature increases with increasing altitude. 2. A long winter night with clear skies is an ideal situation. 3. It is a short-term phenomenon and is common all over the globe except at the poles. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: during temperature inversion, temperature rises with altitude (opposite of normal lapse rate), and long clear winter nights promote radiative cooling at the surface, creating ideal inversion conditions. Statement 3 is incorrect because temperature inversions are especially common at the poles and are not merely a short-term global phenomenon.

Q.47 [Geography]

In which one of the following States/UT is the Lake Tsomgo located?

(a) Ladakh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim ✓
(d) Uttarakhand

Explanation: Lake Tsomgo (also called Changu Lake) is located in East Sikkim, at an altitude of about 3,753 metres, approximately 40 km from Gangtok.

Q.48 [Geography]

Which of the following statements about the coasts of India is/are correct? 1. The West Coast of India is a high rocky, retreating coast. 2. The West Coast of India is dominated by erosional landforms. 3. The East Coast of India, however, is a low sedimentary coast exhibiting depositional forms. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct. The West Coast is a submerged, high rocky retreating coast with erosional landforms (cliffs, sea caves), while the East Coast is an emergent, low sedimentary coast with depositional landforms (deltas, beaches, lagoons).

Q.49 [Geography]

Which one of the following States/UTs has the largest area under Coral Reefs in India?

(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands ✓
(d) Lakshadweep

Explanation: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have the largest area under coral reefs in India, accounting for the majority of India's total coral reef coverage due to the extensive fringing and barrier reefs surrounding these islands.

Q.50 [Economics]

Which one of the following is considered as an agency function of commercial banks in India?

(a) Acceptance of deposits
(b) Investment of surplus funds
(c) Acceptance of income tax payments ✓
(d) Providing overdraft facilities

Explanation: Agency functions of commercial banks are services performed on behalf of customers or the government, such as collecting taxes (income tax payments), paying insurance premiums, transferring funds, etc. Accepting deposits, investing surplus funds, and providing overdrafts are primary/general banking functions.

Q.51 [Economics]

Which one of the following forms of money supply is considered as the most widely used in the Indian monetary system?

(a) M1
(b) M2
(c) M3 ✓
(d) M4

Explanation: M3 (broad money) is the most widely used measure of money supply in India. It includes currency with the public, demand deposits, time deposits with banks, and other deposits with the RBI, making it the broadest and most representative measure used by the RBI for monetary policy.

Q.52 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following is the first State in India to have 100 percent households with tap water connection?

(a) Gujarat
(b) Goa ✓
(c) Delhi
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: Goa became the first state in India to achieve 100 percent household tap water connections under the Jal Jeevan Mission (Har Ghar Jal scheme).

Q.53 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following Labour Codes notified by the Government of India incorporated various provisions of the Central Labour Acts such as the Factories Act, 1948 and Plantations Labour Act, 1951?

(a) The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 ✓
(b) The Industrial Relations Code, 2020
(c) The Code on Wages, 2019
(d) The Code on Social Security, 2020

Explanation: The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 amalgamated 13 central labour laws including the Factories Act, 1948 and the Plantations Labour Act, 1951, among others, dealing with workplace safety and conditions.

Q.54 [Economics]

If you were to browse a table of a recent period showing life expectancy at birth for all categories of rural-urban and male-female divisions for all States of India, you are not likely to observe that: 1. Urban life expectancy is higher than the rural one. 2. Male life expectancy is higher than the female one. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Urban life expectancy IS higher than rural (statement 1 is typically observed, so you would observe it). However, female life expectancy is generally higher than male life expectancy in India (as globally), so you are NOT likely to observe that male life expectancy is higher — making statement 2 the one not likely to be observed.

