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CDS II 2023 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2023 (Session II) Questions: 117 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Physics]

A person can see near objects clearly through his eyes but cannot see distant objects clearly. The possible reason(s) for this defect could be: 1. Excessive curvature of the eye lens. 2. The eye-ball has become too small. 3. The focal length of the eye lens is too large. 4. Elongation of the eye-ball. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only ✓
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The defect described is myopia (short-sightedness). It occurs when the image forms in front of the retina, caused by excessive curvature of the eye lens (shorter focal length) or elongation of the eye-ball. A too-small eye-ball would cause hypermetropia, and a too-large focal length would also cause hypermetropia.

Q.2 [Physics]

Consider a journey by a car represented by the graph given below in three parts A, B and C. The speed of the car in these parts is va, vb and vc, respectively. Which one of the following is correct in this case?

(a) va < vb < vc
(b) vb > va > vc ✓
(c) va = vb = vc
(d) va > vb; va > vc

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review. However, in a typical distance-time graph for such problems, the slope (speed) of part B is the steepest, making vb the greatest, and part C has the least slope. Answer selected based on standard CDS question patterns.

Q.3 [Physics]

A concave mirror of radius of curvature 50 cm is used to form an image of an object kept at a distance of 25 cm from the mirror on its principal axis. What will be the position of the image from the mirror?

(a) At infinity ✓
(b) At 50 cm
(c) At 25 cm
(d) At 75 cm

Explanation: The focal length f = R/2 = 25 cm. Using the mirror formula 1/v + 1/u = 1/f with u = -25 cm and f = -25 cm: 1/v = 1/f - 1/u = -1/25 - (-1/25) = 0, so v = infinity. The object is placed at the focus, so the image forms at infinity.

Q.4 [Physics]

If the Moon is brought closer to the Earth such that its distance from the Earth becomes half of the original distance, then the gravitational force of attraction between the Earth and the Moon would:

(a) reduce to half of its original value.
(b) increase to two times of its original value.
(c) remain the same as the original value.
(d) increase to four times of its original value. ✓

Explanation: By Newton's law of gravitation, F = Gm1m2/r². If r becomes r/2, then F becomes Gm1m2/(r/2)² = 4Gm1m2/r², which is four times the original force.

Q.5 [Physics]

Sonic boom is produced when a source of sound travels at a speed:

(a) greater than the speed of sound. ✓
(b) greater than the speed of light.
(c) lesser than the speed of sound.
(d) equal to the speed of sound.

Explanation: A sonic boom is the loud sound resulting from the shock wave created when an object travels through the air faster than the speed of sound (supersonic speed). The overlapping pressure waves form a cone-shaped shock wave.

Q.6 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following are the correct symbols for the elements gold, tin and lead, respectively?

(a) Ga, Sb, Pb
(b) At, Sn, Le
(c) Au, Sn, Pb ✓
(d) Au, Sb, Pb

Explanation: Gold is Au (from Latin Aurum), Tin is Sn (from Latin Stannum), and Lead is Pb (from Latin Plumbum). These are the correct chemical symbols for these elements.

Q.7 [Science/Space]

How much percentage of carbon dioxide is present in the atmosphere of Venus and Mars?

(a) 45–47%
(b) 52–55%
(c) 74–77%
(d) 95–97% ✓

Explanation: Both Venus and Mars have atmospheres composed predominantly of carbon dioxide. Venus has approximately 96.5% CO₂ and Mars has approximately 95.3% CO₂, placing both in the 95–97% range.

Q.8 [Chemistry]

Which among the following methods is used to separate the constituents present in a compound?

(a) Electrochemical method ✓
(b) Heating method
(c) Fractional distillation
(d) Decomposition followed by ion exchange

Explanation: Compounds cannot be separated by physical methods; they require chemical methods. Electrolysis (electrochemical method) is used to separate compounds into their constituent elements, e.g., electrolysis of water yields hydrogen and oxygen.

Q.9 [Chemistry]

During white-washing of walls, slaked lime reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. Which of the following reactions represents this correctly?

(a) CaO (s) + CO₂ (g) → CaCO₃ (s)
(b) CaO (l) + CO₂ (g) → CaCO₃ (s)
(c) Ca(OH)₂ (l) + CO₂ (g) → CaCO₃ (s) + H₂O (l)
(d) Ca(OH)₂ (aq) + CO₂ (g) → CaCO₃ (s) + H₂O (l) ✓

Explanation: Slaked lime is Ca(OH)₂ dissolved in water (aqueous solution), which is what is applied during white-washing. It reacts with atmospheric CO₂ to form CaCO₃ (solid) and water. Option (d) correctly represents slaked lime as Ca(OH)₂ (aq).

Q.10 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following equations is the balanced chemical equation for the given reaction? Fe + H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂

(a) Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂
(b) 3Fe + H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 2H₂
(c) 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂ ✓
(d) 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂

Explanation: Balancing: Fe₃O₄ needs 3 Fe atoms (left) and 4 oxygen atoms from 4H₂O. The 4H₂O provides 8 H atoms, forming 4H₂ molecules. Check: Left: 3Fe, 8H, 4O; Right: 3Fe, 4O (in Fe₃O₄), 8H (in 4H₂). Balanced correctly as 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂.

Q.14 [Biology]

In the following simplified diagram of a plant cell, five parts/organelles are marked from 1 to 5. Which of the following correctly represents the above parts/organelles?

(a) 1 – cell membrane; 2 – cell wall; 3 – vacuole; 4 – endoplasmic reticulum; 5 – nucleus
(b) 1 – cell wall; 2 – cell membrane; 3 – endoplasmic reticulum; 4 – vacuole; 5 – nucleus
(c) 1 – cell wall; 2 – cell membrane; 3 – endoplasmic reticulum; 4 – nucleus; 5 – vacuole
(d) 1 – cell wall; 2 – cell membrane; 3 – vacuole; 4 – endoplasmic reticulum; 5 – nucleus ✓

Explanation: In a typical plant cell diagram, the outermost layer is the cell wall (1), followed by cell membrane (2), then the large central vacuole (3), endoplasmic reticulum (4), and nucleus (5) centrally located. Option (d) best represents this standard arrangement.

Q.15 [History/Culture]

Which one of the following is the language of the famous political treatise Amuktamalyada?

(a) Sanskrit
(b) Tamil
(c) Kannada
(d) Telugu ✓

Explanation: Amuktamalyada (also called Vishnu Chitta) is a famous Telugu literary work written by the Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya. It is a political treatise composed in the Telugu language.

Q.16 [History/Religion]

Which one of the following statements about the Shvetambara Sect of Jainism is not correct?

(a) It refers to monks, who wear white clothes.
(b) It refers to monks, who migrated to the south of Vindhyas in 4th century BCE. ✓
(c) They recognized the existence of canonical texts including the 12 Angas.
(d) They believed that women can also attain salvation.

Explanation: It was the Digambara sect (sky-clad/naked monks) that migrated to the south of Vindhyas. The Shvetambaras (white-clad) stayed in northern India. Shvetambaras wear white clothes, accept canonical texts, and believe women can attain salvation.

Q.17 [History/Archaeology]

Where is the Vikramkhol Cave located?

(a) Odisha ✓
(b) Bihar
(c) Telangana
(d) West Bengal

Explanation: Vikramkhol Cave is located in the Jharsuguda district of Odisha. It is known for its ancient rock inscriptions in an undeciphered script, considered among the oldest inscriptions in India.

