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CDS I 2024 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2024 (Session I) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [History]

Consider the following statements about the Jorwe culture of the Deccan: 1. It covers, practically, the whole of modern Maharashtra except the coastal Konkan district. 2. The Pravara-Godavari valleys seem to have been the nuclear zone. 3. The large sites of this culture yield evidence of shifting agriculture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Jorwe culture (c. 1400–700 BCE) covered most of Maharashtra except Konkan, with the Pravara-Godavari valley as its nuclear zone. However, large Jorwe sites show evidence of settled (not shifting) agriculture, making statement 3 incorrect.

Q.2 [History]

Consider the following statements about Madurai, the capital city of the Pandya kingdom: 1. It has been described in Maduraikkanchi as a large grand city, enclosed by walls on three sides and the Vaigai river on the fourth side. 2. The Arthashastra mentions it as a centre of fine cotton textiles. 3. Other literary sources describe it as a major craft centre. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Maduraikkanchi describes Madurai enclosed by walls on three sides with the Vaigai on the fourth, and the Arthashastra mentions it as a centre of fine cotton textiles — both are correct. However, Madurai is primarily described as a trade city rather than a major craft centre in other literary sources, making statement 3 doubtful; the best-supported answer is 1 and 2 only.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.3 [History]

Consider the following statements about Sawai Jai Singh's astronomical work: 1. He learnt of the accuracy of European observations, and obtained de La Hire's tables from which he reproduced a refraction table. 2. His astronomers also developed a telescope of their own to observe the lunar phases of Venus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Sawai Jai Singh did obtain de La Hire's tables and reproduced a refraction table from them. However, his astronomers used existing European telescopes; they did not independently develop a telescope to observe the lunar phases of Venus — that claim is incorrect.

Q.4 [History]

Man Kautuhal, a work on music, was prepared under the aegis of

(a) Raja Man Singh of Gwalior ✓
(b) Tansen
(c) Meera Bai
(d) Amir Khusrau

Explanation: Man Kautuhal is a celebrated medieval treatise on music composed under the patronage of Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior (15th–16th century), who was a great promoter of Hindustani classical music.

Q.5 [Polity / Social Welfare]

Consider the following statements regarding the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan: 1. This programme is initiated by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. 2. It aims to develop an inclusive society for persons with disabilities. 3. It has provisions of pension for persons with disabilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Explanation: Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) is launched by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities and aims at creating an inclusive and barrier-free environment. It does not include provisions for pension, making statement 3 incorrect.

Q.6 [History]

Which one among the following was not a part of the action programme of the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(a) The Congress organisation was to reach down to the village and the Mohalla level
(b) Boycott of government affiliated schools and colleges
(c) Taking control of the law and order machinery of the State by the Congress Working Committee ✓
(d) Surrender of titles and honours given by the government

Explanation: The Non-Cooperation Movement's programme included surrendering titles, boycotting government schools and courts, and building Congress organisation at grassroots levels. Taking control of the State's law and order machinery was not part of it — that would have been a direct seizure of power, which Gandhi explicitly rejected.

Q.7 [History]

Consider the following statements about the Mauryan State and the forest people: 1. The forest people were subjected to new forms of political and economic dominance and the necessity to subordinate and assimilate them led to a change in the earlier attitude of excluding these people from imperial territory. 2. The State recognised that the forest produce was the sole monopoly of the forest people. 3. The State was concerned with the conservation of forests and to this end the burning of forests was prohibited. 4. The forest people could be harnessed to serve the State and could be used as troops, spies and assassins. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3 ✓
(d) 4

Explanation: Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct based on Mauryan sources including the Arthashastra — the state integrated forest people, prohibited forest burning, and used them as auxiliary forces. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Mauryan state claimed state control over forest produce, not the exclusive monopoly of forest people.

Q.8 [History]

At which of the following places was diamond mining carried out during the Delhi Sultanate period?

(a) Awadh
(b) Khambhat
(c) Panna ✓
(d) Lakhnauti

Explanation: Panna in Madhya Pradesh was the historically renowned diamond-mining region of medieval India, known for diamond extraction during the Delhi Sultanate and later Mughal period. The Golconda mines became famous later; Panna is the correct answer for this period.

Q.9 [Science & Technology]

Which one of the following statements is true for James Webb Space Telescope launched in December 2021?

(a) It orbits the Sun, about 15 lakh km away from the Earth. ✓
(b) It orbits the Earth, about 15 lakh km away.
(c) It is stationary in space nearly 10 lakh km away from the Earth.
(d) It revolves around the Moon nearly 3.5 lakh km away from the Earth.

Explanation: The James Webb Space Telescope is positioned at the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point, approximately 1.5 million km (15 lakh km) from Earth, where it orbits the Sun in synchrony with the Earth.

Q.10 [Science & Technology]

Which of the following particles are subatomic particles? 1. Electron 2. Proton 3. Neutron 4. Muon Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: All four — electron, proton, neutron, and muon — are subatomic particles. The muon is a lepton (like the electron) and is classified as a subatomic particle in particle physics.

Q.11 [Science & Technology]

Qubit refers to a two-valued quantity used in

(a) classical computers
(b) classical cryptography
(c) quantum computers ✓
(d) lasers

Explanation: A qubit (quantum bit) is the basic unit of quantum information used in quantum computers; unlike classical bits that are 0 or 1, qubits can exist in superposition of both states simultaneously.

Q.12 [Science & Technology]

Photo 51 refers to an image of

(a) a crater on the Moon
(b) DNA molecules ✓
(c) the virus responsible for COVID-19
(d) the virus responsible for common cold

Explanation: Photo 51 is the famous X-ray diffraction image of DNA taken by Rosalind Franklin and Raymond Gosling in 1952, which was crucial evidence for Watson and Crick in determining the double-helix structure of DNA.

Q.13 [Science & Technology]

The rest mass of Higgs boson is estimated to be close to

(a) 0.5 MeV
(b) 900 MeV
(c) 100 GeV ✓
(d) 1000 GeV

Explanation: The Higgs boson was discovered at CERN in 2012 with a rest mass of approximately 125–126 GeV, which is closest to the 100 GeV option among the choices given.

Q.14 [Science & Technology]

Which one of the following correctly describes the principle of the working of an atomic clock?

(a) Vibration of a small quartz crystal
(b) Simple harmonic motion of atoms inside a crystal
(c) Resonant frequency in cesium (or rubidium) atom ✓
(d) Excitation and de-excitation of hydrogen atoms

Explanation: Atomic clocks work on the principle of microwave resonance frequency of atoms — typically cesium-133 atoms, whose hyperfine transition frequency (9,192,631,770 Hz) defines the SI second.

Q.15 [Polity / Political Theory]

Political analysis involves both normative and empirical approaches. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the two approaches? 1. Knowledge acquired through the empirical approach is value-loaded. 2. Knowledge acquired through the normative approach is objectively neutral. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Explanation: In political science, the empirical approach aims to be value-free/objective, while the normative approach is value-laden (concerned with what ought to be). Both statements reverse this, so neither is correct.