Q.55 [Current Affairs]

Consider the following statements: The Government is promoting the 'Kisan Drone' for 1. Spraying weedicides. 2. Digitisation of land records. 3. Crop assessment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Explanation: The Government's Kisan Drone initiative primarily promotes drones for digitisation of land records and crop assessment (statements 2 and 3). While drones can spray pesticides/weedicides, the specific government promotion under 'Kisan Drone' focused on land record digitisation and crop assessment activities.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.56 [Current Affairs]

Recently launched 'Jan Samarth' portal

(a) provides single point access for authenticated health information to citizens
(b) assists farmers to access links to useful farming-specific information
(c) provides access to Pan India e-Government services
(d) provides link to Government credit schemes ✓

Explanation: The Jan Samarth portal (jansamarth.in), launched in 2022, is a government portal that provides a single digital platform linking multiple government credit-linked subsidy and loan schemes, enabling citizens to access government credit schemes easily.

Q.57 [Science & Technology]

Recently India commissioned its first liquid mirror telescope at

(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand ✓
(c) Ladakh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: India's first liquid mirror telescope, the International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT), was commissioned at Devasthal Observatory in Nainital, Uttarakhand, in 2022.

Q.58 [Current Affairs]

National Tribal Research Institute is situated at

(a) Bilaspur
(b) Raipur
(c) Ranchi
(d) New Delhi ✓

Explanation: The National Tribal Research Institute (NTRI) is located in New Delhi. It was inaugurated in 2022 and functions under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Q.59 [Sports]

Avani Lekhara excels in which one of the following sports?

(a) Table Tennis
(b) Cycling
(c) Shooting ✓
(d) Boxing

Explanation: Avani Lekhara is a para-athlete who excels in shooting. She won two gold medals at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games in the 10m Air Rifle and 50m Rifle 3 Positions events, becoming the first Indian woman to win a Paralympic gold medal.

Q.60 [Science]

The atmosphere of Planet Venus is made up of thick and yellowish clouds of

(a) Chlorine
(b) Sulphuric acid ✓
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Bromine

Explanation: Venus's atmosphere consists primarily of carbon dioxide with thick yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid (H2SO4) droplets, which are responsible for the planet's high reflectivity and extreme greenhouse effect causing surface temperatures around 465°C.

Q.61 [Chemistry]

A patient's abdomen (alimentary canal) can be examined by X-ray after administering which one of the following metal salts in the patient's meal?

(a) Barium sulphate ✓
(b) Barium chloride
(c) Strontium sulphate
(d) Magnesium chloride

Explanation: Barium sulphate is used as a radio-opaque contrast medium for X-ray examination of the alimentary canal. It is insoluble and non-toxic, so it safely coats the walls of the digestive tract without being absorbed.

Q.62 [Chemistry]

Storage of biological tissues such as blood, organs, semen requires low temperature which is achieved upon the usage of

(a) Liquid nitrogen ✓
(b) Solid carbon dioxide
(c) Liquid air
(d) Helium

Explanation: Liquid nitrogen (boiling point -196°C) is the standard cryogenic medium used for long-term storage of biological specimens such as blood, organs, and semen because it maintains ultra-low temperatures reliably and safely.

Q.63 [Chemistry]

In the joining of railway tracks, iron oxide is made to react with

(a) Aluminium ✓
(b) Zinc
(c) Copper
(d) Tin

Explanation: The thermite (thermit) welding process used to join railway tracks involves the reaction of iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) with aluminium powder, producing molten iron that fuses the rails together.

Q.64 [History]

What was a munjaniq in medieval period?

(a) Cannon
(b) Catapult ✓
(c) Gun carriage
(d) Portable armoury

Explanation: A munjaniq (also manjaniq) was a siege catapult or trebuchet used in medieval Islamic and Indian warfare to hurl heavy stones or projectiles at fortifications.