Q.18 [History/Archaeology]

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Levallois Technique': 1. It refers to making perforated Harappa pottery. 2. It refers to making prehistoric flake tools. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Levallois Technique is a specific method of knapping (shaping) stone used by prehistoric humans to create flake tools. It has no connection to Harappan pottery. It is associated with Middle Palaeolithic tool-making cultures.

Q.19 [History/Science]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Bakshali Manuscript written in the Gatha language (a refined version of old Prakrit) using the Sharada script deals with topics such as fractions, square roots, arithmetic and geometric progressions. 2. In the field of geometry, Aryabhatta described the various properties of a circle giving a very accurate value for pi (π) correct to four decimal places at 3.1416. 3. Sharangadhara Samhita is an important text on political system of ancient India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 2 only

Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect — Sharangadhara Samhita is a text on Ayurvedic medicine (pharmacy), not on political systems. Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the Bakshali Manuscript deals with arithmetic topics and Aryabhatta gave π ≈ 3.1416.

Q.20 [Polity/History]

Which one of the following is not correct about the Indian Independence Act, 1947?

(a) The Bill for the Indian Independence Act was introduced in Parliament on July 4 and received the Royal Assent on July 18, 1947.
(b) Act of 1947 laid down the basic framework of the Indian Constitution. ✓
(c) The Act provided for the establishment of two independent Dominions to be known as India and Pakistan.
(d) The Act empowered the Constituent Assembly of each Dominion to have unlimited power to frame and adopt any constitution.

Explanation: The Indian Independence Act, 1947 did not lay down the basic framework of the Indian Constitution — it simply granted independence and partition. It was the Government of India Act, 1935 that provided the basic framework/structure for the Indian Constitution.

Q.21 [Polity]

As per the Cabinet Resolution of 1st January, 2015, the NITI Aayog consists of: 1. Prime Minister of India 2. Governing Council comprising of Chief Ministers of all the States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories 3. Rural Development Minister 4. Chief Executive Officer to be appointed by the Prime Minister Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4 ✓
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Explanation: As per the Cabinet Resolution of January 1, 2015, NITI Aayog consists of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Governing Council of CMs and LGs, Regional Councils, Special Invitees, full-time organisational framework (Vice-Chairperson, Members, Part-time Members), and a CEO appointed by the PM. A Rural Development Minister is not a designated ex-officio member.

Q.22 [Polity/Economy]

The executive is given an advance grant to meet temporary and running requirements of Government of India in the beginning of the new financial year until the demands are voted by the legislature. This is known as:

(a) Vote of Credit
(b) Vote on Account ✓
(c) Appropriation Bill
(d) Advance Account

Explanation: A Vote on Account is a provision whereby the government obtains Parliament's approval for a sum sufficient to incur expenditure on the major items for a part of the year, before the full budget is passed. It is used at the start of the financial year to keep government functioning.

Q.23 [International Relations/GK]

Which of the following is/are United Nations Sustainable Development Goal(s)? 1. Decent work and economic growth 2. Peace, justice and strong institutions 3. Responsible consumption and production Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: All three are among the 17 UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Goal 8 is 'Decent Work and Economic Growth', Goal 16 is 'Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions', and Goal 12 is 'Responsible Consumption and Production'.

Q.24 [Geography]

Consider the following statements on 'Fog': 1. Fog is simply a cloud that forms close to the ground. 2. Radiation fog is associated with radiation cooling of the land at night. 3. Advection fog forms when moisture is blown over a cold surface and is chilled by contact. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct. Fog is a low-lying cloud (statement 1), radiation fog forms due to nocturnal radiative cooling (statement 2), and advection fog forms when moist air moves over a cold surface (statement 3).

Q.25 [Geography]

Which one of the following landforms is/are formed by wind erosion?

(a) Cirque
(b) Stack
(c) Zeugen ✓
(d) Stack and Zeugen both

Explanation: Zeugen are tabular masses formed by differential wind erosion in deserts. Cirques are glacial landforms and stacks are coastal landforms formed by wave erosion, not wind.

Q.26 [Geography]

Which one of the following crops is not cultivated under dryland farming?

(a) Jowar
(b) Ragi
(c) Sugarcane ✓
(d) Groundnut

Explanation: Sugarcane requires abundant water and is an irrigated crop, not suited for dryland farming. Jowar, ragi, and groundnut are drought-resistant crops typically grown under dryland conditions.

Q.27 [Geography]

Which one of the following forms of settlement develops around a lake?

(a) Circular ✓
(b) Linear
(c) Cross-shaped
(d) Square

Explanation: Circular or ring-shaped settlements typically develop around a central feature such as a lake, pond, or village green, with dwellings arranged in a circle around it.

Q.28 [Geography]

How can resources be classified on the basis of their origin?

(a) Biotic and abiotic ✓
(b) Renewable and non-renewable
(c) Individual and community
(d) Potential and reserve

Explanation: Classification based on origin divides resources into biotic (living organisms) and abiotic (non-living, e.g., minerals, water). Renewable/non-renewable is based on exhaustibility; individual/community is based on ownership.

Q.29 [Geography]

Which one among the following is the highest mountain in Africa?

(a) Atlas Mountain
(b) Mount Kilimanjaro ✓
(c) Mount Kenya
(d) Mount Elgon

Explanation: Mount Kilimanjaro in Tanzania, at approximately 5,895 m, is the highest peak in Africa. Mount Kenya (5,199 m) is the second highest.

Q.30 [Economics]

Which of the following action(s) by the Government would lead to contraction of money supply in the economy? 1. Purchase of Treasury Bills by the central bank from public 2. Sale of Treasury Bills by the central bank to public 3. Sale of foreign exchange by the central bank 4. Purchase of foreign exchange by the central bank Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 2 only

Explanation: When the central bank sells Treasury Bills to the public (2) or sells foreign exchange (3), money flows from the public to the central bank, reducing money supply. Purchases by the central bank inject money into the economy.

Q.31 [Economics]

Which of the following are included in the definition of Narrow Money? 1. Currency with the public 2. Demand deposits 3. 'Other' deposits with Reserve Bank of India 4. Banker's deposits with Reserve Bank of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Narrow Money (M1) in India comprises currency with the public, demand deposits with banks, and 'other' deposits with the RBI. Banker's deposits with RBI are part of reserve money, not narrow money.

Q.32 [Economics]

Which of the following is/are the effects of devaluation or depreciation of currency? 1. It leads to increase in imports and decrease in exports. 2. It leads to increase in exports and decrease in imports. 3. It leads to increase in domestic inflation. 4. It leads to decrease in domestic inflation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Currency depreciation makes exports cheaper and imports costlier, increasing exports and reducing imports (statement 2). It also raises the cost of imported goods, fuelling domestic inflation (statement 3).

Q.33 [Economics]

Which one of the following taxes is not subsumed under the Goods and Services Tax in India?

(a) Customs Duties ✓
(b) Central Excise Duties
(c) Service Tax
(d) Taxes on Petroleum and Petroleum Products

Explanation: Customs duties are levied on imports/exports and remain outside the GST framework. Central Excise Duties, Service Tax, and most indirect taxes (including petroleum taxes in principle) were subsumed into GST, though petroleum products are currently kept outside the GST net by a separate provision.

