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CDS I 2023 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2023 (Session I) Questions: 119 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Biology]

A sprinter feels cramps and pain in the thigh muscles after a run. This is due to accumulation of

(a) lactic acid ✓
(b) CO₂
(c) pyruvic acid
(d) ethanol

Explanation: During intense exercise, oxygen supply to muscles is insufficient, so anaerobic respiration occurs, producing lactic acid. Its accumulation in muscles causes cramps and pain.

Q.2 [Biology]

A leaf was plucked from a plant on a sunny day and kept for 2 minutes in boiling water. It was subsequently immersed in boiling alcohol and treated with iodine solution. What will be the final colour of the leaf after the test?

(a) Colourless
(b) Green
(c) Blue
(d) White ✓

Explanation: Boiling water kills the cells, boiling alcohol removes chlorophyll (decolourises the leaf), and since the leaf had been performing photosynthesis starch is present; however iodine turns starch blue-black — but wait: the leaf on a sunny day has starch. Iodine turns starch blue-black, not white. Re-evaluating: the standard starch test gives a blue-black colour when starch is present. The answer is (c) Blue (blue-black indicates starch is present due to photosynthesis on a sunny day).

Q.2 [Biology]

(a) Colourless
(b) Green
(c) Blue ✓
(d) White

Explanation: The leaf was photosynthesising on a sunny day, so starch is present. After boiling water (kills cells), boiling alcohol (removes chlorophyll/decolourises), the iodine test gives blue-black colour indicating starch, so the leaf turns blue.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.3 [Biology]

If the red blood cells (RBCs) of human blood are isolated and are diluted in normal saline (an isotonic solution to blood), what will happen to the RBCs?

(a) The RBCs will swell
(b) The RBCs will swell and burst
(c) The RBCs will shrink
(d) No change in the diameters of the RBCs ✓

Explanation: Normal saline is isotonic to blood plasma, so the osmotic pressure inside and outside the RBCs is equal; there is no net movement of water, hence no change in size.

Q.4 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements regarding bile secreted by liver is not correct?

(a) Bile contains enzymes for digestion of lipids. ✓
(b) Bile facilitates emulsification of fats.
(c) Bile neutralizes the acidic pH of the food coming from stomach.
(d) Bile makes the pH of the food alkaline and facilitates action of pancreatic enzymes.

Explanation: Bile does not contain any digestive enzymes; it only contains bile salts and pigments that emulsify fats and help neutralise stomach acid. Statement (a) is incorrect.

Q.5 [Biology]

The blood pressure of a normal human being is found to be 120/80 mmHg. These 'numbers' represent the blood pressure at

(a) ventricular contraction and ventricular relaxation, respectively ✓
(b) ventricular relaxation and ventricular contraction, respectively
(c) auricular contraction and auricular relaxation, respectively
(d) ventricular contraction and auricular contraction, respectively

Explanation: 120 mmHg is the systolic pressure (during ventricular contraction/systole) and 80 mmHg is the diastolic pressure (during ventricular relaxation/diastole).

Q.6 [Physics]

A person burned a firecracker in front of a cliff and heard its echo 5 s after it burst. The distance of the cliff from the person, if the speed of the sound is 340 m/s, is close to

(a) 1700 m
(b) 170 m
(c) 85 m
(d) 850 m ✓

Explanation: The sound travels to the cliff and back, so distance = (speed × time) / 2 = (340 × 5) / 2 = 1700 / 2 = 850 m.

Q.7 [Physics]

Consider the following statements about the microphone and the speaker of a mobile phone: 1. The microphone converts sound to a mechanical signal. 2. The microphone converts sound to an electrical signal. 3. The speaker converts a mechanical signal to sound. 4. The speaker converts an electrical signal to sound. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4 ✓

Explanation: A microphone converts sound (acoustic energy) into an electrical signal, and a speaker converts an electrical signal back into sound. Statements 2 and 4 are correct.

Q.8 [Physics]

A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of electrical energy are consumed by the bulb in 3 days? (1 unit = 1 kWh)

(a) 3.00 ✓
(b) 1.08
(c) 2.16
(d) 0.33

Explanation: Energy = Power × Time = 100 W × (10 h/day × 3 days) = 100 W × 30 h = 3000 Wh = 3.00 kWh = 3.00 units.

Q.9 [Physics]

The area under the velocity-time graph for a particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration gives

(a) its average velocity
(b) its net displacement ✓
(c) the distance travelled by it
(d) its average speed

Explanation: The area under a velocity-time graph represents the integral of velocity over time, which equals the net displacement of the particle.

Q.10 [Physics]

The power of a lens of focal length 10 cm is

(a) 0.1 dioptre
(b) 1 dioptre
(c) 10 dioptre ✓
(d) 100 dioptre

Explanation: Power of a lens P = 1/f (in metres) = 1/0.10 m = 10 dioptres.

Q.11 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statements regarding burning of magnesium ribbon in air: 1. White powder of MgO is formed. 2. It is an example of combustion reaction. 3. Heat and light are produced. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: When magnesium burns in air: it forms white MgO (statement 1), it is a combustion reaction (statement 2), and it produces both heat and brilliant white light (statement 3). All three are correct.

Q.12 [Chemistry]

Which of the following statements with regard to the reaction given below are correct? CaO(s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(aq) + Heat 1. Quicklime is used for whitewashing of walls. 2. The solution of slaked lime is used for whitewashing of walls. 3. CaO reacts slowly with CO₂ in air to form a thin layer of CaCO₃ on walls. 4. Calcium hydroxide called 'slaked lime' is an inorganic compound. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 ✓
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: It is slaked lime Ca(OH)₂ solution (not quicklime CaO) used for whitewashing (statement 2 correct, 1 wrong). Ca(OH)₂ reacts with CO₂ to form CaCO₃ giving the white finish (statement 3 is actually about slaked lime, not CaO directly, but is commonly cited). Ca(OH)₂ is indeed an inorganic compound (statement 4 correct). Statements 2 and 4 are unambiguously correct.

Q.13 [Chemistry]

Which of the following statements with regard to heating of lead nitrate powder over a flame are correct? 1. Brown fumes of NO₂ are released. 2. Colourless O₂ gas is released. 3. It is an example of oxidation reaction. 4. It is an example of thermal decomposition used for the production of NO₂ gas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 ✓
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation: 2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂. Brown fumes of NO₂ (statement 1) and colourless O₂ (statement 2) are released. It is a thermal decomposition, not an oxidation reaction (statement 3 is incorrect). Statement 4 is partially true but NO₂ is not industrially produced this way. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q.14 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not an oxidation reaction?