Q.65 [History]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Literary Work) — List II (Author) A. DutaGhatotkacha — 1. Bhatti B. Mrichchhakatikam — 2. Bhasa C. Kiratarjuniyam — 3. Shudraka D. Ravanavadha — 4. Bharavi Code: A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 ✓
(d) 2 4 3 1

Explanation: DutaGhatotkacha is by Bhasa (2), Mrichchhakatikam by Shudraka (3), Kiratarjuniyam by Bharavi (4), and Ravanavadha (also known as Bhaṭṭikāvya) by Bhatti (1). This gives A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1, matching option (c).

Q.66 [History]

At the banks of which of the following rivers was the Battle of Ten Kings fought in the Early Vedic Period?

(a) Sarasvati
(b) Drishadvati
(c) Parushni ✓
(d) Shutudri

Explanation: The Battle of Ten Kings (Dasarajna) described in the Rigveda was fought on the banks of the river Parushni (identified with the modern Ravi river in Punjab).

Q.67 [History]

The Bengal Famine of 1769–70 was worsened by

(a) Locust attacks
(b) Rat infestation
(c) High levels of taxation ✓
(d) Smallpox epidemic

Explanation: The Bengal Famine of 1769–70 (Great Bengal Famine) was significantly worsened by the East India Company's policy of maintaining and even increasing land revenue demands despite crop failures, which stripped peasants of resources to purchase food.

Q.68 [History]

Which one of the following is not the work of Ashvaghosha?

(a) Sariputraprakarana
(b) Buddhacharita
(c) Saundarananda
(d) Manjushrimulakalpa ✓

Explanation: Buddhacharita, Saundarananda, and Sariputraprakarana are all attributed to the Buddhist poet Ashvaghosha. Manjushrimulakalpa is a Tantric Buddhist text and is not a work of Ashvaghosha.

Q.69 [Biology]

Fat in human body is stored in

(a) Adipose tissue ✓
(b) Red blood cells
(c) Muscle tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue

Explanation: Adipose tissue (body fat) is the primary site of fat storage in the human body. It consists of adipocytes (fat cells) that store triglycerides as energy reserves and provide insulation.

Q.70 [Biology]

Which one of the following is a feature of cell membrane?

(a) Bilayer of phospholipid molecule in which proteins and cholesterol are embedded ✓
(b) Bilayer of protein molecule in which lipid and cholesterol are embedded
(c) Bilayer of neutral lipid in which proteins and cholesterol are embedded
(d) Bilayer of neutral lipid lacking cholesterol and proteins

Explanation: The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins and cholesterol; cholesterol helps regulate membrane fluidity, while proteins serve transport and signalling functions.

Q.71 [Biology]

Which one of the following parts of human alimentary canal can be of maximum length?

(a) Stomach
(b) Small intestine ✓
(c) Large intestine
(d) Rectum

Explanation: The small intestine is the longest part of the human alimentary canal, averaging about 6–7 metres in length, far exceeding the large intestine (~1.5 m) and other parts.

Q.72 [Current Affairs]

While forming the 'Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity', the member countries launched collective discussions towards future negotiations on four pillars. Which one of the following is not one of those pillars?

(a) Clean energy, decarbonisation and infrastructure
(b) Defence cooperation and intelligence sharing ✓
(c) Supply chain
(d) Tax and anti-corruption

Explanation: The four pillars of IPEF are: (1) Trade, (2) Supply chains, (3) Clean energy, decarbonisation and infrastructure, and (4) Tax and anti-corruption. Defence cooperation and intelligence sharing is not one of the four IPEF pillars.

Q.73 [Current Affairs]

The regions known as Donetsk and Luhansk are sometimes mentioned in the news. They are the separatist regions of

(a) Ethiopia
(b) Sudan
(c) Ukraine ✓
(d) Yemen

Explanation: Donetsk and Luhansk (collectively the Donbas region) are separatist regions in eastern Ukraine that declared independence in 2014 and became the focus of the Russia-Ukraine conflict.

Q.74 [Current Affairs]

Recently which of the following countries were placed in the 'Grey List' of Financial Action Task Force?