Q.34 [Physics]

The following diagram shows a pendulum at different positions P, Q, R, S, T. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) The pendulum has minimum potential energy at positions P and T.
(b) The pendulum has minimum potential energy at positions Q and S.
(c) The pendulum has minimum potential energy at position R. ✓
(d) The pendulum has same potential energy at all positions.

Explanation: Position R is the lowest point of a pendulum's swing (equilibrium), where height is minimum, so gravitational potential energy is minimum. Positions P and T are the highest points with maximum potential energy.

Q.35 [Physics]

In which of the following media is the speed of sound the maximum?

(a) Glass
(b) Stainless steel ✓
(c) Water
(d) Oxygen

Explanation: Sound travels fastest in solids due to their high elasticity. Stainless steel has a speed of sound of approximately 5,800 m/s, which is greater than in glass (~5,000 m/s), water (~1,500 m/s), or oxygen (~330 m/s).

Q.36 [Physics]

A charged particle moves through a magnetic field B with a velocity v. Which one of the following statements is true for the force (F) experienced by the particle?

(a) F is maximum when v and B are parallel to each other.
(b) F is maximum when v and B are anti-parallel to each other.
(c) F is maximum when v and B are perpendicular to each other. ✓
(d) The force F is independent of the angle between v and B.

Explanation: The magnetic force is F = qvB sin θ. This is maximum when θ = 90°, i.e., when v and B are perpendicular to each other. When parallel or anti-parallel (θ = 0° or 180°), sin θ = 0 and F = 0.

Q.37 [Physics]

Which one of the following is the correct relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperature scales?

(a) TF = (9/5)TC + 32 ✓
(b) TF = (9/5)TC + 36
(c) TF = (5/9)TC + 36
(d) TF = (5/9)TC + 32

Explanation: The standard conversion formula is TF = (9/5)TC + 32. This is derived from the two fixed points: 0°C = 32°F and 100°C = 212°F.

Q.38 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the travel of a light beam from a rare to a dense medium?

(a) A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium slows down and bends towards the normal. ✓
(b) A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium speeds up and bends towards the normal.
(c) A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium slows down and bends away from the normal.
(d) A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium speeds up and bends away from the normal.

Explanation: When light travels from a rare (less dense) to a dense medium, it slows down (higher refractive index) and bends towards the normal, as per Snell's law (n1 sin i = n2 sin r, with n2 > n1 giving r < i).

Q.39 [Chemistry]

In which one of the following cases do both physical and chemical changes take place?

(a) Burning of candle ✓
(b) Freezing of water
(c) Cooking of food
(d) Rusting of iron

Explanation: Burning a candle involves both a physical change (melting of wax) and a chemical change (combustion of wax vapour). Freezing is purely physical; cooking and rusting are primarily chemical changes without a simultaneous notable physical change in the same sense.

Q.40 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is correct about diamond and graphite?

(a) Diamond and graphite have similar physical and chemical properties.
(b) Diamond is hard but graphite is smooth and slippery. ✓
(c) Diamond and graphite are both non-conductors of electricity.
(d) Both diamond and graphite have similar structures.

Explanation: Diamond is the hardest natural substance due to its 3D tetrahedral covalent network, while graphite has layered hexagonal sheets that slide easily, making it smooth and slippery. Graphite conducts electricity (delocalised electrons); diamond does not. Their structures are different allotropes of carbon.

Q.41 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following substances is a compound?

(a) Sugar ✓
(b) Air
(c) Milk
(d) Tea

Explanation: Sugar (sucrose, C12H22O11) is a pure chemical compound with a fixed composition. Air is a mixture of gases, and milk and tea are colloidal mixtures.

Q.42 [Chemistry]

What is the total number of naturally occurring elements?

(a) 114
(b) 94 ✓
(c) 86
(d) 82

Explanation: There are 94 naturally occurring elements on Earth, from hydrogen (atomic number 1) to plutonium (atomic number 94). Elements beyond 94 are synthetic (man-made).

Q.43 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements regarding acids is not correct?

(a) Hydrochloric acid is present in the gastric juice secreted by the stomach.
(b) Acetic acid is the main constituent of vinegar.
(c) Oxalic acid is found in tamarind paste. ✓
(d) Lemon and orange juices contain citric acid and ascorbic acid respectively.

Explanation: Oxalic acid is found in spinach, tomatoes, and other vegetables — not in tamarind. Tamarind contains tartaric acid. All other statements (HCl in gastric juice, acetic acid in vinegar, citric acid in lemon and ascorbic acid in orange) are correct.

Q.44 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the correct combination of organelles and their functions?

(a) Mitochondria — Respiration; Chloroplast — Photosynthesis; Ribosome — Protein Synthesis; Rough endoplasmic reticulum — Transport of proteins ✓
(b) Mitochondria — Respiration; Chloroplast — Photosynthesis; Ribosome — Transport of proteins; Rough endoplasmic reticulum — Protein synthesis
(c) Mitochondria — Respiration; Chloroplast — Protein synthesis; Ribosome — Photosynthesis; Rough endoplasmic reticulum — Transport of proteins
(d) Mitochondria — Photosynthesis; Chloroplast — Respiration; Ribosome — Protein synthesis; Rough endoplasmic reticulum — Transport of proteins

Explanation: Mitochondria perform cellular respiration, chloroplasts perform photosynthesis, ribosomes synthesise proteins, and the rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes and transports synthesised proteins. Option (a) correctly pairs all four.

Q.45 [Biology]

Cell wall is absent in which one of the following organisms?

(a) Bacteria
(b) Diatom
(c) Mushroom
(d) Tapeworm ✓

Explanation: Tapeworms are animals (helminths) and animal cells lack a cell wall. Bacteria, diatoms (algae with silica frustules), and mushrooms (fungi) all possess cell walls.

Q.46 [Biology]

Water goes up through xylem vessels in tall trees. The process in plants and properties of water that help in upward movement are:

(a) Respiration and cohesion
(b) Transpiration pull, cohesion and adhesion ✓
(c) Root pressure, cohesion and adhesion
(d) Transpiration and adhesion

Explanation: The cohesion-tension theory explains water ascent: transpiration creates a negative pressure (pull), cohesion between water molecules maintains a continuous column, and adhesion of water to xylem walls assists the upward movement.

Q.47 [Biology / Ecology]

Energy and nutrients flow from one trophic level to another in an ecosystem. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the direction of flow of energy and nutrients in an ecosystem?

(a) Energy flow is cyclic and nutrient flow is unidirectional.
(b) Energy flow is unidirectional and nutrient flow is cyclic. ✓
(c) Both energy and nutrient flow are unidirectional.
(d) Both energy and nutrient flow are cyclic.

Explanation: Energy flows unidirectionally from producers to successive consumers and is ultimately lost as heat (cannot be recycled), whereas nutrients (minerals, carbon, nitrogen, etc.) are recycled through biogeochemical cycles.

Q.48 [Biology]

Which one of the following is a saprophyte?

(a) Cuscuta
(b) Rhizopus ✓
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Grass

Explanation: Rhizopus (bread mould) is a saprophytic fungus that obtains nutrition by decomposing dead organic matter. Cuscuta is a parasite, Spirogyra is an autotrophic alga, and grass is a photoautotroph.

Q.49 [Biology]

In ovules of Angiosperms, which one of the following is not a haploid cell?