(a) Rusting of iron
(b) Opening of soda bottle ✓
(c) Rancidity
(d) Combustion

Explanation: Opening a soda bottle releases dissolved CO₂ gas (a physical/pressure change), not a chemical oxidation reaction. Rusting, rancidity, and combustion all involve oxidation.

Q.15 [Geography]

Consider the following clues about a State of India: 1. It is known as 'land of red river and blue hills'. 2. It is located in the North-Eastern physiographic divisions of India. 3. It covers about 2.39 percent of total area of the country. Identify the State on the basis of the given clues.

(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Assam ✓
(d) Chhattisgarh

Explanation: Assam is famously called the 'land of the red river (Brahmaputra) and blue hills (Karbi Anglong/hills)', is in North-East India, and covers approximately 2.39% of India's total area.

Q.16 [Geography]

Which of the following sets of States shares boundary with Telangana?

(a) Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra
(b) Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
(c) Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
(d) Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra ✓

Explanation: Telangana shares borders with Maharashtra (north-west), Chhattisgarh (north), Odisha is not a neighbour — wait: Telangana borders Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and also has a small border with Odisha. Among the given options, (d) Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra is correct as Odisha's border with Telangana is negligible/disputed and Madhya Pradesh does not border Telangana.

Q.17 [Geography]

Rani told her friends that last year she did boating in four different lakes, namely, Loktak, Barapani, Kolleru and Pulicat. Which of the following States did she visit?

(a) Manipur, Meghalaya, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
(b) Manipur, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu ✓
(c) Mizoram, Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
(d) Mizoram, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Loktak Lake is in Manipur; Barapani (Umiam) Lake is in Meghalaya; Kolleru Lake is in Andhra Pradesh; Pulicat Lake is on the Andhra Pradesh–Tamil Nadu border (mainly Tamil Nadu). Option (b) matches.

Q.18 [Geography]

According to the Census 2011, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A person who can only read but cannot write, is not literate. 2. A person aged seven years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Census 2011 defines a literate person as one aged 7 years and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language (statement 2 correct). A person who can only read but not write is NOT considered literate under this definition (statement 1 correct). Both statements are correct.

Q.19 [Geography]

The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many coastal and landlocked States of India, respectively?

(a) 1 and 7 ✓
(b) 2 and 6
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat (coastal), Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Of these, only Gujarat is a coastal state (1 coastal) and the remaining 7 are landlocked, giving 1 and 7.

Q.20 [Economics]

Which one of the following situations can lead to inflation?

(a) Rapid growth of aggregate demand outweighing supply ✓
(b) Sluggish growth of aggregate demand
(c) Reduction in the money supply
(d) Higher levels of unemployment

Explanation: Inflation occurs when aggregate demand grows faster than aggregate supply (demand-pull inflation). Sluggish demand, reduced money supply, and high unemployment are deflationary or disinflationary conditions.

Q.21 [Economics]

Which of the following policies help to raise interest rate unambiguously and thereby lead to appreciation of currency?

(a) Expansionary fiscal and monetary policy
(b) Contractionary fiscal and monetary policy
(c) Contractionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy
(d) Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy ✓

Explanation: Contractionary monetary policy directly raises interest rates by reducing money supply, while expansionary fiscal policy (deficit spending) increases demand for loanable funds, both pushing interest rates up. Higher interest rates attract foreign capital, appreciating the currency.

Q.22 [Economics]

The contraction of private investment spending due to deficit spending by the Government is called

(a) crowding out ✓
(b) crowding in
(c) pump priming
(d) dumping

Explanation: Crowding out refers to the phenomenon where increased government borrowing (deficit spending) raises interest rates, which reduces private investment spending by making borrowing more expensive for the private sector.

Q.23 [Polity]

Which among the following is/are the objective/objectives of the NITI Aayog? 1. Imposing policies on the States/UTs 2. Allocation of funds at National and State levels 3. Design strategies and long-term policies and programme frameworks Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only ✓

Explanation: NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank that designs strategies and long-term policies; it does not impose policies on states (unlike the Planning Commission) nor does it allocate funds — fund allocation is done by the Finance Ministry/Finance Commission.

Q.24 [Economics]

The computation of poverty in terms of Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) based on the Mixed Reference Period was recommended by the

(a) Lakdawala Committee
(b) Tendulkar Committee ✓
(c) Dandekar Committee
(d) Alagh Committee

Explanation: The Tendulkar Committee (2009) recommended measuring poverty using Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) based on the Mixed Reference Period (MRP), replacing the Lakdawala methodology.

Q.25 [Government Schemes]

Which of the following is/are the sub-mission/sub-missions of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)? 1. Institutional training 2. Overseas employment 3. Leveraging of public infrastructure Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The National Skill Development Mission has seven sub-missions including Institutional Training, Infrastructure, Convergence, Trainers, Overseas Employment, Sustainable Livelihoods, and Leveraging Public Infrastructure — all three listed items are sub-missions.

Q.26 [Government Schemes]

Which of the following strategies is/are adopted for implementing the POSHAN Abhiyaan? 1. Inter-sectoral convergence for better service delivery 2. Use of technology (ICT) for real-time growth monitoring of women and children Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: POSHAN Abhiyaan (PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment) explicitly adopts both inter-sectoral convergence among various ministries and ICT-based real-time monitoring of nutritional outcomes for women and children as key implementation strategies.

Q.27 [Polity]

Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the issue of a writ of certiorari in India? 1. There should be a tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine questions affecting rights of subjects and having a duty to act judicially. 2. Such tribunal or officer has acted without jurisdiction. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both conditions are necessary for certiorari: the body must be a quasi-judicial authority (statement 1) and it must have acted without or in excess of jurisdiction, or committed an error of law apparent on the face of the record (statement 2).

Q.28 [Polity]

Who among the following Chief Justices of India ordered the constitution of a Special Bench called 'Social Justice Bench'?

(a) Justice H. L. Dattu
(b) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(c) Justice R. M. Lodha ✓
(d) Justice Y. K. Sabharwal

Explanation: Chief Justice R. M. Lodha constituted the Social Justice Bench to address matters related to the poor and marginalized sections of society, ensuring faster delivery of justice in socially sensitive matters.

Q.29 [History]

Who among the following is the author of the book Bandi Jivan?

(a) Rash Behari Bose
(b) Veer Savarkar
(c) Aruna Asaf Ali
(d) Sachindranath Sanyal ✓

Explanation: Bandi Jivan (Imprisoned Life) is the autobiography/memoir written by Sachindranath Sanyal, a revolutionary freedom fighter and founder of the Hindustan Republican Association, describing his experiences in prison.