(a) Bolivia and Mozambique
(b) Colombia and Ecuador
(c) Iraq and Qatar
(d) Turkey and UAE ✓

Explanation: In 2021, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) added Turkey and the UAE (United Arab Emirates) to its grey list (Jurisdictions Under Increased Monitoring) for strategic deficiencies in their anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing regimes.

Q.75 [Economics]

Which one of the following assists a country through 'Extended Fund Facility', often talked about in news?

(a) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(b) International Monetary Fund ✓
(c) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(d) United Nations Development Programme

Explanation: The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is an IMF lending arrangement designed to help countries address medium-term balance of payments problems arising from macroeconomic and structural issues.

Q.76 [Current Affairs]

The terms 'Ethereum, Solana, Polkadot and Tether', sometimes mentioned in the news, refer to

(a) Cryptocurrencies ✓
(b) Earth Observation Satellites
(c) Hypersonic Cruise Missiles
(d) Virtual Private Network service providers

Explanation: Ethereum, Solana, Polkadot, and Tether are all cryptocurrencies (or crypto tokens/stablecoins). Tether (USDT) is a stablecoin, while Ethereum, Solana, and Polkadot are blockchain platforms with their native tokens.

Q.77 [Polity]

In which one of the following States has the President's Rule been imposed most number of times?

(a) Bihar
(b) Karnataka
(c) Manipur ✓
(d) Punjab

Explanation: Manipur has had President's Rule imposed the most number of times among Indian states, having experienced it over ten times since independence due to its volatile political environment and insurgency issues.

Q.78 [Polity]

The use of 'Electors Photo Identity Cards (EPIC)' by the Election Commission of India was started in which one of the following years?

(a) 1992
(b) 1993 ✓
(c) 1995
(d) 2001

Explanation: The Election Commission of India introduced Electors Photo Identity Cards (EPIC) in 1993, initially launched by the then Chief Election Commissioner T.N. Seshan, though the full rollout took several years.

Q.79 [Polity]

Which one of the following best describes the electoral system to elect the President of India?

(a) Proportional Representation
(b) Proportional Representation and Single Transferable Vote System ✓
(c) First-Past-the-Post System
(d) List System

Explanation: Under Article 55 of the Indian Constitution, the President is elected by Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system, with voting by secret ballot.

Q.80 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is not correct?

(a) Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
(b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend the Money Bill.
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the sole and final power in deciding whether a Bill is a Money Bill or otherwise.
(d) The Council of States has no power to discuss the Money Bill. ✓

Explanation: Statement (d) is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) does have the power to discuss a Money Bill — it can make recommendations within 14 days, though the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept them. Statements (a), (b), and (c) are constitutionally accurate.

Q.81 [Polity]

Which of the following States has/have bicameral legislature? 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Telangana 3. Bihar 4. Uttar Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓

Explanation: All four states — Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh — have bicameral legislatures (both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council). India has 6 states with bicameral legislatures: these four plus Karnataka and Maharashtra.

Q.82 [Polity]

By which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts, was the Article 21A (Right to Education) inserted into the Constitution of India?

(a) 83rd Amendment Act
(b) 84th Amendment Act
(c) 85th Amendment Act
(d) 86th Amendment Act ✓

Explanation: Article 21A, which provides the Right to Free and Compulsory Education for children aged 6–14, was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

Q.83 [Physics]

An object is dropped from a height onto the floor. Which one of the following remains uniform as it falls?

(a) Its acceleration ✓
(b) Its momentum
(c) Its kinetic energy
(d) Its potential energy

Explanation: When an object is in free fall (ignoring air resistance), it experiences a constant gravitational acceleration (g ≈ 9.8 m/s²). Momentum, kinetic energy, and potential energy all change as the object falls.

Q.84 [Physics]

If an object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, its image is

(a) at the focus on the same side
(b) at the focus on the opposite side
(c) coincident with the lens
(d) at infinity ✓

Explanation: When an object is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens, the refracted rays emerge parallel to the principal axis and never converge, so the image is formed at infinity.