Q.16 [Polity / Political Theory]

Which one amongst the following cannot be a feature of a 'totalitarian regime'?

(a) State control of the political and often personal realms of individual life
(b) A monopoly of the means of mass communication
(c) One-party State
(d) Autonomy of civil society ✓

Explanation: Totalitarian regimes are characterised by total state control, single-party rule, and monopoly over communication and individual life. Autonomy of civil society is the opposite of totalitarianism — independent civil society cannot exist under a totalitarian regime.

Q.17 [International Relations]

Which of the following statements are not correct? 1. In world politics, 'hard power' can be exercised by both States and other actors involving use of threat or coercion. 2. Globalisation is necessarily economic, not cultural. 3. The term 'Washington Consensus' refers to a policy that seeks intervention in the market. 4. 'Autarky' is generally understood as economic 'self-sufficiency'. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect — globalisation is both economic and cultural. Statement 3 is incorrect — the Washington Consensus advocates free-market policies and reduced government intervention, not intervention. Statements 1 and 4 are correct, so only 2 and 3 are not correct.

Q.18 [Polity]

Consider the following statements: 1. Under Part III of the Constitution of India, individuals can enforce rights guaranteed by this Part when they are violated by the action of a government authority. 2. Under Part III of the Constitution of India, individuals can enforce rights guaranteed by this Part when they are violated by not only the action of a government authority, but also by its inaction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Fundamental Rights under Part III can be enforced both against positive actions (commission) and inaction (omission) by the State. The Supreme Court has held through various judgments that the State's failure to act can also constitute a violation of fundamental rights, making both statements correct.

Q.19 [International Relations / Polity]

Consider the following statements: 1. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) provides that everyone shall have the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law. 2. Although India agrees in principle with the ethos of ICCPR, it has not yet ratified it fully. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Article 16 of ICCPR grants every person the right to recognition as a person before the law. Statement 2 is incorrect — India ratified the ICCPR in 1979 without reservations on most articles, so it has ratified it.

Q.20 [Polity]

Which of the following statements with respect to the right to have legal aid is/are correct? 1. Under the Constitution of India, it is given under the Directive Principles of State Policy. 2. It is the duty of the police to inform the nearest Legal Aid Committee immediately after the arrest of a person. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Article 39A of the Constitution (DPSP) provides for equal justice and free legal aid. The Supreme Court has also held and various legal aid regulations require that upon arrest, the police must inform the nearest Legal Aid Committee, making both statements correct.

Q.21 [International Relations]

Which of the following statements as per the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is/are correct? 1. The Declaration provides that everyone has a right to seek and enjoy in other country's asylum from prosecution in respect of political crimes. 2. The Declaration provides that everyone has the freedom from arbitrary deprival of nationality, except for the freedom to change nationality. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Explanation: Article 14 of UDHR states the right to seek asylum does not apply in the case of prosecutions genuinely arising from non-political crimes or from acts contrary to UN purposes — and the asylum right is from 'persecution', not 'prosecution'. Article 15 states everyone has the right to a nationality and no one shall be arbitrarily deprived of nationality nor denied the right to change nationality — statement 2 contradicts this by implying the right to change nationality is excluded. Both statements are incorrectly framed.

Q.22 [International Organisations]

Which of the following UN organisations has been awarded with Nobel Prize twice?

(a) ILO
(b) IAEA
(c) UNHCR ✓
(d) UNICEF

Explanation: UNHCR (United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees) has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice — in 1954 and 1981. IAEA and its Director General El Baradei won jointly in 2005, but that counts as one award for IAEA.

Q.23 [Biology / Science]

Which of the following statements is/are correct about vaccination that provides protection against an infectious disease? 1. It blocks the entry of the infectious agent into body. 2. It produces antibodies against infection. 3. It kills the infectious agent when it enters in the body. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Vaccines work by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies (statement 2 is correct). Vaccines do not physically block entry of pathogens nor directly kill pathogens; they prime the immune system to respond faster and more effectively upon future exposure.

Q.24 [Biology / Science]

Which cells in human body have no nucleus?

(a) Muscle cells
(b) Phagocytic cells
(c) Red blood cells ✓
(d) Ciliated cells

Explanation: Mature red blood cells (erythrocytes) in humans lack a nucleus — they lose it during maturation to maximise space for haemoglobin. All other listed cell types retain their nuclei.

Q.25 [Environment]

The use of plastics has led to a number of environment-related problems. For this,

(a) They are non-biodegradable. ✓
(b) They do not get released into water and food.
(c) They do not have any biochemical synthesis activity.
(d) They are harmless to humans.

Explanation: Plastics cause environmental problems primarily because they are non-biodegradable and persist in the environment for hundreds of years. Options b, c, and d are factually incorrect as plastics do leach into water/food and can be harmful.

Q.26 [Biology / Science]

Microbodies found to be present in plant and animal cells contain

(a) broken down membranes
(b) enzymes ✓
(c) acidic fluids
(d) waste metabolites

Explanation: Microbodies (such as peroxisomes and glyoxysomes) are membrane-bound organelles that contain enzymes involved in metabolic reactions like oxidation of fatty acids and detoxification of hydrogen peroxide.

Q.27 [Biology / Science]

An antibacterial enzyme present in saliva and tears is called

(a) ribozyme
(b) lipase
(c) lysozyme ✓
(d) isomerase

Explanation: Lysozyme is an antibacterial enzyme found in saliva, tears, and mucus. It works by breaking down peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls, causing bacterial lysis.

Q.28 [Biology / Science]

Which set of vegetables is underground stem or modified stem of a plant?

(a) Potato, artichoke, round gourd
(b) Onion, garlic, carrot
(c) Potato, onion, garlic ✓
(d) Potato, garlic, turnip

Explanation: Potato (tuber), onion (bulb), and garlic (bulb) are all modified underground stems. Carrot and turnip are modified roots, not stems. Round gourd is a fruit. Artichoke is a flower head.

Q.29 [Economics / Monetary Policy]

Which of the following indicators is/are used to observe the monetary transmission mechanism in the economy? 1. Weighted average lending rate 2. Weighted average domestic term deposit rate 3. 1-year median MCLR 4. SDF rate Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 only

Explanation: The RBI monitors the monetary transmission mechanism through indicators including weighted average lending rate, weighted average domestic term deposit rate, and 1-year median MCLR. The SDF rate is a policy instrument (floor of LAF corridor), not a transmission monitoring indicator per se.

Q.30 [Economics / Monetary Policy]

Consider the following statements regarding instruments of monetary policy: 1. Standing deposit facility (SDF) rate was introduced in April 2022. 2. SDF rate replaced fixed reverse repo rate as the floor of the LAF corridor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The SDF was introduced by the RBI in April 2022 (in the April 2022 Monetary Policy Committee meeting), and it replaced the fixed reverse repo rate as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor.