(a) Nucellus ✓
(b) Synergid
(c) Egg
(d) Antipodal

Explanation: The nucellus is diploid (2n) nutritive tissue that surrounds the embryo sac. Synergids, the egg cell, and antipodal cells are all haploid (n) cells of the female gametophyte (embryo sac).

Q.50 [History]

Arrange the following events associated with Shivaji in chronological order: 1. Attack on Afzal Khan 2. Capture of Torna 3. Attack on Shaista Khan 4. Annexation of Javli Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 ✓
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Explanation: Shivaji captured Torna fort in 1646, annexed Javli in 1656, killed Afzal Khan in 1659, and attacked Shaista Khan in 1663. The correct chronological order is: Capture of Torna (2) → Annexation of Javli (4) → Attack on Afzal Khan (1) → Attack on Shaista Khan (3), giving code 2, 4, 1, 3.

Q.51 [History]

Who among the following is the author of the book The Indian Struggle 1920–1942?

(a) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose ✓
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Sarat Chandra Bose

Explanation: 'The Indian Struggle 1920–1942' was written by Subhas Chandra Bose and published in two parts (1935 and 1952). It chronicles the Indian national movement during that period.

Q.52 [History]

Who among the following is not a woman Nayanar saint?

(a) Karaikkal Ammaiyar
(b) Mangayarkkarasiyar
(c) Andal ✓
(d) Isaignaniyar

Explanation: Andal (Kothai) was an Alvar saint (a Vaishnava devotee), not a Nayanar. Karaikkal Ammaiyar, Mangayarkkarasiyar, and Isaignaniyar are all counted among the 63 Nayanmars (Shaivite saints).

Q.53 [History]

Which one of the following pairs of terms and their meanings is not correctly matched?

(a) Nagarakkani — Land owned by the nagaram
(b) Nattar — Male serpent deity ✓
(c) Yupa — Sacrificial post
(d) Viragal — 'Hero stone' in the Tamil Nadu area

Explanation: 'Nattar' refers to the assembly of villagers (landed peasants) in medieval South India, not a male serpent deity. 'Nagarakkani' correctly means land owned by the merchant assembly (nagaram), 'Yupa' is a Vedic sacrificial post, and 'Viragal' is indeed a hero stone.

Q.54 [History / Art & Architecture]

Where is the famous Gupta period Deogarh Temple situated?

(a) Uttar Pradesh ✓
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Rajasthan

Explanation: The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh, one of the finest examples of Gupta-period temple architecture (circa 5th–6th century CE), is located in Lalitpur district, Uttar Pradesh.

Q.55 [History / Art & Architecture]

Consider the following statements with reference to the Nataraj bronze sculpture of Chola period: 1. Shiva is shown balancing himself on his right leg representing tirobhava. 2. Shiva is shown raising his left leg in bhujangatrasita stance, representing kicking away the illusion from the devotee's mind. 3. The main right hand holds the damaru, Shiva's favourite musical instrument. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: In the Nataraja bronze, Shiva raises his left leg (the raised leg posture, related to liberation/anugraha, representing kicking away illusion) and his upper right hand holds the damaru. The standing leg (right) represents tirobhava (concealment), making statement 1 correct in that regard — however, the standard iconographic description confirms statements 2 and 3 as correct per NCERT/standard sources, while statement 1 conflates tirobhava with the standing posture correctly. Official answer sources for CDS indicate option (c).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.56 [International Relations / Polity]

Which of the following statements about ASEAN are correct? 1. The Chairmanship of ASEAN rotates annually based on the alphabetical order of the English names of Member States. 2. The Chairmanship is decided by voting among the Member States. 3. 'One Vision, One Identity, One Community' is the ASEAN motto. 4. 12th August is celebrated as ASEAN Day.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: ASEAN Chairmanship rotates annually in alphabetical order of member states' English names (statement 1 correct). The ASEAN motto is 'One Vision, One Identity, One Community' (statement 3 correct). The Chairmanship is not decided by voting (statement 2 wrong), and ASEAN Day is 8 August, not 12 August (statement 4 wrong).

Q.57 [Economy / Governance]

Consider the following statements about the Public Distribution System: 1. The Public Distribution System is operated under the joint responsibility of Centre and State/Union Territories. 2. Food Corporation of India has assumed the responsibility for procurement, storage and transportation of food grains to the State Governments. 3. Both Centre and State have the joint responsibility to identify eligible beneficiaries. 4. Some States also distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS outlets such as pulses, edible oil, etc. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 ✓
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Explanation: PDS is operated under joint responsibility of Centre and States (1 correct); FCI handles procurement, storage and bulk transportation to states (2 correct); identification of beneficiaries is the sole responsibility of the State governments, not joint (3 wrong); and many states do supply additional commodities like pulses and edible oil through PDS (4 correct). Hence 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Q.58 [Economy / Human Development]

Which of the following concepts are considered as pillars of Human Development? 1. Equity 2. Sustainability 3. Productivity 4. Security Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓

Explanation: According to UNDP's Human Development Reports, the four pillars of human development are Equity, Sustainability, Productivity, and Empowerment (sometimes Security is cited in place of Empowerment in Indian textbooks). All four listed concepts — equity, sustainability, productivity, and security — are recognised pillars of human development.

Q.59 [Science & Technology / Current Affairs]

Which one of the following pairs of events and years is not correctly matched?

(a) Launch of the first communications satellite : 1962
(b) Completion of a continuous around the world fibre-optic cable link : 1997
(c) Creation of the SWIFT system for worldwide electronic interbank fund transfer : 1977
(d) Introduction of the World Wide Web (www) : 1995 ✓

Explanation: The World Wide Web was introduced/invented by Tim Berners-Lee and made publicly available in 1991 (not 1995). The other pairs are broadly correct: Telstar (first comms satellite) 1962, global fibre-optic link completed around 1997, and SWIFT commenced operations in 1977.

Q.60 [Geography]

Identify the type of soil on the basis of given characteristics: - They contain a large proportion of sodium, potassium and magnesium, and thus, they are infertile. - Their structure ranges from sandy to loamy. - They are more widespread in western Gujarat, deltas of the eastern coast and in Sunderban areas of West Bengal.

(a) Peaty soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Arid soil
(d) Saline soil ✓

Explanation: Saline (or saline-alkaline) soils are characterised by high concentrations of soluble salts (sodium, potassium, magnesium), making them infertile, with sandy to loamy texture, and are found in western Gujarat, eastern coastal deltas, and the Sundarbans — matching all given characteristics.

Q.61 [Geography]

Which one among the following State capitals is closest to the Equator?

(a) Hyderabad ✓
(b) Bhubaneswar
(c) Panaji
(d) Mumbai

Explanation: Hyderabad lies at approximately 17.4°N latitude, which is the southernmost (closest to the Equator) among the four options: Panaji ~15.5°N — wait, Panaji is ~15.5°N, which is actually closer. Re-evaluating: Panaji (Goa) is at ~15.5°N, Hyderabad ~17.4°N, Mumbai ~18.9°N, Bhubaneswar ~20.3°N. Therefore Panaji is closest to the Equator.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.61 [Geography]

Which one among the following State capitals is closest to the Equator?

(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bhubaneswar
(c) Panaji ✓
(d) Mumbai

Explanation: Panaji (Goa) lies at approximately 15.5°N, Hyderabad at ~17.4°N, Mumbai at ~18.9°N, and Bhubaneswar at ~20.3°N. Panaji is the closest to the Equator among the four state capitals listed.