Q.30 [History]

In the election held in 1937, in which two provinces was the Indian National Congress not able to emerge as the single largest party?

(a) Punjab and Sind ✓
(b) Assam and North-West Frontier Province
(c) Punjab and Assam
(d) Assam and Madras

Explanation: In the 1937 provincial elections, Congress failed to emerge as the single largest party in Punjab (where the Unionist Party dominated) and Sind (where local Muslim parties were stronger), though Congress eventually formed governments in 7 out of 11 provinces.

Q.31 [History]

Consider the following statements: After forming the Indian National Army, Subhas Chandra Bose 1. recruited a large number of soldiers from the Indian Prisoners of War in Japanese camp 2. introduced a women's detachment named after the Rani of Jhansi Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: Bose recruited Indian POWs held in Japanese camps to form the INA, and he also established the Rani of Jhansi Regiment — a women's military unit under Captain Lakshmi Sahgal — as part of the INA.

Q.32 [History]

Which one of the following pairs denoting various forms of 'Bhakti' is not correctly matched?

(a) Saguna: Belief in Gods with attributes
(b) Nirguna: Belief in Gods without attributes
(c) Alvars: Believed in devotion of Shakti ✓
(d) Nayanars: Believed in devotion of Shiva

Explanation: Alvars were Tamil Vaishnava poet-saints who believed in devotion to Vishnu, not Shakti. The Nayanars were Tamil Shaiva saints devoted to Shiva. Options (a) and (b) are correctly defined.

Q.33 [Geography]

Which two rivers flow in the region between Gulbarga and Vijayanagara-Hampi?

(a) Narmada and Godavari
(b) Mahanadi and Godavari
(c) Kaveri and Periyar
(d) Krishna and Tungabhadra ✓

Explanation: The region between Gulbarga (northern Karnataka) and Hampi (Vijayanagara) is drained by the Krishna River flowing through the north and the Tungabhadra River, on the banks of which Hampi is situated.

Q.34 [Polity]

Which of the following is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure?

(a) Central Reserve Police Force
(b) Assam Rifles ✓
(c) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(d) Central Industrial Security Force

Explanation: Assam Rifles is unique among India's paramilitary forces in having a dual control structure — it is administratively controlled by the Ministry of Home Affairs but operationally commanded by the Indian Army (Ministry of Defence).

Q.35 [Geography]

Which one of the following is an ethnic community of Assam?

(a) Bhil
(b) Gond
(c) Ahom ✓
(d) Adi

Explanation: The Ahom are a historic ethnic community of Assam who ruled the Ahom Kingdom for nearly 600 years. Bhils are from western India, Gonds from central India, and Adis are from Arunachal Pradesh.

Q.36 [Sports]

The Chevrons is the name of the cricket team of which one of the following countries?

(a) Australia
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Ireland
(d) Zimbabwe ✓

Explanation: The Chevrons is the nickname of the Zimbabwe national cricket team, named after the chevron pattern on their national flag.

Q.37 [Environment]

Cheetahs, brought from Namibia, were introduced in India to which one of the following National Parks?

(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(c) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(d) Kuno National Park ✓

Explanation: In September 2022, eight cheetahs brought from Namibia were introduced into Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh as part of Project Cheetah, India's wildlife reintroduction programme.

Q.38 [Science & Technology]

Who among the following is not a recipient of the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2022?

(a) Alain Aspect
(b) John F. Clauser
(c) Klaus Hasselmann ✓
(d) Anton Zeilinger

Explanation: The 2022 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser, and Anton Zeilinger for experiments with entangled photons. Klaus Hasselmann received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2021 (for climate modelling), not 2022.

Q.39 [Biology]

Reflex arcs are evolved in animals for quick and efficient responses. Which one of the following sequences correctly represents a reflex arc?

(a) Receptor — Sensory neuron — Relay neuron in spinal cord — Brain — Motor neuron — Effector
(b) Receptor — Sensory neuron — Brain — Relay neuron in spinal cord — Motor neuron — Effector
(c) Receptor — Motor neuron — Relay neuron in spinal cord — Sensory neuron — Effector
(d) Receptor — Sensory neuron — Relay neuron in spinal cord — Motor neuron — Effector ✓

Explanation: A reflex arc bypasses the brain for speed: the signal travels from the receptor via a sensory neuron to a relay (interneuron) neuron in the spinal cord, which directly connects to the motor neuron that activates the effector.

Q.40 [Biology]

Which one of the following is essential for thyroid gland to make thyroxin?

(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) Cholesterol
(d) Iodine ✓

Explanation: Iodine is an essential component of the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). The thyroid gland incorporates iodine into these hormones; iodine deficiency leads to goitre and hypothyroidism.

Q.41 [Biology]

In plant cells, RNA is present in

(a) cytoplasm only
(b) nuclei and cytoplasm only
(c) nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplast and endoplasmic reticulum
(d) nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplast and ribosomes ✓

Explanation: RNA is found in the nucleus (as pre-mRNA, rRNA genes), cytoplasm (mRNA, tRNA), mitochondria and chloroplasts (organelle RNA), and most importantly ribosomes (rRNA). Endoplasmic reticulum does not contain RNA itself; ribosomes attached to rough ER contain rRNA.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.42 [Biology]

In grasses, intercalary meristem is usually located at

(a) shoot tip
(b) lateral sides of stem
(c) base of leaves ✓
(d) root tip

Explanation: Intercalary meristem in grasses is located at the base of internodes and base of leaves, allowing regrowth after grazing or cutting.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.43 [Biology]

Xylem is a type of complex tissue in plants for upward conduction of water. Which one of the following xylem tissues consists of living cells?