Q.31 [Economics / Inflation]

Consider the following statements regarding weightage of different articles in Wholesale Price Index (WPI): 1. Fuel and power have higher weightage in WPI than that of primary articles. 2. Weightage of manufactured products in WPI is higher than that of fuel and power. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: In India's WPI (base year 2011-12), the weightage is: Primary articles ~22.62%, Fuel and power ~13.15%, Manufactured products ~64.23%. So statement 1 is wrong (primary articles have higher weightage than fuel and power) and statement 2 is correct (manufactured products have the highest weightage).

Q.32 [Economics / Trade]

If India enters into Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with other nations, then the growth of exports of India would depend upon which of the following? 1. Extent of tariff reduction vis-a-vis MFN tariffs 2. Extent of relaxation in terms of rules of origin 3. Extent of relaxation in sanitary and phytosanitary measures 4. Level of infrastructure in India 5. Income in nations with which India enters into FTAs Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 ✓

Explanation: All five factors influence the growth of India's exports under FTAs: tariff reductions determine cost competitiveness, rules of origin affect eligibility for preferential rates, SPS measures affect market access for agricultural goods, domestic infrastructure determines supply-side capacity, and partner country income determines import demand.

Q.33 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

(a) MgO
(b) P₄O₁₀
(c) Na₂O
(d) Al₂O₃ ✓

Explanation: Al₂O₃ (aluminium oxide) is amphoteric — it reacts with both acids and bases. MgO and Na₂O are basic oxides, while P₄O₁₀ is an acidic oxide.

Q.34 [Chemistry]

The correct order of octane number of butane, pentane, hexane and cyclohexane is

(a) butane > pentane > hexane > cyclohexane
(b) butane > pentane > cyclohexane > hexane ✓
(c) butane > cyclohexane > pentane > hexane
(d) cyclohexane > butane > pentane > hexane

Explanation: Octane numbers: butane ~94, pentane ~62, cyclohexane ~83, hexane ~25. So the correct order is butane > cyclohexane > pentane > hexane — which matches option c. However, standard reference values: n-butane RON ~94, n-pentane ~62, cyclohexane ~83, n-hexane ~25. The correct order is butane (94) > cyclohexane (83) > pentane (62) > hexane (25), which is option c.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.35 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the correct order of reactivity of Mg, Al, Zn and Fe with HCl?

(a) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe ✓
(b) Mg > Al > Fe > Zn
(c) Zn > Fe > Mg > Al
(d) Fe > Al > Zn > Mg

Explanation: The reactivity series order for these metals is Mg > Al > Zn > Fe. Magnesium is most reactive with HCl, followed by aluminium, then zinc, then iron. This matches the electrochemical series / activity series of metals.

Q.36 [Chemistry]

Methanol is toxic because

(a) methanol coagulates the protoplasm
(b) methanol gets oxidised to methanal in liver which coagulates the protoplasm ✓
(c) methanol gets oxidised to acetic acid in liver which coagulates the protoplasm
(d) methanol gets oxidised to CO in liver which coagulates the protoplasm

Explanation: Methanol is metabolised in the liver by alcohol dehydrogenase to methanal (formaldehyde), which then further oxidises to methanoic acid (formic acid). Formaldehyde coagulates protoplasm and causes damage to the optic nerve and other tissues, leading to blindness and death.

Q.37 [Chemistry]

Vinegar is

(a) 5–8% solution of acetic acid in water ✓
(b) 5–8% solution of carbonic acid in water
(c) 5–8% solution of ethanol in water
(d) 10–15% solution of propionic acid in water

Explanation: Vinegar is a dilute aqueous solution of acetic acid (ethanoic acid), typically containing 5–8% acetic acid by volume. It is produced by fermentation of ethanol.

Q.38 [Environment]

Which one of the following is related to global dimming?

(a) Fall of atmospheric pressure due to increased particulates
(b) Raise of atmospheric pressure due to increased particulates
(c) Raise of temperature due to increased particulates
(d) Fall of temperature due to increased particulates ✓

Explanation: Global dimming refers to the gradual reduction in the amount of sunlight reaching Earth's surface. It is caused by increased particulates (aerosols, soot) in the atmosphere that reflect and absorb solar radiation, leading to a fall in temperature at the surface.

Q.39 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is known as cetane?

(a) Hexadecane ✓
(b) Heptadecane
(c) Octadecane
(d) Nonadecane

Explanation: Cetane is the common name for hexadecane (C₁₆H₃₄), a 16-carbon straight-chain alkane. It is used as the reference standard for measuring the cetane number of diesel fuel, similar to how octane is used for petrol.

Q.40 [Geography]

Which one among the following countries is not part of the Arabian Peninsula?

(a) Kuwait
(b) Oman
(c) Jordan ✓
(d) Yemen

Explanation: Jordan is not part of the Arabian Peninsula; it is located to the northwest of the peninsula in the Levant region. Kuwait, Oman, and Yemen are all countries located on the Arabian Peninsula.

Q.41 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding continent of Antarctica is/are correct? 1. It has the highest average elevation as compared to all other continents. 2. Mount Vinson is the highest peak of this continent. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Antarctica has the highest mean elevation (~2,300 m) of all continents due to its thick ice sheet. Mount Vinson (4,892 m) is indeed its highest peak, so both statements are correct.

Q.42 [Geography]

Which one of the following biosphere reserves is spread over three States in India?

(a) Nilgiri ✓
(b) Achanakmar-Amarkantak
(c) Seshachalam
(d) Agasthyamalai

Explanation: The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve spans three states — Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka — making it the only option here that covers three states.

Q.43 [Geography]

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Ramnagar Wildlife Sanctuary : Uttarakhand
(b) Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary : Assam
(c) Nahar Wildlife Sanctuary : Haryana
(d) Kane Wildlife Sanctuary : Arunachal Pradesh ✓

Explanation: Kane (Kani) Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Himachal Pradesh, not Arunachal Pradesh, making this pair incorrectly matched.

Q.44 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding coconut production in Lakshadweep is/are correct? 1. Productivity per hectare is highest in India. 2. Oil content in nuts is highest in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Lakshadweep has the highest coconut productivity per hectare in India, and the coconuts from Lakshadweep are known for having the highest oil content in the world. Both statements are correct.

Q.45 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding barrier islands is/are correct? 1. These are small chain of sand islands that form offshore, far from the coast. 2. Lagoons or shallower marshes separate the barrier islands from the mainland. 3. Such locations are hazardous for settlements because they are easily swept away by storms and hurricanes. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Barrier islands form close to (not far from) the coast, so statement 1 is incorrect. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: lagoons/marshes do separate them from the mainland, and they are indeed hazardous for settlements due to storm vulnerability.

Q.46 [Geography]

Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics: 1. High, thin, puffy white clouds of ice crystals that look like ripples 2. They appear between 20,000 feet and 40,000 feet above the Earth's surface 3. One of its types is called a 'mackerel sky' because the clouds resemble large fish scales, especially when they are coloured pink at sunset Select the correct answer.