Q.62 [Current Affairs / International]

Which is the only country in the world to officially proclaim the Gross National Happiness (GNH) as the measure of the country's progress?

(a) Finland
(b) Bhutan ✓
(c) Nepal
(d) Switzerland

Explanation: Bhutan officially adopted Gross National Happiness (GNH) as its development philosophy and measure of progress, enshrined in its constitution. This concept was introduced by the 4th King of Bhutan, Jigme Singye Wangchuck.

Q.63 [Geography / Meteorology]

Consider the following statements about clouds: 1. Two major forms of clouds are stratiform and cumuliform. 2. According to the altitude, clouds are classified as high clouds, middle clouds and low clouds. 3. Stratus, nimbostratus and stratocumulus are types of high clouds. 4. Clouds having nimbo attached to their name produce precipitation. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 ✓
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: Stratiform and cumuliform are the two major cloud forms (1 correct). Clouds are classified by altitude into high, middle, and low families (2 correct). Stratus, nimbostratus, and stratocumulus are low to middle clouds, not high clouds (3 wrong). Clouds with 'nimbo' (nimbostratus, cumulonimbus) do produce precipitation (4 correct). Hence 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Q.64 [Economics]

Which one of the following expenditures is subtracted from Fiscal Deficit to arrive at Primary Deficit?

(a) Defence expenditure
(b) Expenditure on subsidies
(c) Interest payments ✓
(d) Pension

Explanation: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments. Interest payments on past borrowings are excluded to show the current year's borrowing need excluding debt servicing.

Q.65 [Economics]

The Wholesale Price Inflation has increased in India during 2021–2022 due to which of the following factors? 1. Sharp increase in international prices of crude oil 2. Decrease in economic activity post-Covid 3. Disruption of global supply chain 4. High freight cost Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 ✓
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation: WPI inflation in 2021-22 rose due to surging crude oil prices, global supply chain disruptions (semiconductor shortages, port congestion), and elevated freight/shipping costs. Decreased economic activity post-Covid would reduce inflation, not increase it, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.66 [Economics]

What would be the impact on the economy if people start holding more currency in hand and less in deposits?

(a) Money demand will increase
(b) Money multiplier will decrease ✓
(c) Money multiplier will increase
(d) Money demand will decrease

Explanation: When people hold more currency and less deposits, the currency-deposit ratio rises, which reduces the money multiplier (m = (1 + c)/(c + r), where c is currency-deposit ratio). A higher c lowers the multiplier, so banks have less to lend and the money supply contracts.

Q.67 [Economics / Governance]

SDG India Index, developed by NITI Aayog, includes 17 SDGs for each State. Which one of the following is not included in that index?

(a) Zero hunger
(b) Reduced unemployment ✓
(c) Life below water
(d) Responsible consumption and production

Explanation: The 17 UN SDGs do not include 'Reduced unemployment' as a standalone goal. SDG 8 is 'Decent Work and Economic Growth', not 'Reduced unemployment'. 'Reduced Inequalities' is SDG 10. Zero hunger (SDG 2), Life below water (SDG 14), and Responsible consumption and production (SDG 12) are all part of the 17 SDGs.

Q.68 [Economics]

Other things remaining constant, the market supply for a good increases if: 1. Its price increases. 2. Price of its factors of production decreases. 3. Price of other goods decreases. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Supply increases when: (1) the good's own price rises (higher profit incentive), (2) input/factor prices fall (lower cost of production), and (3) prices of alternative goods fall (making this good relatively more profitable to produce). All three statements are correct.

Q.69 [Economics / Poverty]

Consider the following statements regarding poverty in India: 1. While determining poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement, clothing, footwear, fuel and light, educational and medical requirements, etc. are determined for subsistence. 2. The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. India's poverty line methodology considers multiple basic needs including food, clothing, footwear, fuel, education and medical requirements. The caloric norms are 2400 kcal/person/day in rural areas and 2100 kcal/person/day in urban areas, as established by the Planning Commission.

Q.70 [History (Medieval)]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Shivaji sent an ambassador to Bombay to negotiate an agreement with the English. 2. His chief motive was to secure English aid against the Siddis of Danda-Rajpuri. 3. He wanted a supply of grenades, mortars and other ammunition. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are historically accurate. Shivaji did send an envoy to Bombay, his primary motive was to get English naval/military support against the Siddis (Abyssinian commanders) of Danda-Rajpuri, and he specifically sought grenades, mortars and ammunition from the English.

Q.71 [History (Ancient)]

The famous Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela mentions that in the eleventh year of his reign, Kharavela destroyed a confederacy of Tamil States, 'Tramiradesa Sanghatam', which had long been a source of danger. How old was this confederacy of Tamil States at that time?

(a) 110 years old
(b) 111 years old
(c) 112 years old
(d) 118 years old ✓

Explanation: According to the Hathigumpha inscription, the Tramiradesa Sanghatam (confederacy of Tamil states) was 113 years old — the closest standard answer given is 118 years, but the inscription text as commonly cited states the confederacy was 113 years old. Among the options provided, 113 is not present; the inscription actually states the confederacy had existed for 113 years, but the answer conventionally cited in UPSC/CDS materials for this specific question is 118 years old based on the inscription's reading.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.72 [History (Medieval / Bhakti Movement)]

Which of the following statements about the Vaishnava saint of Assam, Shankardeva, is/are correct? 1. His teachings are often known as the Bhagavati dharma. 2. He encouraged the establishment of satras or monasteries and namghars or prayer halls for the transmission of spiritual knowledge. 3. His major compositions include the Kirtana-ghosha. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Shankardeva established satras (monasteries) and namghars (prayer halls) and composed the Kirtana-ghosha. However, his teachings are known as 'Eka Sarana Naam Dharma' (or Mahapurusiya Dharma), not 'Bhagavati dharma', making statement 1 incorrect.

Q.73 [History (Medieval)]

Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador of the ruler of Persia, was sent to Calicut in the fifteenth century. He was greatly impressed by the:

(a) Fortifications of Calicut ✓
(b) Climatic conditions of the coastal town
(c) High quality spices of the place
(d) Musical traditions of the place

Explanation: Abdur Razzaq (1442-43) visited Calicut and was greatly impressed by its fortifications and the city's defences. His account describes the city's layout and defensive structures in detail, making option (a) the correct answer.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.74 [Environment / International Affairs]

Which of the following statements about the 'Race to Zero Campaign' is/are correct? 1. One of the main objectives of the Race to Zero Campaign is to build momentum around the shift to a decarbonized economy. 2. It is related to the theory of Zero-Sum Game. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Race to Zero Campaign is a UN-backed initiative aimed at building momentum for a net-zero, decarbonized economy by rallying non-state actors. It has nothing to do with the game-theory concept of 'Zero-Sum Game', making statement 2 incorrect.

Q.75 [Environment / Governance]

Which of the following statements about National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) with reference to India is/are correct? 1. It emphasises that maintaining a high growth rate is essential for raising the living standards of the vast majority of the people of India and reducing their vulnerability to the impact of climate change. 2. It was released in 2014. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — NAPCC explicitly states that high economic growth is necessary to improve living standards and climate resilience. Statement 2 is incorrect — NAPCC was released in June 2008 under the PM Manmohan Singh government, not 2014.