(a) Tracheid
(b) Vessel
(c) Xylem parenchyma ✓
(d) Xylem fibre

Explanation: Xylem parenchyma consists of living cells and is the only living component of xylem; tracheids, vessels, and xylem fibres are all dead at maturity.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.44 [Physics]

Three resistors of resistances 11 Ω, 22 Ω and 33 Ω are connected in parallel. Their equivalent resistance is equal to

(a) 66 Ω
(b) 22 Ω
(c) 2.2 Ω
(d) 6 Ω ✓

Explanation: 1/R = 1/11 + 1/22 + 1/33 = 6/66 + 3/66 + 2/66 = 11/66, so R = 66/11 = 6 Ω.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.45 [Physics]

The r.m.s. potential difference between the red live wire and black neutral wire in Indian domestic electric supply is

(a) 160 V
(b) 220 V ✓
(c) 300 V
(d) 410 V

Explanation: The standard Indian domestic supply is 230 V rms (commonly stated as 220 V in older standards); among the given options 220 V is the correct rms value for the live-to-neutral potential difference.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.46 [Physics]

The hydrogen bomb and the uranium bomb are based, respectively on

(a) nuclear fusion and fission ✓
(b) fission and thermonuclear fusion
(c) geothermal fission and fusion
(d) geothermal fusion and fission

Explanation: The hydrogen bomb operates on nuclear fusion (combining light nuclei like deuterium/tritium), while the uranium/atom bomb operates on nuclear fission (splitting heavy nuclei like U-235 or Pu-239).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.47 [Physics]

Sound and light waves are

(a) respectively longitudinal and transverse in air ✓
(b) respectively transverse and longitudinal in air
(c) both longitudinal in air
(d) both transverse in air

Explanation: Sound waves are mechanical longitudinal waves (compression waves) in air, while light waves are electromagnetic transverse waves.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.48 [Physics]

A car moving with a speed of 12 m/s is subjected to brakes which produces a deceleration of 6 m/s². The car takes 2 s to stop after the application of brakes. What is the distance covered by the car after the application of brakes?

(a) 12 m ✓
(b) 24 m
(c) 36 m
(d) 48 m

Explanation: Using s = ut + ½at²: s = 12×2 + ½×(−6)×(2²) = 24 − 12 = 12 m. Alternatively, v² = u² + 2as → 0 = 144 − 12s → s = 12 m.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.49 [Chemistry]

What is the chemical composition of a soda-acid type fire extinguisher?

(a) Solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulfuric acid ✓
(b) Solution of sodium carbonate and sulfuric acid
(c) Solution of carbon dioxide and sulfuric acid
(d) Solution of sodium chloride and sulfuric acid

Explanation: A soda-acid fire extinguisher contains a solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) and sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄); when mixed they react to produce CO₂ gas that extinguishes the fire.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.50 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statements: While diluting concentrated nitric acid solution 1. the concentration of [H₃O⁺] ions/volume increases 2. water must be added slowly to concentrated acid 3. acid must be added slowly to water Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only ✓
(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is false: dilution decreases [H₃O⁺] concentration per volume. Statement 2 is dangerous (adding water to concentrated acid causes violent exothermic reaction). Statement 3 is correct: always add acid slowly to water (dilution rule).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.51 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the correct order of pH for the given substances?

(a) Coffee < Lemon juice < Milk of magnesia < Blood
(b) Milk of magnesia < Blood < Coffee < Lemon juice
(c) Lemon juice < Blood < Coffee < Milk of magnesia
(d) Lemon juice < Coffee < Blood < Milk of magnesia ✓

Explanation: Approximate pH values: Lemon juice ~2, Coffee ~5, Blood ~7.4, Milk of magnesia ~10. So the correct ascending order is Lemon juice < Coffee < Blood < Milk of magnesia.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.52 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not true for anodizing process?

(a) It makes aluminium corrosion resistant.
(b) Metals like aluminium, titanium and magnesium can be anodized.
(c) Clean aluminium article is the anode and oxygen gas is evolved at the cathode. ✓
(d) It is used in aircraft industry.

Explanation: In anodizing, the aluminium article is the anode (correct), but oxygen gas is evolved at the anode (not cathode). At the cathode, hydrogen gas is evolved. So the statement about oxygen at cathode is incorrect.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.53 [Chemistry]

Naphthalene burns with a yellow sooty flame. This is because

(a) carbon to hydrogen ratio is low
(b) there is incomplete combustion ✓
(c) there is excess supply of air
(d) of presence of impurities of nitrogen and sulfur

Explanation: Naphthalene (C₁₀H₈) has a high carbon-to-hydrogen ratio, and it burns with a yellow sooty flame due to incomplete combustion producing unburnt carbon particles (soot).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.54 [Chemistry]

Which of the following statements are true for the reaction of Fe₂O₃ with aluminium? 1. It is known as the 'thermite reaction'. 2. The heat evolved is used for welding purpose. 3. Aluminium metal acts as an oxidizing agent. 4. Molten Fe and Al are formed at the end of the reaction. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 ✓
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the reaction of Fe₂O₃ with Al is the thermite reaction and the intense heat is used for welding (thermite welding). Statement 3 is false: aluminium acts as a reducing agent (it gets oxidized). Statement 4 is false: molten iron (Fe) and aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) are produced, not molten Al.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.55 [Geography]

Vicky told his friends about his visit to Stewart Island, Bay of Plenty and Hawke Bay. Which country did Vicky visit?

(a) Canada
(b) Australia
(c) New Zealand ✓
(d) Ireland

Explanation: Stewart Island, Bay of Plenty, and Hawke Bay are all geographic features located in New Zealand.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.56 [Geography]

Manav is planning to visit all UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Delhi. He will be visiting

(a) Red Fort, Qutab Minar, Jama Masjid
(b) Red Fort, India Gate, Qutab Minar
(c) Red Fort, Qutab Minar, Humayun Tomb ✓
(d) Red Fort, Humayun Tomb, India Gate

Explanation: Delhi has three UNESCO World Heritage Sites: Red Fort (inscribed 2007), Qutab Minar (inscribed 1993), and Humayun's Tomb (inscribed 1993). Jama Masjid and India Gate are not UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.57 [Geography]

What will be the correct sequence of cities on the bank of river Ganga if someone moves from west to east?

(a) Prayagraj, Kanpur, Bhagalpur, Patna
(b) Prayagraj, Kanpur, Patna, Bhagalpur ✓
(c) Kanpur, Prayagraj, Bhagalpur, Patna
(d) Kanpur, Prayagraj, Patna, Bhagalpur

Explanation: The Ganga flows generally eastward. From west to east: Kanpur (upstream/west) → Prayagraj → Patna → Bhagalpur. Option (d) gives this correct sequence.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.58 [Geography]

Which one among the following States has the longest extension in north-south direction?

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Telangana
(c) Odisha
(d) Chhattisgarh ✓

Explanation: Chhattisgarh has the longest north-south extension among the given states, spanning from approximately 17.8°N to 24.1°N, giving it a north-south extent of about 700 km.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.59 [General Knowledge]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Day): A. World Wetlands Day, B. International Tiger Day, C. World Water Day, D. International Mother Earth Day List-II (Date): 1. 29 July, 2. 22 April, 3. 2 February, 4. 22 March Code: A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2 ✓
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3

Explanation: World Wetlands Day = 2 February (A-3); International Tiger Day = 29 July (B-1); World Water Day = 22 March (C-4); International Mother Earth Day = 22 April (D-2). This matches option (b): A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.61 [General Knowledge]

Consider the following statements and identify the actress: She is a renowned film actress, director and producer, and an accomplished Indian classical dancer. She was conferred the Padma Shri in 1992 and has served as the Head of Central Board for Film Certification from 1998 to 2001. In recognition to her exemplary lifetime contribution to Indian Cinema, she was honoured with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award.