(a) Altostratus
(b) Cirrostratus
(c) Altocumulus
(d) Cirrocumulus ✓

Explanation: Cirrocumulus clouds are high-altitude ice-crystal clouds that appear as small, rippled or puffy white patches and are associated with the 'mackerel sky' phenomenon. They form between 20,000 and 40,000 feet.

Q.47 [Geography]

Identify the type of drainage pattern on the basis of the given characteristics: 1. It represents the most common pattern of streams and their tributaries 2. It occurs in areas of uniform rock type and regular slope 3. A map, or aerial photograph, shows a pattern like the veins on a leaf—smaller streams join the main stream at an acute angle Select the correct answer.

(a) Dendritic ✓
(b) Radial
(c) Trellis
(d) Centripetal

Explanation: Dendritic drainage is the most common pattern, develops on uniform rock without structural control, and resembles a tree or leaf-vein with tributaries joining the main stream at acute angles.

Q.48 [Geography]

Which of the following regarding gateway city is/are correct? 1. City whose physical location makes it a link between one country and others, or between one region and others 2. A gateway city exercises control over a large area because it commands the entry and exit rights and powers for a particular country or region 3. Most gateway cities are ports, many of which were formerly administrative centres for a colonial government Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements accurately describe gateway cities: their linking geographic role, their control over entry/exit for a region, and their historical association with port cities that served as colonial administrative centres.

Q.49 [History / Art]

Which one of the following has been an important early Chola painting discovered at the Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur in 1931?

(a) Buddha with Chauri-bearers on either side
(b) Shiva as Yoga-Dakshinamurti ✓
(c) Yakshi Kali
(d) Parshvanatha with snake-hood on a lion-throne

Explanation: The famous early Chola paintings discovered at the Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur in 1931 (found beneath later Nayaka-period paintings) include depictions of Shiva, and Shiva as Yoga-Dakshinamurti is the well-known early Chola panel painting found there.

Q.50 [History]

Consider the following statements about the initial development of railways in India by the British: 1. Private financial investors for railways would get land free from the British Government in India. 2. The investors would get a return of 5 percent on their capital from the government if they ran at a loss or secured inadequate profit. 3. The railways would be jointly managed with the government. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: investors received free land grants and a guaranteed 5% return on capital. Statement 3 is incorrect — railways were privately managed, not jointly managed with the government, under the guarantee system.

Q.51 [History]

Which of the following industries was most affected by the 'deindustrialisation' of India in the 19th century?

(a) Silk manufacture
(b) Cotton textiles ✓
(c) Iron and steel
(d) Woolen manufacture

Explanation: Cotton textiles were the most severely affected industry during deindustrialisation in 19th-century India, as cheap machine-made British cotton flooded Indian markets and destroyed the traditional handloom weaving industry.

Q.52 [History]

Consider the following statements about the early phase of the National Movement in India: 1. Ferozeshah Mehta, Badruddin Tyabji and others formed the Bombay Presidency Association. 2. Surendranath Banerjee and his group planned an Indian National Conference at Calcutta. 3. Allan Octavian Hume decided to create an all-India body as a rival to the above organisations to give vent to the grievances of the poor and marginalised Indians. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) All
(d) None

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect — A.O. Hume intended the INC as a safety valve for educated Indian grievances, not specifically as a rival organization to give vent to the poor and marginalised; the characterization and intent described is historically inaccurate.

Q.53 [Science & Technology]

The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope consists of

(a) a single parabolic antenna
(b) multiple parabolic antennas ✓
(c) multiple circular antennas
(d) a combination of circular and parabolic antennas

Explanation: The GMRT, located near Pune, India, consists of 30 fully steerable parabolic dish antennas, each 45 metres in diameter, spread over a 25-km baseline.

Q.54 [Science & Technology]

Which one of the following is the first commercial space station?

(a) Axiom Station ✓
(b) International Space Station
(c) Galileo
(d) Voyager 1

Explanation: Axiom Station, being developed by Axiom Space, is planned to be the world's first commercial space station. ISS is a governmental/intergovernmental station, Galileo is a navigation system, and Voyager 1 is a space probe.

Q.55 [Science & Technology]

Which one of the following is not a ferromagnetic material?

(a) Cobalt
(b) Iron
(c) Silver ✓
(d) Ferric chloride

Explanation: Iron and cobalt are classic ferromagnetic materials. Ferric chloride is ferrimagnetic/paramagnetic. Silver is diamagnetic and is definitively not a ferromagnetic material.

Q.56 [Science & Technology]

On a day when I am in hurry to go to office, I have a fixed quantity of rice which was just cooked and kept in a bowl. In order to cool it quickly, which one of the following is the best option?

(a) Let it be kept on the table in a room where there is no fan, no air conditioner
(b) Let it be kept in a room with AC set at a temperature around 23°C and a ceiling fan (or table fan) operating at slow speed
(c) Let it be kept in a bowl of water (at room temperature) and operating a ceiling fan (or table fan) at full speed ✓
(d) Let it be kept in a bowl of water at room temperature only

Explanation: Placing the bowl in water at room temperature maximises heat conduction (water conducts heat ~25x better than air), and running a fan at full speed increases evaporation and convective cooling of the water, making this the fastest cooling option.

Q.57 [Environment & Ecology]

Which of the following statements about 'Marrakech Partnership' is/are correct? 1. It is an intergovernmental partnership for global climate action. 2. It is not only an intergovernmental partnership for global climate action but also a collaboration between governments and other stakeholders like cities, businesses and investors. 3. This partnership is guided by the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only ✓

Explanation: The Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action is explicitly a multi-stakeholder platform involving non-party stakeholders (cities, businesses, investors) alongside governments — so it is not purely intergovernmental (statement 1 is wrong). Statement 3 is also not accurate as its guidance framework is the Paris Agreement, not the 2030 Agenda. Only statement 2 correctly describes it.

Q.58 [Polity]

Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Special Marriage Act protects an individual if one enters into an interreligious marriage. 2. Right to marry a person of one's choice is an integral aspect of one's Fundamental Rights under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. 3. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights also resonates marital rights of every adult consenting individuals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 1 only

Explanation: All three statements are correct: the Special Marriage Act (1954) enables and protects interfaith/interreligious marriages; the Supreme Court has held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is part of Article 21; and Article 16 of the UDHR recognises the right of adults to marry and found a family.

Q.59 [Polity / International Relations]

Which of the following statements about the International Court of Justice is/are correct? 1. The Court consists of members, wherein two members cannot be nationals of the same State. 2. The General Assembly and the Security Council proceed independently of one another to elect the members of the Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: the ICJ Statute (Article 3) provides that no two judges can be nationals of the same state, and Article 8 stipulates that the General Assembly and Security Council elect judges independently and simultaneously.