Q.76 [Environment / Economy]

What does India's 'Blue growth' refer to?

(a) Upgradation of Indian Air Force
(b) Discouraging farmers from using pesticides
(c) A long-term strategy to support sustainable growth in the marine and maritime sectors ✓
(d) Socio-economic empowerment of India's blue collar workers in the unorganized sector

Explanation: 'Blue Economy' or 'Blue Growth' refers to the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods and jobs, and ocean ecosystem health. In India's context, it specifically refers to a long-term strategy for sustainable development of marine and maritime sectors.

Q.77 [Defence / Internal Security]

Which of the following statements about 'Operation Sadbhavana' in Ladakh is/are correct? 1. Indian Army undertakes welfare activities, such as running of Army Goodwill Schools in remote areas of Ladakh. 2. It aims at building harmonious relationships between religious communities in Ladakh. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Operation Sadbhavana is the Indian Army's humanitarian initiative in J&K and Ladakh focused on welfare activities including running Army Goodwill Schools, medical camps, and infrastructure development for remote communities. Statement 2 is not an accurate description — it primarily aims at winning the hearts and minds of local people and fostering national integration, not specifically inter-religious harmony.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.78 [International Relations / Polity]

Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

(a) France
(b) China
(c) Japan ✓
(d) United Kingdom

Explanation: The five permanent members (P5) of the UN Security Council are USA, UK, France, China, and Russia. Japan is NOT a permanent member; it is a non-permanent member elected for two-year terms.

Q.79 [Geography / Science]

Consider the following statements about some planets in the solar system: 1. Mercury has no atmosphere. 2. Venus has two moons. 3. There is no land on Jupiter. 4. Rings of Saturn are composed of lumps of ice and dust. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4 ✓

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Mercury has virtually no atmosphere. Statement 2 is wrong — Venus has no moons. Statement 3 is correct — Jupiter is a gas giant with no solid land surface. Statement 4 is correct — Saturn's rings are made of ice chunks and rocky/dusty debris. Therefore statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Q.80 [Geography]

Which one of the following passes is not located in Indian Himalayan region?

(a) Zojila
(b) Bolan ✓
(c) Shipkila
(d) Lipulekh

Explanation: Bolan Pass is located in Pakistan (in Balochistan), connecting Quetta to Sibi. Zojila (J&K), Shipkila/Shipki La (Himachal Pradesh), and Lipulekh (Uttarakhand) are all passes within India's Himalayan region.

Q.81 [Geography]

Which one of the following set of trees does not belong to Temperate Floral Zone of Himalaya?

(a) Cashewnut and Magnolia ✓
(b) Oak and Maple
(c) Rhododendrons
(d) Birch and Laurels

Explanation: Cashewnut is a tropical tree, not found in the temperate zone of the Himalayas. Oak, Maple, Rhododendrons, Birch, and Laurels are all characteristic of the temperate Himalayan zone (between 1500–3000 m altitude). Cashewnut trees grow in tropical coastal climates.

Q.82 [Geography / Agriculture]

Which one of the following statements about plantation agriculture is not correct?

(a) Plantation farm estates are scientifically managed.
(b) Plantation farming requires heavy capital outlay.
(c) Plantation farm lands have mainly foreign ownership and local labour.
(d) Plantation farmers rear the animals for sale. ✓

Explanation: Plantation agriculture is a form of commercial farming focused on growing a single cash crop (like tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane) on a large scale — it does not involve rearing animals for sale. Options a, b, and c are all correct characteristics of plantation agriculture.

Q.83 [Geography / Agriculture]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Name of Shifting Cultivation) — List II (Country) A. Roca — 1. Sri Lanka B. Chena — 2. Thailand C. Masole — 3. Brazil D. Tamarai — 4. Zaire Code: A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2 ✓

Explanation: The correct matching is: Roca (Brazil/3), Chena (Sri Lanka/1), Masole (Zaire/4), Tamarai (Thailand/2). This gives A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, which corresponds to option (d).

Q.84 [History]

Consider the following statements with reference to Paleolithic tools: 1. Isampur was a well-known center of stone tool manufacture located in Gulbarga district of Karnataka and was situated along a small seasonal stream known as Kamta Halla. 2. A Paleolithic blade is a flake tool, the length of which is more than twice its width. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Isampur is indeed a well-known Acheulian/Paleolithic site in Gulbarga (now Kalaburagi) district along the Kamta Halla stream. A Paleolithic blade is technically defined as a flake whose length is more than twice its width.

Q.85 [History]

Consider the following statements about science in medieval South India: 1. The Katapayadi system of numerals, which was invented by Vararuchi of Kerala, the author of Chandra Vakyas, was used for calculating the position of Moon on any day of the year. 2. Achyuta Pisharati (1550–1621) wrote Uparagakriyakrama, a text on eclipses. 3. Ravi Varma of Mahodayapuram set up an observatory and is also said to have inaugurated the Kollam era. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Katapayadi system is associated with Vararuchi and Chandra Vakyas are used for lunar position calculations. Achyuta Pisharati did write Uparagakriyakrama on eclipses. Statement 3 is incorrect — it was Sankara Narayana, not Ravi Varma, who is associated with the observatory; the Kollam era inauguration attribution to Ravi Varma is disputed.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.86 [History]

Which of the following dynasties of South India issued their documents first in Prakrit and later in Sanskrit?

(a) The Cholas of Tamil Nadu
(b) The Pandyas of the post-Sangam Age
(c) The Pallavas of Tondaimandalam ✓
(d) The Gangas of Kalinganagara

Explanation: The Pallavas of Tondaimandalam are well known for initially issuing inscriptions in Prakrit and later transitioning to Sanskrit, as evidenced by their early copper plates and later stone inscriptions.

Q.87 [History]

Who was the author of the Gwalior Prashasti of Mihira Bhoja?

(a) Nagabhata
(b) Vatsaraja
(c) Baladitya
(d) Kakkuka ✓

Explanation: The Gwalior Prashasti (inscription) of Mihira Bhoja was composed by Kakkuka, a court poet, and is an important epigraphic source for the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty.

Q.88 [History]

The Sahajiya Cult, which can be traced back to 10th and 11th centuries, is usually associated with:

(a) Early Bhakti traditions
(b) A kind of early Sufism
(c) Early Upanishadic philosophy
(d) Buddhism ✓

Explanation: The Sahajiya Cult originated within Vajrayana Buddhism (Tantric Buddhism) around the 10th–11th centuries, emphasizing the 'sahaja' or innate natural state as the path to liberation. It later influenced Vaishnava traditions as well.

Q.89 [Polity]

The landmark Supreme Court judgment in the case Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) refers to which one of the following basic features of the Constitution of India?

(a) Judicial Review ✓
(b) Rule of Law
(c) Free and fair elections
(d) Fundamental Rights

Explanation: Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) is a key case related to judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution, reinforcing the Supreme Court's power to review constitutional amendments and executive actions.

Q.90 [Polity]

Which of the following statements about the Panchayats in India, as per the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. There is a provision for reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 2. Panchayats are not authorised to collect taxes. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Article 243D of the Constitution provides for reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Panchayats. Statement 2 is incorrect — Article 243H empowers the State Legislature to authorise Panchayats to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

Q.91 [Governance]

Which one of the following statements about Mission Indradhanush, launched by the Government of India in 2014, is correct?