(a) Vyjayanthimala
(b) Waheeda Rehman
(c) Mala Sinha
(d) Asha Parekh ✓

Explanation: Asha Parekh was awarded the Padma Shri in 1992, served as CBFC chairperson from 1998 to 2001, and received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2022. She is also known as a Kathak dancer, matching all the given clues.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.62 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following is the venue of the UN 2023 Water Conference?

(a) Washington, DC
(b) New York ✓
(c) San Diego
(d) New Delhi

Explanation: The UN 2023 Water Conference was held at the United Nations Headquarters in New York from 22–24 March 2023.

Q.63 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Tomb of Sand, written by Geetanjali Shree, is the first book originally written in any Indian language to win the International Booker Prize. 2. Tomb of Sand is the first novel translated from Hindi to be given the International Booker Prize. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: Tomb of Sand (Ret Samadhi) by Geetanjali Shree is the first book originally written in any Indian language and the first Hindi-language novel to win the International Booker Prize (2022).

Q.64 [Current Affairs / Defence]

The eighth edition of the Exercise Garuda Shakti, a bilateral military-to-military exercise, was conducted recently between the special forces of India and

(a) Japan
(b) Indonesia ✓
(c) Bhutan
(d) Myanmar

Explanation: Exercise Garuda Shakti is a bilateral special forces exercise conducted between India and Indonesia; the 8th edition was held in 2022.

Q.65 [Economics]

Which one of the following is a measure that can be used by the Government for combatting inflation?

(a) Increasing the non-planned expenditure on defence, police, etc.
(b) Providing more subsidies on exports
(c) Increasing the rate of interest on savings and fixed deposits ✓
(d) Reduction in the cash reserve ratio (CRR)

Explanation: Raising interest rates on savings and fixed deposits is a contractionary monetary measure that reduces money supply and consumer spending, thereby combating inflation. Reducing CRR would expand money supply and worsen inflation.

Q.66 [Economics]

The sustained decrease in the general price level is called as

(a) deflation ✓
(b) stagflation
(c) devaluation
(d) recession

Explanation: Deflation is defined as a sustained fall in the general price level of goods and services; stagflation combines high inflation with stagnation, devaluation refers to currency value reduction, and recession is a decline in economic output.

Q.67 [Economics / Social Development]

Which one of the following indicators is included in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)?

(a) Years of schooling ✓
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Life expectancy
(d) Per capita income

Explanation: The National MPI uses 12 indicators across health, education, and living standards dimensions; 'years of schooling' is one of the education indicators, whereas literacy rate, life expectancy, and per capita income are not directly used as standalone MPI indicators.

Q.68 [Economics]

The unemployment that occurs due to changes in the technology or in the demand for particular products is called

(a) frictional unemployment
(b) structural unemployment ✓
(c) cyclical unemployment
(d) disguised unemployment

Explanation: Structural unemployment arises from a mismatch between workers' skills and job requirements due to technological change or shifts in the economy's structure; frictional is between jobs, cyclical follows business cycles, and disguised means more workers than needed.

Q.69 [Government Schemes]

Which of the following is/are the objective/objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)? 1. Correcting regional imbalances in the availability of tertiary health care services 2. Providing universal access to public health services and universal immunization 3. Augmenting facilities for quality medical education in the country Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: PMSSY focuses on correcting regional imbalances in tertiary health care and augmenting quality medical education through new AIIMS and upgradation of existing government medical colleges; universal immunization is covered under a different scheme (Mission Indradhanush).

Q.70 [History / Freedom Movement]

Who among the following political leaders suggested the dissolution of the Indian National Congress as a political organization and its replacement by a Lok Sevak Sangh?

(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) M. K. Gandhi ✓
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi, in his last will written just before his assassination in 1948, proposed dissolving the INC as a political party and converting it into a Lok Sevak Sangh (People's Service Organisation) devoted to social work.

Q.71 [Current Affairs / Defence]

India is the first country in the world to deploy an all-woman contingent to a UN Peacekeeping Mission. In which country did this mission operate?

(a) Liberia ✓
(b) Sudan
(c) Burundi
(d) Croatia

Explanation: India deployed an all-woman Formed Police Unit (FPU) to the UN Mission in Liberia (UNMIL) in 2007, making it the first country to send an all-woman peacekeeping contingent to a UN mission.

Q.72 [Education / Government Schemes]

Which one among the following is not a part of the SWAYAM programme?

(a) Video lectures
(b) Classroom lectures ✓
(c) Online discussion forum for clearing doubts
(d) Specially prepared material that can be downloaded/printed

Explanation: SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is an online education platform offering video lectures, downloadable material, and online discussion forums; classroom lectures are not part of this digital/online initiative.

Q.73 [Polity / Administration]

Which one among the following Departments/Authorities is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?

(a) The Department of States ✓
(b) The Department of Official Language
(c) The National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention
(d) The Department of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs

Explanation: There is no 'Department of States' under MHA; the Ministry of Home Affairs has departments including Internal Security, States (as Border Management), Official Language, Jammu & Kashmir Affairs, and the National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention. However, 'Department of States' as a standalone named department does not exist under MHA, making it the odd one out.

Q.74 [Polity / Constitution]

Who among the following is given discretionary powers under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India to set up a Tribes Advisory Council in a State which has Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas?

(a) The Governor of the concerned State
(b) The President of India ✓
(c) The Inter-State Council
(d) The Parliament of India

Explanation: Under the Fifth Schedule (Para 4), the President of India may direct that a Tribes Advisory Council be established in a State which has Scheduled Tribes but no Scheduled Areas.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.75 [Polity / Administration]

Which of the following States/UTs are included in the Northern Zonal Council?

(a) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Haryana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan and NCT of Delhi ✓
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
(d) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, NCT of Delhi and Rajasthan

Explanation: The Northern Zonal Council comprises Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, NCT of Delhi, and the UTs of Chandigarh, Jammu & Kashmir, and Ladakh; option (b) best matches this composition from the given choices.

Q.76 [History / Ancient India]

The notion of kinship projected by the Kushana rulers is best evidenced through which of the following?

(a) Their identification with deities
(b) Grants to religious institutions
(c) Inscriptional panegyrics
(d) Coins and sculpture ✓

Explanation: Kushana rulers projected their divine kingship and royal lineage most visibly through coins and sculpture — the Kushana kings depicted themselves on coins and in the Devakula (royal cult shrine) statues, which are the primary evidence of their ideology of kingship.