Q.60 [Science & Technology]

Consider the following statements regarding Bhoonidhi Vista: 1. It is a data visualisation service of Bhoonidhi providing full resolution mosaicked data visualisation capability through Web Map Service. 2. It is enabled for ResourceSat-2/2A, Sentinel 1 and 2 satellites. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Bhoonidhi Vista is ISRO's data visualisation service offering full-resolution mosaicked imagery via Web Map Service (WMS), and it supports data from ResourceSat-2/2A as well as Sentinel-1 and Sentinel-2 satellites. Both statements are correct.

Q.61 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following were objectives of the G20 Summit, 2023 under India's Presidency? 1. Green development 2. Accelerating progress on SDGs 3. Women-led development Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: India's G20 Presidency in 2023 (theme: 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam') had all three as priorities: Green Development, Climate Finance & LiFE; Accelerating SDGs; and Women-led Development were among the six key priority areas.

Q.62 [Biology]

The causal organism of dengue fever is a mosquito-borne virus which belongs to which one among the following categories?

(a) Flavi-ribo virus ✓
(b) Adenovirus
(c) Vaccinia virus
(d) Nipah virus

Explanation: Dengue virus belongs to the family Flaviviridae (genus Flavivirus), which are single-stranded, positive-sense RNA (ribo) viruses, hence classified as a flavi-ribo virus.

Q.63 [Biology]

From which among the following are blood clotting factors released?

(a) RBCs
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Platelets ✓
(d) Monocytes

Explanation: Platelets (thrombocytes) release clotting factors and play the primary role in haemostasis; upon activation they release substances that initiate the coagulation cascade.

Q.64 [Biology]

Pulse is felt due to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the

(a) chambers of heart
(b) valves present in veins
(c) aorta and main arteries ✓
(d) valves of heart

Explanation: The pulse is felt at peripheral arteries because each heartbeat sends a pressure wave through the aorta and main arteries; their elastic walls expand and recoil rhythmically, creating the palpable pulse.

Q.65 [Biology / Chemistry]

When eggs are heated, the transparent liquid portion around yolk turns solid and turbid white. This happens due to the thermal denaturation of

(a) fats
(b) proteins ✓
(c) ribose sugar
(d) carbohydrates

Explanation: Egg white (albumen) consists mainly of proteins such as ovalbumin. Heat causes these proteins to denature and coagulate, turning the transparent liquid into an opaque white solid.

Q.66 [Economics]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. GDP deflator captures the average price of an unchanging basket of commodities that constitutes the GDP of the country. 2. GDP deflator can be used to measure the real GDP of the economy but not the inflation rate. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong: the GDP deflator uses a changing basket (all goods and services in GDP), not an unchanging one. Statement 2 is also wrong: the GDP deflator is widely used to measure inflation as well as to derive real GDP.

Q.67 [Economics]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A price index captures the change in the average price of a constant basket of commodities. 2. If the price index takes values 100, 110 and 121 in three consecutive years respectively, then the inflation rates in the 2nd and 3rd years are 10% and 21% respectively. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — price indices like CPI use a fixed basket. Statement 2 is incorrect: the inflation rate in year 3 is ((121−110)/110)×100 ≈ 10%, not 21% (21% would be the cumulative rise from the base year, not the annual rate).

Q.68 [Economics]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Most of India's reserves is held in the form of foreign currency. 2. There is no cost of holding foreign currency as reserves by a nation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — the bulk of India's foreign exchange reserves comprises foreign currency assets. Statement 2 is incorrect — holding foreign currency as reserves has an opportunity cost (foregone domestic investment returns) and exchange-rate risk.

Q.69 [Economics]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The market mechanism overproduces a good that generates positive externality.
(b) A cap and trade of pollution permits can be used by the government to achieve the social optimum.
(c) The optimal amount of subsidy in the case of an activity that produces a positive externality is the difference between the social benefit and the private benefit at the optimum.
(d) Tragedy of Commons is an example of negative externality. ✓

Explanation: Tragedy of the Commons refers to overexploitation of a common-pool resource, which is a market failure related to property rights and excludability, not strictly a negative externality in the Pigouvian sense. The other statements are standard results from welfare economics.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.70 [Polity / Economics]

Which one of the following statements regarding GST is not correct?

(a) Amendment 115 to the Constitution of India kept alcohol for human use and five petroleum products outside the ambit of GST.
(b) Amendment 122 to the Constitution of India kept only alcohol for human use outside the ambit of GST. ✓
(c) Precious metals are taxed at a rate of 1% under GST.
(d) Unworked diamond is taxed at a rate of 0.25%.

Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (introduced as the 122nd Amendment Bill) kept both alcohol for human consumption AND five petroleum products (petroleum crude, high-speed diesel, motor spirit, natural gas, aviation turbine fuel) outside the GST ambit — not alcohol alone. Thus option (b) is incorrect.

Q.71 [Economics]

Which of the following statements with regard to the Report of Tendulkar Committee (2009) on poverty estimates is/are correct? 1. The Committee had used an all-India urban poverty line basket as a reference to derive both rural and urban poverty levels. 2. The Committee had anchored the poverty line to the official food calorie norms. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Tendulkar Committee used the urban poverty line basket as the reference and derived rural poverty from it. Statement 2 is incorrect — the committee explicitly moved away from anchoring the poverty line to calorie norms, which was a departure from the earlier Lakdawala methodology.

Q.72 [Polity / Economics]

Which of the following components of Central Government taxes on petroleum products is/are not shareable with the States? 1. Basic Excise Duty 2. Additional Excise Duty 3. Special Additional Excise Duty Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: Basic Excise Duty (CENVAT) is part of the shareable divisible pool. Additional Excise Duty (AED) and Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on petroleum are surcharges/cesses and are not shared with the states; hence options 2 and 3 are not shareable.

Q.73 [Economics]

Level of per capita GDP depends upon which of the following? 1. Proportion of population in the working age 2. Work participation rate 3. Per worker productivity Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Per capita GDP = (working-age share of population) × (work participation rate) × (output per worker). All three factors — demographic structure, labour force participation, and labour productivity — jointly determine per capita GDP.

Q.74 [Economics]

Which of the following are included in M1 definition of money for the Indian economy? 1. Reserves 2. Currency 3. Time deposits 4. Demand deposits Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 ✓
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: M1 (narrow money) in India = Currency with the public + Demand deposits with banks. Time deposits are part of M3 (broad money), and bank reserves are not included in the public money supply definition of M1.

Q.75 [Economics]

Which one of the following statements is not correct for National Income Accounting for India?

(a) Imports are subtracted in calculating Gross Domestic Product.
(b) Net factor payments earned from abroad are included in Gross Domestic Product. ✓
(c) Purchase and sale of second-hand goods are not included in Gross Domestic Product.
(d) Inventories are included in Gross Domestic Capital Formation.

Explanation: Net factor income from abroad (NFIA) is added to GDP to arrive at GNP, not included in GDP itself. By definition, GDP measures only domestic production regardless of who owns the factors; NFIA is excluded from GDP.