Q.85 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements about the aperture of a convex lens is correct?

(a) It is equal to its radius of curvature.
(b) It is equal to its focal length.
(c) It is independent of its radius of curvature. ✓
(d) It is equal to half of its focal length.

Explanation: The aperture of a lens is the effective diameter of its light-collecting area, which is an independent physical dimension of the lens and is not determined by (i.e., is independent of) the radius of curvature.

Q.86 [Physics]

When water is heated from 0°C to 4°C, its density

(a) remains constant
(b) increases ✓
(c) decreases
(d) first increases then decreases to its original value

Explanation: Water exhibits anomalous expansion: when heated from 0°C to 4°C its volume decreases (hydrogen bonds rearrange from ice-like structure), so its density increases. Maximum density of water occurs at 4°C.

Q.87 [Physics]

The acceleration due to gravity at the Earth's surface depends on

(a) its mass only
(b) its radius only
(c) both its mass and radius ✓
(d) either its mass or its radius

Explanation: The acceleration due to gravity g = GM/R², where G is the gravitational constant, M is Earth's mass, and R is Earth's radius. Thus g depends on both the mass and the radius of the Earth.

Q.88 [Geography]

In which one of the following highlands of India can you find temperate forests called 'Sholas'?

(a) Nilgiris ✓
(b) Vindhyas
(c) Satpuras
(d) Himalayas

Explanation: Shola forests are a type of tropical montane forest found in the high altitude grassland-forest mosaic of the Western Ghats, particularly in the Nilgiris, Anamalai, and Palani hills.

Q.89 [Geography]

'Pingos' are associated with which one of the following processes?

(a) Glacial
(b) Peri-glacial ✓
(c) Aeolian
(d) Fluvial

Explanation: Pingos are dome-shaped mounds of earth-covered ice formed in periglacial (permafrost) environments. They result from the freezing and expansion of groundwater or porewater in permafrost regions.

Q.90 [Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Drainage Pattern of River) — List II (Feature) A. Insequent — 1. Whose direction of flow is controlled by the rock structure B. Consequent — 2. No apparent reason why it follows the path it takes C. Subsequent — 3. Flow in the same direction as the consequent stream but at a lower level D. Resequent — 4. Whose course is determined by the original slope of the land

(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 ✓
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation: Insequent streams follow paths with no apparent structural reason (2); Consequent streams flow according to original land slope (4); Subsequent streams follow rock structure (1); Resequent streams flow in the same direction as consequent streams but at a lower level (3). Thus A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3.

Q.91 [Geography]

Which one of the following processes leads to expansion of certain minerals as they take up water, causing additional stress in the rock?

(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Hydration ✓
(c) Oxidation
(d) Carbonation

Explanation: Hydration is the process by which minerals absorb water molecules and expand in volume, causing mechanical stress and facilitating weathering. For example, anhydrite absorbs water and converts to gypsum, expanding in the process.

Q.92 [Geography]

The Indian desert also known as Marusthali is believed to be under the sea during which one of the following eras?

(a) Cenozoic era
(b) Palaeozoic era
(c) Mesozoic era ✓
(d) Archaean and Pre-Cambrian era

Explanation: The Thar Desert (Marusthali) region is geologically believed to have been submerged under the Tethys Sea during the Mesozoic era, as evidenced by marine fossils found in the region.

Q.93 [History]

Which among the following are 'Charvaka Schools of Philosophy'? 1. Dhurtta 2. Nyaya 3. Sushikshita 4. Vaisheshika Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: The Charvaka (Lokayata) school of materialist philosophy had two sub-schools: Dhurtta (crude materialists) and Sushikshita (educated/refined materialists). Nyaya and Vaisheshika are separate orthodox (Astika) schools of Indian philosophy.