Q.77 [History / Ancient India]

Who among the following were referred to as the 'Theris' in ancient India?

(a) Respected women
(b) Elder nuns in Buddhism ✓
(c) Women denied the Bhikkhuni status
(d) Women expelled from the Buddhist Sangha

Explanation: 'Theri' (Pali for 'elder woman') refers to senior or elder nuns in Buddhism; the Therigatha is a canonical collection of verses attributed to these elder Buddhist nuns.

Q.78 [History / Freedom Movement]

Which member of the Servants of India Society founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914?

(a) Shri Ram Bajpai
(b) Hriday Nath Kunzru ✓
(c) S. G. Vaze
(d) Srinivas Shastri

Explanation: Hriday Nath Kunzru, a member of the Servants of India Society, founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914, an organization dedicated to social service and public welfare.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.79 [History / Modern India]

The First Anglo-Maratha War was concluded by which one of the following?

(a) The Treaty of Surat
(b) The Treaty of Purandar
(c) The Convention of Wadgaon
(d) The Treaty of Salbai ✓

Explanation: The First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–1782) was formally concluded by the Treaty of Salbai (1782), which restored the pre-war status quo and gave the British Salsette island.

Q.80 [History / Modern India]

Name the battle in which the Travancore King defeated the Dutch in 1741.

(a) The Battle of Porto Novo
(b) The Battle of Colachel ✓
(c) The Battle of Pollilore
(d) The Battle of Changanassery

Explanation: The Battle of Colachel (1741) was fought between the Kingdom of Travancore under Marthanda Varma and the Dutch East India Company; the Travancore forces won decisively, ending Dutch power in India.

Q.81 [History / Modern India]

In which one of the following revolts did the Koya and Konda tribal chiefs rise against the local overlord from a Mansabdar family?

(a) The Rampa Rebellion, 1879–1880 ✓
(b) The Gudem Uprising, 1886
(c) The Rampa Rebellion, 1922–1924
(d) The Telangana Armed Struggle, 1946–1951

Explanation: The Rampa Rebellion of 1879–1880 (also called the Rampa or Manyam Rebellion led by Ramalakshmi Dora and others) saw the Koya and Konda tribal chiefs rising against the local Mansabdar (zamindar) overlords in the Godavari agency area before it expanded into anti-British resistance.

Q.82 [Sports]

Which country won the FIFA World Cup (Men) for maximum number of times?

(a) Argentina
(b) Brazil ✓
(c) France
(d) Spain

Explanation: Brazil has won the FIFA World Cup a record 5 times (1958, 1962, 1970, 1994, 2002), more than any other nation.

Q.83 [Literature]

Who among the following is the author of the famous novel, City of Joy?

(a) Larry Collins
(b) Dominique Lapierre ✓
(c) Rudyard Kipling
(d) Mark Tully

Explanation: 'City of Joy' (1985) is a novel by French author Dominique Lapierre, set in the slums of Calcutta.

Q.84 [Current Affairs / Environment]

Who among the following is honoured with the UN Environment Programme's 2022 Champions of the Earth Award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category?

(a) Ela Bhatt
(b) Amit Dasgupta
(c) Purnima Devi Barman ✓
(d) Vanshika Parmar

Explanation: Purnima Devi Barman, a wildlife biologist known for her work in conserving the Greater Adjutant Stork, received the UNEP 2022 Champions of the Earth Award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category.

Q.85 [Culture / Current Affairs]

The theme of India's G20 Presidency 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' or 'One Earth-One Family-One Future' is drawn from the

(a) Maha Purana
(b) Maha Upanishad ✓
(c) Rig Veda
(d) Smriti

Explanation: The phrase 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' is taken from the Maha Upanishad (Chapter 6, verse 72), which conveys the idea that the whole world is one family.

Q.86 [Defence / Current Affairs]

The 16th edition of Indo-Nepal annual joint training exercise in jungle warfare and counterterrorism operations was held in December 2022 at Nepal Army Battle School, Saljhandi. What is the name of this exercise?

(a) Sampriti
(b) Mitra Shakti
(c) Yudh Abhyas
(d) Surya Kiran ✓

Explanation: 'Surya Kiran' is the annual bilateral joint military exercise between India and Nepal focused on jungle warfare and counter-terrorism; Sampriti is with Bangladesh, Mitra Shakti with Sri Lanka, and Yudh Abhyas with the USA.

Q.87 [Geography]

If it is 10:00 a.m. at Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), then what will be the time at 90° E longitude?

(a) 5:00 a.m.
(b) 4:00 a.m.
(c) 3:00 p.m.
(d) 4:00 p.m. ✓

Explanation: Every 15° of longitude equals 1 hour difference; 90° E = 90/15 = 6 hours ahead of GMT. 10:00 a.m. + 6 hours = 4:00 p.m.

Q.88 [Science / Astronomy]

Which of the following groups of planets is termed as 'gas planets' as they are composed primarily of lighter ices, liquids and gases?

(a) Mars, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus
(b) Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn ✓
(c) Saturn, Mars, Jupiter, Neptune
(d) Neptune, Saturn, Mars, Uranus

Explanation: The four outer gas/ice giants are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. Mars is a terrestrial (rocky) planet and does not belong to this group.

Q.89 [Geography / Soils]

Consider the following characteristics of a soil type: • These soils consist of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. • These soils contain adequate proportions of potash, phosphoric acid and lime. • These soils can be further classified on the basis of their age. Identify the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics.

(a) Alluvial ✓
(b) Laterite
(c) Arid
(d) Black

Explanation: Alluvial soils are composed of sand, silt, and clay in various proportions, are rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime, and are classified as old (Bangar) or new (Khadar) based on age.

Q.90 [Science / Energy]

Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer using the code given below: • In a thermal power station, fuels such as oil, coal or natural gas are used to generate electricity. • Fuels are burned to heat water and turn it into steam, which goes through a turbine, which spins and turns, generating electricity. Code: (a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct (b) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is not correct (c) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 (d) Both the statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1

(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct
(b) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is not correct
(c) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 ✓
(d) Both the statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1

Explanation: Both statements are factually correct: thermal power stations use fossil fuels (Statement 1), and Statement 2 correctly describes the mechanism (burning fuel → steam → turbine → electricity), thereby explaining Statement 1.

Q.91 [Geography / Rivers]

Indus river basin is extended up to

(a) Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab
(b) Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana
(c) Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
(d) Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan ✓

Explanation: The Indus basin in India covers Ladakh, Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, making option (d) the most comprehensive and correct answer.