Q.76 [Economics]

Under normal downward sloping demand curve and fully elastic supply curve of a commodity, an exogenous decrease in demand would lead to

(a) increase in equilibrium price and quantity
(b) decrease in equilibrium price and quantity
(c) decrease in equilibrium quantity and no change in price ✓
(d) increase in equilibrium price and no change in quantity

Explanation: A perfectly (fully) elastic supply curve is horizontal, meaning price is fixed. A leftward shift in demand along a horizontal supply curve reduces equilibrium quantity but leaves the price unchanged.

Q.77 [Chemistry]

The correct order of atomic radius of Li, Na, Be and O is

(a) Na > Li > Be > O ✓
(b) Na > Be > Li > O
(c) Be > Li > Na > O
(d) O > Be > Li > Na

Explanation: Atomic radius increases down a group and decreases across a period. Na (Period 3) > Li (Period 2) in Group 1; Be (Period 2, Group 2) > O (Period 2, Group 16) because radius decreases across Period 2. Hence Na > Li > Be > O.

Q.78 [Chemistry]

Which of the following catalytic systems is used for the reduction of unsaturated hydrocarbon to saturated hydrocarbon?

(a) Copper and H₂
(b) Iron and H₂
(c) Zinc and H₂
(d) Nickel and H₂ ✓

Explanation: Catalytic hydrogenation of unsaturated hydrocarbons (alkenes/alkynes) uses finely divided nickel (Raney nickel) as catalyst with hydrogen gas — this is the standard Sabatier-type hydrogenation reaction.

Q.79 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following has the highest ionic character?

(a) BeF₂
(b) SiO₂
(c) NCl₃
(d) K₂S ✓

Explanation: Ionic character is highest when electronegativity difference between bonded atoms is largest. K (electronegativity ~0.82) and S (2.58) give a difference of ~1.76, which is the largest among the options; K₂S is predominantly ionic compared to the partially covalent BeF₂, SiO₂, and NCl₃.

Q.80 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding ice-cap climate is/are correct? 1. In the Koeppen climate classification, the ice-cap climate is signified by the letters EF. 2. It is the Earth's most severe climate, where the mean monthly temperature is never above 0 degree Celsius. 3. This climate is found in the Pir Panjal and the Great Himalayas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: EF denotes ice-cap climate in Koeppen's scheme, and the mean monthly temperature remains at or below 0°C throughout the year. Statement 3 is incorrect — EF climate is found in Antarctica and Greenland ice sheets, not in the Pir Panjal or Great Himalayas (those regions have ET tundra or highland climates).

Q.81 [History]

Which of the following statements regarding the Industrial Revolution is/are correct? 1. It was change of a society from a rural and agricultural lifestyle to one in which most people earned their living in the industrial or secondary sector of the economy. 2. The first Industrial Revolution began in Germany in the early eighteenth century. 3. During Industrial Revolution, technological advances in iron smelting, and later steel production, were accompanied by the invention of steam engine. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — the Industrial Revolution transformed societies from agrarian to industrial. Statement 2 is incorrect — the first Industrial Revolution began in Britain (not Germany) in the late 18th century. Statement 3 is correct — advances in iron/steel and the steam engine were hallmarks of the Industrial Revolution.

Q.82 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding insolation is/are correct? 1. Insolation is predominantly short-wave radiation, with wavelengths in the range of 0.39 micrometre to 0.76 micrometre. 2. Insolation is evenly distributed across the Earth because of the Earth's curved surface. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — solar insolation is short-wave radiation in the visible spectrum (roughly 0.2–4 micrometres, with peak around 0.5 µm). Statement 2 is incorrect — insolation is unevenly distributed precisely because of the Earth's curved surface (lower angle at higher latitudes means less intensity).

Q.83 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding river meanders is/are correct? 1. It is a U-shaped bend in a river. 2. An extremely tight meander is called a gooseneck; it is likely to become a cutoff, or oxbow lake, after a flood. 3. Tectonic uplift can cause a river to continue downcutting along its meandering course, producing incised or entrenched meanders. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct. A meander is a sinuous/U-shaped bend; extremely tight meanders called goosenecks can be cut off to form oxbow lakes; and tectonic uplift causes incised/entrenched meanders as the river downcuts while maintaining its meandering course.

Q.84 [Geography]

How can one determine the relative humidity on a particular day at a given place?

(a) If temperature is given
(b) If absolute humidity is given
(c) If both temperature and absolute humidity are given ✓
(d) If percentage of absolute humidity is given

Explanation: Relative humidity = (Absolute humidity / Saturation humidity at that temperature) × 100. Saturation humidity depends on temperature, so both temperature (to determine saturation capacity) and absolute humidity (actual moisture present) are needed to calculate relative humidity.

Q.85 [Geography]

Which greenhouse gas has maximum average residence time in the atmosphere?

(a) CFC ✓
(b) CH₄
(c) N₂O
(d) Water vapour

Explanation: CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) have extremely long atmospheric residence times — some lasting over 100 years (e.g., CFC-11 ~45 years, CFC-12 ~100 years), far exceeding CH₄ (~12 years), N₂O (~114 years — though N₂O is competitive), and water vapour (~9 days). Among the given options, CFCs have the longest residence time.

Q.86 [Geography]

What does BW stand for as per the Koeppen climate classification?

(a) Steppe climate
(b) Desert climate ✓
(c) Tundra climate
(d) Mesothermal climate

Explanation: In Koeppen's climate classification, 'B' denotes dry climates and 'W' (from German 'Wuste' meaning desert) denotes arid/desert conditions. Thus BW = hot desert climate (BWh) or cold desert climate (BWk).

Q.87 [Environment]

Which organisation publishes worldwide list of endangered species?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) ✓
(b) The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
(c) The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(d) The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Explanation: The IUCN publishes the Red List of Threatened Species, which is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the conservation status of plant and animal species, including the list of endangered species.

Q.88 [Geography]

On which among the following is National Waterway No. 2 situated?

(a) The Ganga, Haldia–Prayagraj
(b) West Coast Canal, Kottapuram–Kollam
(c) The Brahmaputra, Sadiya–Dhubri ✓
(d) Godavari and Krishna, Kakinada–Puducherry

Explanation: National Waterway No. 2 (NW-2) is on the river Brahmaputra, stretching from Sadiya to Dhubri in Assam, covering about 891 km. NW-1 is the Ganga (Haldia–Prayagraj).

Q.89 [Geography]

What is culturable wasteland?

(a) Land that has been left fallow in last four years
(b) Land that has been left fallow between one and two years
(c) Land that has been left fallow for less than one year
(d) Land that has been left fallow for more than five years ✓

Explanation: Culturable wasteland refers to land that has been left uncultivated for more than five years or more. It is land capable of being brought under cultivation but currently not in use, and is distinct from current fallow or other fallow lands.

Q.90 [Geography]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Angular velocity for all locations on the Earth's surface is the same while linear velocity varies. 2. Linear velocity is maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Earth rotates once in 24 hours, so angular velocity (360°/24h) is the same everywhere. Linear (tangential) velocity = angular velocity × radius; since the radius of rotation is greatest at the equator and zero at the poles, linear velocity is maximum at the equator and minimum (zero) at the poles.