Q.94 [History]

During the 8th–14th centuries, in the Sanskrit texts and inscriptions, which of the following terms were used to denote Muslims? 1. Turushka 2. Tajika 3. Parashika 4. Kardamaka Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: In Sanskrit texts and inscriptions of the 8th–14th centuries, Muslims were referred to as Turushka (Turks), Tajika (Arabs/Persians from Tazi), and Parashika (Persians). Kardamaka is not a documented term for Muslims in this context.

Q.95 [History]

In the citadel and lower-town areas of which one of the following Harappan cities, have several large cisterns and reservoirs been found?

(a) Banawali
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Dholavira ✓
(d) Rakhigarhi

Explanation: Dholavira (in Gujarat) is remarkable for its sophisticated water conservation system, including large rock-cut reservoirs and cisterns in both the citadel and lower-town areas, making it unique among Harappan cities.

Q.96 [History]

Consider the following statements about cavalry warfare in India: 1. The iron stirrup made it possible for the armoured warrior to sit firmly on a horse without falling off. 2. The iron stirrup also allowed a cavalry charge with lances held tightly to the body, without the rider being thrown off by the shock of impact. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The iron stirrup was a revolutionary military technology: it provided lateral stability (statement 1) and, by bracing the rider against the saddle, allowed the full force of the horse's momentum to be transferred through the lance during a charge (statement 2).

Q.97 [History]

The British policy towards Afghanistan in the first half of the 19th century aimed at

(a) Strengthening Afghanistan as a buffer against Russia. ✓
(b) Weakening Russian influence in Afghanistan but not promoting a strong Afghanistan either.
(c) Promoting Russian influence in Afghanistan to control insurgent tribal leaders.
(d) Annexing Afghanistan as a directly-controlled British Territory.

Explanation: The British 'Forward Policy' and the First Anglo-Afghan War (1839–42) were driven by the Great Game — the strategic rivalry with Russia. Britain aimed to install a friendly ruler and use Afghanistan as a buffer state to prevent Russian expansion toward British India.

Q.98 [Current Affairs]

Recently, the United Nations agreed to change the name of which one of the following countries?

(a) Algeria
(b) Jordan
(c) Morocco
(d) Turkey ✓

Explanation: In June 2022, Turkey officially requested the United Nations to use 'Türkiye' as the country's name in all languages, replacing the anglicised 'Turkey'. The UN approved this change, making it the most recent such renaming at the time of the exam.

Q.99 [Current Affairs]

The SWIFT (The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) frequently mentioned in news, is essentially a

(a) Global financial intelligence agency
(b) Global terror finance detection system
(c) Global money transfer system ✓
(d) Global stock-market information sharing system

Explanation: SWIFT is a cooperative that provides a secure messaging network enabling financial institutions worldwide to send and receive information about financial transactions. It is essentially a global money transfer/messaging system used for international wire transfers between banks.

Q.100 [Defence]

P-751 (or P-75 India) project refers to manufacture of

(a) Diesel-electric submarines ✓
(b) Nuclear-powered submarines
(c) Aircraft carrier warships
(d) Field guns

Explanation: Project 75 India (P-75I) is a programme by the Indian Navy to construct six advanced diesel-electric submarines domestically under strategic partnership model. It is an extension of the earlier Project 75 under which Scorpène-class submarines were built.

Q.101 [Defence & Security]

The term 'Thermal High Altitude Area Defense', sometimes mentioned in news, refers to

(a) Anti-Missile system ✓
(b) Air-launched cruise missile
(c) Aircraft navigation system
(d) Surface-to-air guided weapon

Explanation: THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defense) is a US Army anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles. The term 'Thermal' in the question is a misprint/extraction noise for 'Terminal'.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.102 [Defence & Security]

With reference to BrahMos missile, consider the following statements: 1. It has a flight range of up to 290 km. 2. It is capable of attaining a speed of 2.8 Mach. 3. Its cruising altitude could be up to 30 km. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Explanation: BrahMos has a range of approximately 290 km (original MTCR-limited version) and a top speed of about 2.8 Mach. Its cruising altitude is typically up to 14 km, not 30 km, so statement 3 is incorrect; statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q.103 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a category under which the President of India nominates Members of Parliament?