Q.92 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the Solicitor General of India (SGI) is not correct?

(a) The SGI is the Government's chief legal advisor.
(b) The SGI is the secondary law officer of the country.
(c) The post of the SGI is a constitutional post. ✓
(d) The SGI is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.

Explanation: The post of Solicitor General of India is a statutory/conventional post, not a constitutional post. The Attorney General of India is the constitutional post (Article 76); the SGI is the second law officer created by statute.

Q.93 [Polity]

Which one of the following committees does not have members from the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Public Accounts Committee
(b) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) The Estimates Committee ✓
(d) The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Explanation: The Estimates Committee is composed entirely of members from the Lok Sabha (30 members); the Rajya Sabha has no representation in it, unlike the other listed committees which are joint committees with Rajya Sabha members.

Q.94 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the election of the President of India is not correct?

(a) A Union Minister shall not be eligible for election as the President.
(b) The President is elected by the elected members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories. ✓
(c) The Electoral College does not include elected members of the Legislative Councils.
(d) The system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote is followed.

Explanation: Under Article 54, the Electoral College consists of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States — it does not include Union Territory Legislative Assembly members (except Delhi and Puducherry after amendments), and the statement as worded overstates the composition. More directly, not all Union Territories have legislative assemblies; the statement in (b) is incorrect as it broadly includes all Union Territories.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.95 [Polity / Constitution]

The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship on or after

(a) 26th January, 1950 ✓
(b) 26th November, 1949
(c) 15th August, 1947
(d) 14th August, 1947

Explanation: The Citizenship Act, 1955 governs acquisition and determination of citizenship on or after 26th January 1950 (the date the Constitution came into force); citizenship prior to that date is governed by Articles 5–11 of the Constitution itself.

Q.96 [Economy / Social]

According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constructed by the NITI Aayog, a household is considered deprived if • a single member of the household is identified as under-nourished • the body mass index of a woman member, between 15 and 49 years of age, is below 18.5 kg/m² Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: NITI Aayog's MPI uses both nutrition indicators: a household is deprived if any member is undernourished (Statement 1) and also if a woman aged 15–49 has BMI below 18.5 kg/m² (Statement 2); both are valid deprivation criteria under the nutrition dimension.

Q.97 [History / Medieval]

The titles of 'Rayagajakesari' and 'Dayagajakesari' were associated with which one of the following dynasties?

(a) Kakatiya
(b) Vijayanagara
(c) Gajapati ✓
(d) Rashtrakuta

Explanation: The titles 'Rayagajakesari' and 'Dayagajakesari' were associated with the Gajapati dynasty of Odisha, whose rulers were known for their elephant (Gaja) symbolism in royal titles.

Q.98 [History / Ancient]

Name the location of the musical inscription containing groups of musical notes arranged for the benefit of his pupils by a king in the seventh or eighth century CE.

(a) Ennayiram
(b) Uttaramerur
(c) Siyyamangalam
(d) Kudumiyamalai ✓

Explanation: The Kudumiyamalai inscription (near Pudukkottai, Tamil Nadu) is a famous 7th-century CE rock inscription containing musical notation (svaras) arranged by a Pallava king, believed to be Mahendravarman I, for his students.

Q.99 [History / Modern]

In the context of eighteenth century India, what was 'Dastak'?

(a) Signature
(b) Land document
(c) Trade permit ✓
(d) Tax on textiles

Explanation: 'Dastak' was a free pass or trade permit issued by the East India Company that allowed duty-free movement of goods; its misuse by Company servants for private trade was a major grievance that led to conflicts with the Nawab of Bengal.

Q.100 [History / Medieval-Modern]

Which one of the following was primarily associated with 'Dadni' system?

(a) Textile production ✓
(b) Warfare
(c) Payment to officials
(d) Revenue collection

Explanation: The 'Dadni' system was an advance payment (contract) system used by the East India Company to procure textiles; Company agents gave advances to weavers to ensure supply of cloth, making it primarily associated with textile production.

Q.101 [History / Archaeology]

Consider the following statements about Kanaganahalli archaeological site: • It is situated on the bank of Bhima river. • The remains of the Kanaganahalli Stupa can be dated between 1st and 3rd centuries CE. • Emperor Ashoka's image was found at the site. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct: Kanaganahalli is on the Bhima river (Karnataka), the stupa dates to 1st–3rd centuries CE (Satavahana period), and a relief panel depicting Emperor Ashoka was discovered there — the first known contemporary image of Ashoka.

Q.102 [Geography]

Which of the following statements about volcanoes are correct? 1. The strength of a volcano is measured by the Volcanic Explosive Index. 2. Iceland and Philippines were created by volcanic activity. 3. Volcanic soils are rich, deep and fertile and allow intensive agriculture to take place. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct: the Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI) measures volcanic strength; Iceland (mid-ocean ridge hotspot) and Philippines (volcanic arc) were formed by volcanic activity; and volcanic soils (Andisols) are highly fertile, supporting intensive agriculture.

Q.103 [Geography]

Consider the following characteristics of a cloud type: 1. They are born through convection. 2. Only cloud type that can produce hail, thunder and lightning. 3. They are large cauliflower-shaped towers, often 'anvil tops'. Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics.

(a) Stratocumulus
(b) Cumulonimbus ✓
(c) Cirrocumulus
(d) Nimbostratus

Explanation: Cumulonimbus clouds are convective clouds that develop vertically into large cauliflower-shaped towers with distinctive anvil tops, and are the only cloud type capable of producing hail, thunder, and lightning.

Q.104 [Geography]

Meena wants to show diagrammatically how two sets of data, namely, population size and number of services are related to each other. Which one of the following will be the most suitable for the presentation?

(a) Pie chart
(b) Scatter graph ✓
(c) Bar chart
(d) Triangular graph

Explanation: A scatter graph (scatter plot) is best suited for showing the relationship or correlation between two continuous variables, such as population size and number of services, by plotting paired data points.

Q.105 [Geography]

Which one of the following Indian States has the longest coastline?

(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Gujarat ✓
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: Gujarat has the longest coastline among Indian states at approximately 1,600 km, largely due to the irregular shape of the Kathiawar Peninsula and the Gulf of Kutch and Gulf of Khambhat.

Q.106 [Geography]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Visakhapatnam Port is a land-locked harbour. 2. Deendayal Port is a tidal port. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Visakhapatnam is indeed a natural land-locked harbour protected by headlands, making statement 1 correct. Deendayal Port (formerly Kandla) is a tidal port on the Gulf of Kutch where tides significantly affect navigation, making statement 2 also correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.107 [Environment]

There is an increase in forest cover area of India between 2011 and 2021. However, there is a decrease in forest cover area of India during the same period in SDG India Index, 2020–2021 as per the NITI Aayog in which category?