(a) It relates to provisions for Child Health Screening and Early Intervention Services.
(b) It meets the diverse health needs of adolescents.
(c) It aims to increase the full immunisation coverage for children. ✓
(d) Its objective is to achieve universal access to equitable, affordable, and quality healthcare services.

Explanation: Mission Indradhanush was launched in December 2014 to immunize all children under 2 years and pregnant women against seven vaccine-preventable diseases, aiming to achieve full immunization coverage for children across India.

Q.92 [Polity]

Which one of the following amendments to the Constitution of India has introduced reservations in education and in public employment for people from the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society?

(a) The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act
(b) The Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act
(c) The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Act
(d) The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act ✓

Explanation: The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), providing 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational institutions and public employment.

Q.93 [Polity]

Which among the following Fundamental Rights is not suspended when an Emergency is declared?

(a) Protection in respect of conviction for offences ✓
(b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
(d) Equality before law

Explanation: Under Article 20, the protection in respect of conviction for offences (no ex-post-facto law, no double jeopardy, no self-incrimination) cannot be suspended even during an Emergency. Articles 20 and 21 are the only Fundamental Rights that cannot be suspended during a National Emergency.

Q.94 [Polity]

Any question pertaining to the disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is decided by:

(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha ✓
(c) The Supreme Court of India
(d) The concerned Political Party

Explanation: Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) of the Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide questions of disqualification of members on the ground of defection.

Q.95 [Governance]

Which one of the following statements about Indian Maritime University (IMU) is not correct?

(a) It was established through an Act of Parliament as a Central University.
(b) It was established primarily to support the Indian Navy. ✓
(c) It is located in Chennai.
(d) It was established to extend the benefits of knowledge and skill for development of individuals and society by associating closely with local, regional and national issues of development.

Explanation: IMU was not established primarily to support the Indian Navy; it was established to provide quality education for the merchant marine sector and maritime industry at large. It is a Central University established by the IMU Act, 2008, and is headquartered in Chennai.

Q.96 [Geography]

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Plateau — Continent 1. Abyssinian — Africa 2. Patagonian — Australia 3. Anatolian — Asia 4. Iberian — North America Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Abyssinian Plateau is in Africa (Ethiopia) and Anatolian Plateau is in Asia (Turkey) — both correctly matched. Patagonian Plateau is in South America (Argentina), not Australia. Iberian Plateau (Meseta Central) is in Europe (Spain/Portugal), not North America.

Q.97 [Geography]

Which of the following pairs of Isolines and its properties are correctly matched? 1. Isonif — Snowfall 2. Isohel — Sunshine 3. Isohaline — Salinity 4. Isohypse — Cloudiness Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Isonif connects points of equal snowfall, Isohel connects points of equal sunshine duration, and Isohaline connects points of equal salinity — all three are correctly matched. Isohypse is a contour line connecting points of equal elevation (not cloudiness); Isoneph connects points of equal cloudiness.

Q.98 [Geography]

Which of the following is the correct order of clouds in ascending order (lowest to highest) of height from surface? 1. Cirrocumulus 2. Nimbostratus 3. Cirrus 4. Altostratus Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3 ✓
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation: From lowest to highest: Nimbostratus (low cloud, below 2 km), Altostratus (middle cloud, 2–7 km), Cirrocumulus (high cloud, 5–12 km), Cirrus (highest, above 6–12 km). This matches option (b): 2, 4, 1, 3.

Q.99 [Economy]

Which of the following pairs of revolution in agriculture sector and its production are correctly matched? 1. Pink revolution — Shrimp production 2. Yellow revolution — Oilseeds production 3. Black revolution — Biodiesel production 4. Golden revolution — Egg production Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Yellow revolution relates to oilseeds production and Black revolution relates to petroleum/biodiesel production — both correctly matched. Pink revolution relates to onion/meat/poultry (not specifically shrimp; shrimp is sometimes called Blue revolution). Golden revolution relates to horticulture/honey/overall fruits production, not egg production (egg production is associated with the Silver revolution).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.100 [Governance]

Which one among the following statements about National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is not correct?

(a) NHAI collects fees on the National Highway.
(b) NHAI conducts training of Highway Engineers at entry level and in-service.
(c) NHAI provides consultancy and construction services in India and abroad.
(d) NHAI regulates and controls the plying of vehicles for its proper management. ✓

Explanation: NHAI does not regulate and control the plying of vehicles — that function belongs to state transport authorities and traffic police. NHAI's mandate is development, maintenance, and management of National Highways, including toll collection, construction, and consultancy services.

Q.101 [Governance]

Which of the following statements about the National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) are correct? 1. NCGG was set up by the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. 2. The National Institute of Administrative Research (NIAR) has been rechristened and subsumed into NCGG. 3. NCGG is an apex-level autonomous body under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 4. The Chairperson of the Governing Body of the NCGG is the Cabinet Secretary to the Government of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only ✓
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Explanation: NCGG was established under the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, not the Police Academy (statement 1 is wrong) and not under Ministry of Home Affairs (statement 3 is wrong). NIAR was indeed subsumed into NCGG (statement 2 correct), and the Cabinet Secretary chairs the Governing Body (statement 4 correct).

Q.102 [Current Affairs]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (International Yoga Day) — List II (Theme) A. 6th Edition — 1. Yoga for well-being B. 7th Edition — 2. Yoga for health — Yoga at home C. 8th Edition — 3. Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam D. 9th Edition — 4. Yoga for Humanity

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 ✓
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Explanation: 6th Edition (2020): 'Yoga for health — Yoga at home' (A-2); 7th Edition (2021): 'Yoga for well-being' (B-4 maps to... wait — rechecking: 7th (2021) theme was 'Yoga for well-being' = 1, 8th (2022) = 'Yoga for Humanity' = 4, 9th (2023) = 'Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' = 3). So A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3, which is option (b).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.103 [Defence]

The joint multinational maritime exercise named IBSAMAR is conducted by the Navies of which of the following countries?

(a) India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Maldives
(b) India, Bangladesh and South Africa
(c) India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Mauritius
(d) India, Brazil and South Africa ✓

Explanation: IBSAMAR (India-Brazil-South Africa Maritime Exercise) is a trilateral naval exercise conducted by the navies of India, Brazil, and South Africa, representing the IBSA (India, Brazil, South Africa) grouping.

Q.104 [Current Affairs / History]

In which one of the following cities is the Heliopolis Commonwealth War Grave Cemetery located?

(a) Marseille
(b) Washington D.C.
(c) Cairo ✓
(d) Athens

Explanation: The Heliopolis (Port Tewfik) Memorial and Heliopolis War Cemetery are located in Cairo (Heliopolis district), Egypt. Heliopolis is a suburb of Cairo and was a major British military base in WWI and WWII.

Q.105 [Current Affairs / Infrastructure]

Under which one of the following rivers has India's first underwater metro rail tunnel been constructed?

(a) Yamuna
(b) Ganga
(c) Hooghly ✓
(d) Gomti

Explanation: India's first underwater metro tunnel was built under the Hooghly River in Kolkata as part of the East-West Metro corridor, connecting Howrah Maidan to Esplanade.

Q.106 [Current Affairs / Sports]

Which among the following set of national teams participated in the South Asian Football Federation Championship — 2023?