Q.91 [History]

Consider the following statements about Rana Kumbha of Mewar: 1. He wrote a commentary on Jayadeva's Gitagovinda. 2. He wrote four dramas in which he is said to have made use of four provincial languages. 3. He erected Kirtistambha in Chitor in commemoration of his victory over Gujarat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct — Rana Kumbha wrote a commentary on Gitagovinda and composed four dramas using provincial languages. Statement 3 is incorrect — the Kirtistambha (Tower of Fame/Victory Tower) was erected to commemorate his victory over the combined forces of Gujarat and Malwa, not Gujarat alone; also, Vijay Stambha is the correct name for his victory pillar.

Q.92 [History]

Who among the following Chola kings encouraged the Sailendra ruler of Sri Vijaya to build a Buddhist Vihara in Negapatnam?

(a) Parantaka I
(b) Rajaraja I ✓
(c) Rajendra I
(d) Kulottunga I

Explanation: Rajaraja I (985–1014 CE) granted permission and helped the Sailendra king Maravijayottungavarman of Sri Vijaya to build a Buddhist vihara at Nagapattinam (Negapatnam). This reflects the diplomatic and religious exchanges between the Cholas and the Sailendra empire.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.93 [History]

Who among the following was not a court poet of king Krishnadevaraya?

(a) Timmana
(b) Dhurjati
(c) Mallana
(d) Siddheshvara ✓

Explanation: Krishnadevaraya's court had the Ashtadiggajas (eight celebrated Telugu poets) including Allasani Peddana, Nandi Timmana, Dhurjati, Mallana, Ayyalaraju Ramabhadrudu, Pingali Surana, Ramarajabhushana, and Tenali Ramakrishna. Siddheshvara was not among them.

Q.94 [History]

The royal portraits of Simhavishnu and Mahendravarman are found in which cave temple at Mamallapuram?

(a) Varaha Cave
(b) Ramanuja Cave
(c) Adivaraha Cave ✓
(d) Trimurti Cave

Explanation: The Adivaraha Cave (also called Adivaraha Mandapa) at Mamallapuram contains royal portraits/panels depicting the Pallava kings Simhavishnu and Mahendravarman I along with their consorts, making it a significant example of Pallava royal iconography.

Q.95 [History]

How many of the following statements about Bhakti poet Namdev is/are correct? 1. He seems to have played a part in transmitting the southern Bhakti to northern India. 2. He was a rigorous monotheist and opposed caste distinctions. 3. He was a devout follower of Kabir. Select the correct answer.

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct — Namdev (c. 1270–1350) did help transmit Bhakti traditions northward and was a strict monotheist who opposed caste. Statement 3 is incorrect — Namdev preceded Kabir (born c. 1440) by about a century, so he could not have been a follower of Kabir. Thus 2 statements are correct.

Q.96 [History]

How many of the following statements regarding medicine and related practices in medieval India is/are correct? 1. Indian medicine of the Graeco-Arabic tradition (Tibb-i-Yunani) was almost identical in its practice with contemporary Persian medicine. 2. Harvey's discovery of the circulation of blood was explained to a scholarly noble by European traveller Francois Bernier. 3. The practice of smallpox inoculation was described in contemporary Yunani and Ayurvedic texts. Select the correct answer.

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statement 2 is well documented — Bernier, who visited the Mughal court, did explain Harvey's theory of blood circulation to the noble Danishmand Khan. Statement 1 oversimplifies — Yunani in India developed distinct characteristics from Persian medicine. Statement 3 is doubtful as inoculation descriptions in contemporary texts are contested. Thus 1 statement (statement 2) is correct.

Q.97 [History]

Which of the following statements about Virashaivism is/are correct? 1. The Virashaivism traces its origin to the five great religious teachers—Renuka, Daruka, Ghantakarna, Dhenukarna and Vishvakarna. 2. The Virashaiva philosophy is called Shaktivishishtadvaita—the non-duality of God. 3. Ashtavarana are the eight rules of the Virashaivism to be observed by the followers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Explanation: All three statements are correct. Virashaivism (Lingayatism) traces its origin to the five Panchacharyas including Renuka and Daruka. The philosophy is termed Shaktivishishtadvaita (qualified non-dualism with Shakti). Ashtavarana refers to the eight shields/supports (guru, linga, jangama, padodaka, prasada, vibhuti, rudraksha, mantra) that followers must observe.

Q.98 [History]

Who propounded Kashmir Shaivism?

(a) Vasugupta ✓
(b) Abhinavagupta
(c) Ramakantha
(d) Ranganathacharya

Explanation: Vasugupta (c. 9th century CE) is credited with founding Kashmir Shaivism. He is said to have discovered the Shiva Sutras, which form the foundational text of this philosophical tradition. Abhinavagupta later systematized and elaborated on this tradition.

Q.99 [Polity]

Which one among the following is not under the jurisdiction of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

(a) The National Human Rights Commission
(b) The State Human Rights Commission
(c) The Human Rights Courts
(d) The Human Rights Council ✓

Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 establishes the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs), and Human Rights Courts. The Human Rights Council is a UN body (established 2006) and is not part of India's Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q.100 [Polity]

According to B. R. Ambedkar, which one among the following Articles is the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 23
(d) Article 32 ✓

Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. This article gives citizens the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights, making it the most essential guarantee of all other rights.

Q.101 [Polity]

Who among the following filed the Writ Petition that led to the famous verdict of the Supreme Court of India recognising the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right?

(a) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
(b) Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman
(c) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy ✓
(d) Justice Anil R. Dave

Explanation: Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) filed a Writ Petition challenging the Aadhaar scheme, which led to the landmark 2017 Supreme Court judgment in K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, unanimously recognising the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right under Article 21.

Q.102 [Polity]

Through the Forty Second Amendment to the Constitution of India, which of the following was/were inserted into its Preamble? 1. 'Liberty of thought, expression and belief' was substituted by 'Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship'. 2. The expression 'Unity of the Nation' was substituted by 'Unity and Integrity of the Nation'. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The 42nd Amendment (1976) added 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble — it changed 'Unity of the Nation' to 'Unity and Integrity of the Nation' (statement 2 is correct). The words 'faith and worship' were not added to the Liberty clause; those words were already in the original Preamble under the 'Liberty' clause, so statement 1 is incorrect.

Q.103 [Polity]

As per the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the States have jurisdiction over agricultural land in connection with which of the following subjects? 1. Taxes on agricultural income 2. Duties in respect of succession of agricultural land 3. Estate duty in respect of agricultural land Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three items — taxes on agricultural income (Entry 46), duties in respect of succession to agricultural land (Entry 47), and estate duty in respect of agricultural land (Entry 48) — are explicitly listed in the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule.