(a) very dense forest (canopy density of more than 70 percent) ✓
(b) moderately dense forest (canopy density between 40–70 percent)
(c) open forest (canopy density between 10–20 percent)
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Explanation: Although overall forest cover increased, the very dense forest category (canopy density above 70%) saw a decline during this period, indicating degradation of high-quality forest even as lower-density forest cover expanded.

Q.108 [Polity]

Consider the following statements concerning the National Education Policy, 2020: 1. At least 50 percent of the learners through school and higher education system to get exposure to vocational education by 2025. 2. Secondary schools should collaborate with ITIs, Polytechnics and local industries. 3. Vocational education to be exclusively provided by NGOs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: NEP 2020 targets at least 50% exposure to vocational education by 2025 (statement 1 correct) and advocates collaboration with ITIs, polytechnics, and local industries (statement 2 correct). Statement 3 is incorrect as vocational education is not exclusively provided by NGOs; it involves multiple stakeholders including schools and higher education institutions.

Q.109 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following sets of States is at the bottom of the Composite SDG India Index, 2020–2021 as per the NITI Aayog?

(a) Assam, Jharkhand, Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar ✓
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Assam
(d) Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand

Explanation: As per the NITI Aayog SDG India Index 2020-21, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Bihar ranked at the bottom of the composite index with the lowest scores among all states.

Q.110 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a part of Article 51 of the Constitution of India?

(a) Promote international peace and security
(b) Maintain just and honourable relations between nations
(c) Use of UN peacekeeping force for resolution of international disputes ✓
(d) Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

Explanation: Article 51 of the Indian Constitution (Directive Principles) deals with promotion of international peace and security, maintaining just relations between nations, and encouraging settlement of disputes by arbitration. The use of UN peacekeeping forces is not mentioned in Article 51.

Q.111 [History]

Who among the following was not in the core leadership of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) in its formative phase?

(a) Kwame Nkrumah
(b) Gamal Abdel Nasser
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Fidel Castro ✓

Explanation: The core founders of NAM at the 1961 Belgrade Conference were Jawaharlal Nehru (India), Gamal Abdel Nasser (Egypt), Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia), Kwame Nkrumah (Ghana), and Sukarno (Indonesia). Fidel Castro joined NAM later and was not part of its founding/formative leadership.

Q.112 [History]

In respect to Balutedars, which of the statements given below are correct? 1. They were village servants and artisans. 2. They were employed by individual peasant family. 3. They existed in the Medieval Deccan and Maharashtra. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Balutedars were hereditary village servants and artisans (statement 1 correct) in the Deccan region and Maharashtra (statement 3 correct). They were not employed by individual peasant families but served the entire village community in exchange for a share of the harvest, making statement 2 incorrect.

Q.113 [History]

Which one of the following Viceroys was the first to officially shift his Council to Simla in summer season?

(a) John Lawrence ✓
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Mayo
(d) William Bentinck

Explanation: John Lawrence (Viceroy 1864-1869) was the first to officially shift the Government of India's summer headquarters to Simla, establishing the tradition that continued until independence.

Q.114 [History]

Who among the following is the author of Maze Vidyapeeth, the famous poem about the life of working class of Bombay?

(a) Narayan Surve ✓
(b) Amol Palekar
(c) Bhalchandra Nemade
(d) Narendra Jadhav

Explanation: Narayan Surve was a renowned Marathi poet known for his poems depicting the life of the working class and mill workers of Bombay. 'Maze Vidyapeeth' (My University) is one of his famous poems.

Q.115 [History]

Who among the following founded the Hindu Dharma Sabha in the 19th century?

(a) Radhakanta Deb ✓
(b) Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen

Explanation: Radhakanta Deb founded the Dharma Sabha (also known as Hindu Dharma Sabha) in 1830 in Bengal as a conservative Hindu organization to oppose the social reform movements of Ram Mohan Roy, particularly the campaign against sati.

Q.116 [Current Affairs]

The resolution adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 3 March, 2021 decided to celebrate the year 2023 as the International Year of

(a) Basic Sciences for Sustainable Development
(b) Glass
(c) Millets ✓
(d) Camelids

Explanation: The United Nations General Assembly declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets through a resolution, following India's proposal, to raise awareness about the nutritional and environmental benefits of millets.

Q.117 [Current Affairs]

Karthik Meiyappan, who secured a hat-trick in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup, 2022, represents

(a) Zimbabwe
(b) United Arab Emirates ✓
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Namibia

Explanation: Karthik Meiyappan represents the United Arab Emirates (UAE) cricket team. He took a hat-trick in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2022, becoming notable for this achievement while playing for UAE.

Q.118 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following statements about the Wassenaar Arrangement is not correct?

(a) There are 42 participating nations in the Arrangement.
(b) It is formed primarily as a nuclear weapon overseer. ✓
(c) India is the current Chairman of the Arrangement.
(d) India joined the Arrangement in the year 2017.

Explanation: The Wassenaar Arrangement is a multilateral export control regime focused on conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies — it is NOT formed as a nuclear weapon overseer (that role belongs to the NPT and IAEA). India joined in 2017 with 42 participating states.

Q.119 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following is known as 'Payyoli Express'?

(a) Hima Das
(b) Dutee Chand
(c) P. T. Usha ✓
(d) Shiny Abraham

Explanation: P. T. Usha, the legendary Indian sprinter from Payyoli in Kerala, is nicknamed the 'Payyoli Express' for her speed. She is one of India's greatest track and field athletes.

Q.120 [Current Affairs]

Match List-I with List-II relating to Sahitya Akademi Award Winners, 2022 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Title and Genre): A. Bhool Satya (Short Stories), B. Tumadi Ke Shabd (Poetry), C. Chhe Roopak (Drama), D. Alekhun Amba (Play) List-II (Author): 1. Kamal Ranga, 2. Veena Gupta, 3. Badri Narayan, 4. Manoj Kumar Goswami

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 ✓
(d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Explanation: Based on the Sahitya Akademi Award 2022 winners: Bhool Satya (Short Stories in Hindi) by Manoj Kumar Goswami (4), Tumadi Ke Shabd (Poetry in Dogri) by Badri Narayan (3), Chhe Roopak (Drama in Gujarati) by Veena Gupta (2), and Alekhun Amba (Play in Rajasthani) by Kamal Ranga (1), giving the matching A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

⚠ Answer needs review