(a) Literature
(b) Science
(c) Art
(d) State Service ✓

Explanation: Under Article 80 of the Constitution, the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service. 'State Service' is not one of the specified categories.

Q.104 [Economy & Demographics]

India is still a young country as the median age of its population is

(a) Less than 25 years
(b) Between 25 to 30 years ✓
(c) Between 30 to 35 years
(d) Between 35 to 40 years

Explanation: India's median age is approximately 28-29 years, placing it in the 25-30 years bracket. This reflects India's large youth population and demographic dividend.

Q.105 [International Affairs]

Blue Helmets are

(a) United Nations Peacekeepers ✓
(b) Violent Non-State Actors
(c) Civil Society Organisations
(d) Environmental Organisations

Explanation: 'Blue Helmets' is the popular name for United Nations Peacekeeping Forces, named after the distinctive blue helmets and berets worn by UN peacekeeping personnel deployed in conflict zones.

Q.106 [Economy]

Which one of the following central features is not associated with Capitalist Economy?

(a) There is generalised commodity production — it has market value.
(b) Productive wealth is held predominantly in private hands.
(c) Economic life is organised according to market principles.
(d) Economic organisation is based on planning, a supposedly rational process of resource allocation. ✓

Explanation: Centralized economic planning is a feature of socialist/command economies, not capitalism. Capitalism is characterized by private ownership, market-based allocation, and commodity production — all of which are described in options a, b, and c.

Q.107 [Polity]

Which among the following is not the strength or chief benefit of Bicameralism?

(a) Second chambers check the first chambers and prevent majoritarian rule.
(b) It checks the powers of the executive.
(c) The second chambers can act as a constitutional safeguard.
(d) It often acts as a check on democratic rule, particularly when their members are non-elected or indirectly elected. ✓

Explanation: Option d describes a weakness or criticism of bicameralism, not a benefit — when upper house members are non-elected, they can obstruct democratic processes rather than strengthen them. Options a, b, and c are genuine strengths of bicameralism.

Q.108 [Economy]

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) was established in the year

(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016 ✓
(d) 2017

Explanation: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) was established on 1 October 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, which was enacted in May 2016.

Q.109 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the other term used for 'Focus' in relation with an earthquake?

(a) Hypocentre ✓
(b) Epicentre
(c) Isocentre
(d) Principal Point

Explanation: The 'Focus' of an earthquake, the point within the earth where the earthquake originates, is also called the 'Hypocentre'. The Epicentre is the point on the earth's surface directly above the focus.

Q.110 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a mountain peak of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

(a) Saddle Peak
(b) Mount Thuillier
(c) Lhotse Peak ✓
(d) Mount Diavolo

Explanation: Lhotse Peak is located in the Himalayas on the Nepal-Tibet border, and is the fourth highest mountain in the world. Saddle Peak (North Andaman), Mount Thuillier (Great Nicobar), and Mount Diavolo (Middle Andaman) are all peaks in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Q.111 [Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Cloud Form) — List II (Characteristic) A. Cirrus — 1. Storm clouds B. Cumulus — 2. High fog 'Low Ceiling' C. Nimbostratus — 3. Fair-weather clouds D. Stratus — 4. Entirely of ice particles Code: A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 ✓
(d) 4 1 3 2

Explanation: Cirrus clouds are composed entirely of ice particles (4); Cumulus are fair-weather clouds (3); Nimbostratus are storm/rain clouds (1); Stratus clouds form as high fog with low ceiling (2). Thus A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 matches option c.

Q.112 [Science & Space]

Which one among the following planets has the largest number of known satellites?