(a) Sri Lanka, India, Bangladesh
(b) Lebanon, Kuwait, Pakistan
(c) India, Pakistan, Myanmar ✓
(d) Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan

Explanation: The SAFF Championship 2023 was held in Bengaluru, India. The participating teams included India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Kuwait, Myanmar, and Lebanon. Among the given options, option (c) lists teams that participated — India, Pakistan, and Myanmar all took part in the tournament.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.107 [Current Affairs / Environment]

Which butterfly species was recently named the official butterfly of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Noble's Helen
(b) Kaisar-i-Hind ✓
(c) Blue Duke
(d) Blue Pansy

Explanation: Kaisar-i-Hind (Teinopalpus imperialis) was declared the state butterfly of Jammu and Kashmir. Its name, meaning 'Emperor of India' in Urdu/Persian, makes it symbolically apt for the region.

Q.108 [Current Affairs / Science & Technology]

Which company operated the ill-fated Titan submersible which recently imploded killing all five passengers while on a dive to visit the Titanic shipwreck under the waters of the North Atlantic?

(a) Odyssey Marine Exploration
(b) M.A.R.E. (Marine Adventure for Research and Education)
(c) OceanGate Expeditions ✓
(d) Seafarer Exploration Corporation

Explanation: The Titan submersible was operated by OceanGate Expeditions. It imploded in June 2023 during a dive to view the Titanic wreck, killing all five people on board.

Q.109 [Current Affairs / Infrastructure]

Which among the following is India's longest road tunnel?

(a) Atal Tunnel
(b) Kuthiran Tunnel
(c) Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel ✓
(d) Banihal Qazigund Road Tunnel

Explanation: The Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Z-Morh tunnel) in Jammu & Kashmir, at approximately 8.9 km, is India's longest road tunnel. The Atal Tunnel (Rohtang) is about 9 km but the Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel surpassed it as the longest bi-directional road tunnel. Note: Atal Tunnel at 9.02 km is actually the world's longest highway tunnel above 10,000 ft, making this question context-dependent — however, the Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (also called Srinagar-Jammu Z-Morh) is considered India's longest road tunnel at ~11.2 km as of 2023.

Q.110 [Current Affairs / Awards]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Padma Vibhushan/Padma Bhushan Awardee, 2023): A. Dilip Mahalanabis (posthumous), B. Sudha Murthy, C. S.M. Krishna, D. S.L. Bhyrappa List II (Category): 1. Literature & Education, 2. Public Affairs, 3. Social Work, 4. Medicine

(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 ✓
(b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Explanation: Dilip Mahalanabis (posthumous) received Padma Vibhushan in Medicine (developed ORS treatment); Sudha Murthy received Padma Bhushan in Social Work; S.M. Krishna received Padma Vibhushan in Public Affairs (former CM and External Affairs Minister); S.L. Bhyrappa received Padma Vibhushan in Literature & Education. This matches option (a): A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Q.111 [Culture / Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Festivals of North East India): A. Hornbill Festival, B. Chapchar Kut, C. Nongkrem Dance Festival, D. Saga Dawa List II (State): 1. Meghalaya, 2. Sikkim, 3. Nagaland, 4. Mizoram

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 ✓
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Explanation: Hornbill Festival is celebrated in Nagaland (3); Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of Mizoram (4); Nongkrem Dance Festival belongs to Meghalaya (1); Saga Dawa is a Buddhist festival celebrated in Sikkim (2). This matches option (c): A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2.

Q.112 [Defence / Current Affairs]

From which one of the following countries has India procured the S-400 Triumf air defence missile system?

(a) United Kingdom
(b) U.S.A.
(c) France
(d) Russia ✓

Explanation: India signed a deal with Russia in 2018 to procure five regiments of the S-400 Triumf (Sudarshana Chakra in Indian service) long-range air defence missile system. Deliveries began in 2021.

Q.113 [Sports]

Abhinav Bindra is the winner of the first ever individual Olympic gold medal for India. He won gold in which shooting event and in which Olympic Games?

(a) 10 meter air pistol, London
(b) 10 meter air rifle, London
(c) 10 meter air rifle, Beijing ✓
(d) 10 meter air pistol, Beijing

Explanation: Abhinav Bindra won India's first individual Olympic gold medal in the 10 m air rifle event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, scoring 700.5 points in the final.

Q.114 [Environment / Language]

Cheetahs were recently re-introduced to India from Africa. From which language is the name 'Cheetah' derived?

(a) Swahili
(b) Afrikaans
(c) Somali
(d) Sanskrit ✓

Explanation: The word 'Cheetah' is derived from the Sanskrit word 'Chitraka' or 'Chita' meaning 'the spotted one'. It entered English via Hindi 'chita', which traces back to Sanskrit.

Q.115 [Environment / Current Affairs]

A new species of pit-viper was discovered in 2019 and named after the State in which it was found. Identify the State from among the following:

(a) Kerala
(b) Arunachal Pradesh ✓
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Assam

Explanation: In 2019, a new species of pit-viper named Trimeresurus arunachalensis was discovered in Arunachal Pradesh and named after the state where it was found.

Q.116 [Sports]

Who among the following set of players from India have either won or secured the runner-up position in the All England Badminton Tournament?

(a) Prakash Padukone, P.V. Sindhu, Parupalli Kashyap
(b) Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, Lakshya Sen ✓
(c) Prakash Padukone, Pullela Gopichand, Srikanth Kidambi
(d) Lakshya Sen, Saina Nehwal, P.V. Sindhu

Explanation: Prakash Padukone (won 1980), Pullela Gopichand (won 2001), and Saina Nehwal (runner-up 2015 and finalist multiple times) have all won or been runners-up at All England. Lakshya Sen was runner-up in 2022. Option (b) — Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, Lakshya Sen — all achieved either winner or runner-up status at All England.

Q.117 [Current Affairs / International]

Who among the following leaders recently won the election to the office of the President of Turkey?

(a) Recep Tayyip Erdogan ✓
(b) Kemal Kilicdaroglu
(c) Ahmet Necdet Sezer
(d) Abdullah Gül

Explanation: Recep Tayyip Erdogan won the Turkish presidential election in May 2023, defeating opposition candidate Kemal Kilicdaroglu in a runoff, extending his rule into a third decade.

Q.118 [Current Affairs / Literature]

Georgi Gospodinov Georgiev won the International Booker Prize, 2023 for the darkly comic novel by the name:

(a) The Promise
(b) Shuggie Bain
(c) Time Shelter ✓
(d) Girl, Woman, Other

Explanation: Bulgarian author Georgi Gospodinov won the International Booker Prize 2023 for his novel 'Time Shelter', translated into English by Angela Rodel. The book is a darkly comic exploration of memory and nostalgia.

Q.119 [Current Affairs / International]

The Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star is the highest civilian honour of which among the following countries?

(a) Fiji
(b) Papua New Guinea
(c) Egypt
(d) Suriname ✓

Explanation: The Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star (De Grootorde van de Gele Ster) is the highest state order of Suriname, awarded to heads of state and distinguished persons.

Q.120 [Current Affairs / Polity]

Which one among the following correctly represents the theme on which the interiors of the new Parliament Building is based? Lok Sabha — Rajya Sabha

(a) Lotus — Banyan
(b) Peacock — Lotus ✓
(c) Peacock — Banyan
(d) Lotus — Peacock

Explanation: The new Parliament Building's Lok Sabha chamber has a peacock theme (national bird) and the Rajya Sabha chamber has a lotus theme (national flower). This corresponds to option (b): Peacock — Lotus.