Q.104 [Current Affairs]

The 7th edition of the Indian Ocean Conference was held at

(a) Dhaka ✓
(b) New Delhi
(c) Malé
(d) Perth

Explanation: The 7th Indian Ocean Conference was held in Dhaka, Bangladesh in May 2023, with the theme 'Peace, Prosperity and Partnership for a Resilient Future'.

Q.105 [Polity]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Political idea) — List-II (Thinker) A. Human beings, unlike all other objects, possess dignity — 1. Aung San Suu Kyi B. It is Swaraj when we learn to rule ourselves — 2. Subhas Chandra Bose C. Freedom implies not only emancipation from political bondage but also equal distribution of wealth — 3. Immanuel Kant D. For me real freedom is freedom from fear — 4. Mahatma Gandhi Code: A B C D

(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 ✓
(d) 1 2 4 3

Explanation: Immanuel Kant famously stated that humans possess inherent dignity (A-3); 'Swaraj when we learn to rule ourselves' is Gandhi's idea (B-4); Subhas Chandra Bose emphasised freedom from political bondage combined with economic equality (C-2); Aung San Suu Kyi's celebrated work is titled 'Freedom from Fear' (D-1). Thus A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Q.106 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following is the author of the book Four Stars of Destiny: An Autobiography?

(a) Sam Manekshaw
(b) K. J. S. Dhillon
(c) Bipin Rawat
(d) Manoj Mukund Naravane ✓

Explanation: 'Four Stars of Destiny: An Autobiography' was written by General Manoj Mukund Naravane, the 28th Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army, published in 2023.

Q.107 [Current Affairs]

The Indian Army launched 'Operation Sarvashakti' to flush out terrorists in

(a) Myanmar
(b) Manipur
(c) Jammu and Kashmir ✓
(d) Chhattisgarh

Explanation: Operation Sarvashakti was launched by the Indian Army in the Pir Panjal region of Jammu and Kashmir to flush out terrorists belonging to Al-Badr and other groups hiding in the dense forests.

Q.108 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following cities were conferred with the cleanest city award under Swachh Survekshan Awards, 2023?

(a) Varanasi and Prayagraj
(b) Indore and Surat ✓
(c) Prayagraj and Indore
(d) Surat and Varanasi

Explanation: Under Swachh Survekshan 2023, Indore won the cleanest city award for the 7th consecutive time (large city category) and Surat was ranked 2nd; they are the top two cities consistently honoured in the awards.

Q.109 [Defence]

Which one of the following is an indigenous assault rifle developed by DRDO?

(a) Heckler
(b) T91
(c) Tikka
(d) Ugram ✓

Explanation: UGRAM is an indigenously developed assault rifle by DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) of India, designed to replace imported rifles for Indian armed forces.

Q.110 [Sports]

With which one among the following sports is Yogesh Singh, who won a Gold Medal in an Asian Championship in 2024, associated?

(a) Badminton
(b) Shooting
(c) Archery
(d) Wrestling ✓

Explanation: Yogesh Singh is an Indian wrestler who won a Gold Medal at the Asian Wrestling Championship in 2024, competing in the freestyle category.

Q.111 [Art & Culture]

Renowned classical singer Prabha Atre, who passed away recently, was an exponent of which one of the following Gharanas?

(a) Kirana Gharana ✓
(b) Patiala Gharana
(c) Gwalior Gharana
(d) Agra Gharana

Explanation: Padma Vibhushan awardee Prabha Atre was a distinguished Hindustani classical vocalist and exponent of the Kirana Gharana, known for her khayal and thumri performances.

Q.112 [History]

Who among the following was the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army of independent India?

(a) S. M. Srinagesh
(b) K. M. Cariappa ✓
(c) K. S. Thimayya
(d) K. S. Rajendrasinhji

Explanation: Field Marshal K. M. Cariappa became the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army on 15 January 1949, replacing General Sir Francis Butcher; this date is now celebrated as Army Day.

Q.113 [Defence]

Which one of the following is an 'end-to-end secure mobile ecosystem' developed recently by the Indian Army?

(a) SANCHAR
(b) VAIBHAV
(c) SAMPARK
(d) SAMBHAV ✓

Explanation: SAMBHAV is an end-to-end secure mobile ecosystem developed for the Indian Army, providing encrypted communication and data security for military personnel on a specially designed smartphone platform.

Q.114 [International Relations]

Consider the following statements about the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP): 1. It is a comprehensive free trade agreement between the ASEAN member States and ASEAN's free trade agreement partners. 2. India opted out of RCEP. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. RCEP is indeed a free trade agreement among ASEAN's 10 members and their FTA partners (Australia, China, Japan, South Korea, New Zealand). India withdrew from RCEP negotiations in November 2019 citing concerns over trade deficit and market access issues.

Q.115 [Current Affairs]

Recently the Government of India entered into an agreement for a lithium exploration and mining project with which one among the following countries?

(a) Brazil
(b) Australia
(c) Argentina ✓
(d) Chile

Explanation: India's Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL) signed an agreement with Argentina's CAMYEN for lithium exploration and mining in Argentina's Catamarca province in 2023, as part of India's strategy to secure critical minerals.

Q.116 [International Relations]

Consider the following statements about the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO): 1. One of the goals of SCO is to promote a new democratic, fair and rational international political and economic order. 2. Iran is a permanent member of SCO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Promoting a democratic, fair, and rational international order is indeed stated as an SCO goal in its charter. Iran was admitted as a full (permanent) member of the SCO in 2023 during the Samarkand summit.

Q.117 [Sports]

Which of the following statements about the ICC Under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup, 2024 is/are correct? 1. Australia won this title for the 4th time. 2. It was organised in South Africa. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Australia won the ICC Under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup 2024, defeating India in the final — it was their 4th title. The tournament was hosted in South Africa.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.118 [Polity]

Which of the following statements with regard to Bharat Ratna Award is/are correct? 1. It was instituted in the year 1972. 2. The award does not carry any monetary grant. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Bharat Ratna was instituted in 1954, not 1972, so statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct — the Bharat Ratna carries no monetary grant; recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion.

Q.119 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements about India's rank in the Global Innovation Index—2023, published by the World Intellectual Property Organisation, is/are correct? 1. India has been placed at 40th rank. 2. India has been on a rising trajectory over the period 2015–2023. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. In the GII 2023 report by WIPO, India ranked 40th (up from 81st in 2015), and has shown a consistent upward trend over 2015–2023, making it one of the most improved innovation economies.

Q.120 [Environment]

Which of the following statements about 'Green Credit Initiative' is/are correct? 1. It is a response to the challenge of climate change. 2. It promotes plantations on wasteland and river catchment areas. 3. It is a scheme of the Government of India to replace the kerosene oil with solar power used by the rural poor. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Green Credit Programme under the Environment (Protection) Act is a voluntary market-based mechanism to incentivise pro-environment actions including tree plantation on degraded/wasteland and river catchment areas, aimed at addressing climate change. Statement 3 is incorrect — replacing kerosene with solar power is associated with the PM Ujjwala Yojana / Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, not the Green Credit Initiative.