(a) Mars
(b) Neptune
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn ✓

Explanation: As of 2022-2023, Saturn holds the record for the most known moons/satellites with over 140 confirmed moons, surpassing Jupiter. At the time of CDS 2022 II, Saturn had recently overtaken Jupiter with the discovery of new moons.

Q.113 [History]

Who among the following usurped power in Kanyakubja after the death of Harshavardhana?

(a) Adityasena
(b) Achalashya ✓
(c) Shashanka
(d) Lalitaditya

Explanation: After the death of Harshavardhana (647 CE), Arunasva (also referred to in some sources as Achalashya/Arjuna) usurped power at Kanyakubja (Kannauj). Shashanka had died earlier and Adityasena was a Gupta ruler of Magadha.

Q.114 [History]

The legend of Prahlad and his father Hiranyakashyap was first set out in the

(a) Bhagwat Purana
(b) Vishnu Purana ✓
(c) Vamana Purana
(d) Agni Purana

Explanation: The legend of Prahlad and Hiranyakashyap, including the Narasimha avatar of Vishnu, is first elaborated in the Vishnu Purana. The Bhagavata Purana also contains this story but the Vishnu Purana is considered the earliest source.

Q.115 [History]

Which one of the following statements on the issue of ownership according to Smriti literature is not correct?

(a) The paternal estate was to be divided equally amongst sons.
(b) Women were allowed to retain the gifts they received on the occasion of their marriage.
(c) The gifts to women on the occasion of their marriage were known as Stridhana.
(d) Stridhana was not inherited by the children without the permission of the husband. ✓

Explanation: According to Smriti literature, Stridhana was inherited by the children of the woman, particularly daughters, and in some schools passed to the woman's heirs. The statement in option d is incorrect as Stridhana could be inherited by children — it was the woman's own property to dispose of.

Q.116 [History]

Who among the following was not a woman labour leader who organised workers in the strikes in the 1920s?

(a) Sarala Devi Chaudhurani ✓
(b) Ushabai Dange
(c) Prabhabati Devi
(d) Anasuya Behn

Explanation: Sarala Devi Chaudhurani was a social reformer, nationalist, and founder of Bharat Stree Mahamandal — she was not a labour leader involved in worker strikes. Anasuya Behn (Sarabhai), Ushabai Dange, and Prabhabati Devi were prominent women labour organizers in the 1920s.

Q.117 [Economy]

Among the following countries, where did the idea of 'Social Market Economy' emerge in 1950s?

(a) Germany ✓
(b) France
(c) United States of America
(d) United Kingdom

Explanation: The concept of 'Social Market Economy' (Soziale Marktwirtschaft) was developed in West Germany in the late 1940s-1950s, primarily by economist Ludwig Erhard and Alfred Müller-Armack, and became the economic model of post-war West Germany.

Q.118 [History]

Who among the following Indian thinkers first spoke of food-for-work programmes to counteract the effects of famines?

(a) Kautilya ✓
(b) Aryabhatta
(c) Chandragomin
(d) Prabhakara

Explanation: Kautilya in his Arthashastra discussed measures to deal with famines, including food-for-work programmes where the state would employ people in public works during famines to provide them sustenance — an early articulation of this concept.

Q.119 [Environment]

The 'Ramsar Convention' relates to which one of the following areas?

(a) Wetland preservation ✓
(b) Promote afforestation
(c) Action plan on climate change
(d) Combat desertification

Explanation: The Ramsar Convention (Convention on Wetlands of International Importance) was signed in Ramsar, Iran in 1971 and is the international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.

Q.120 [Environment]

Which one among the following reports defines Sustainable Development as development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs?

(a) Brundtland Report ✓
(b) United Nations Human Development Report
(c) Agenda-21 of the Rio Earth Summit
(d) OECD Policy Brief (2006)

Explanation: The famous definition of Sustainable Development — 'development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs' — comes from the Brundtland Report (Our Common Future), published in 1987 by the World Commission on Environment and Development.