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CDS II 2024 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2024 (Session II) Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Biology]

Which one among the following is not a micronutrient for plants?

(a) Iron
(b) Manganese
(c) Magnesium ✓
(d) Chlorine

Explanation: Magnesium is a macronutrient (needed in larger quantities) for plants as it is the central atom of chlorophyll. Iron, Manganese, and Chlorine are all micronutrients required in trace amounts.

Q.2 [Biology]

Xylem in the plants are responsible for the transport of:

(a) Water
(b) Water and dissolved minerals ✓
(c) Gases
(d) Food

Explanation: Xylem transports water along with dissolved minerals (inorganic salts) from the roots upward to the rest of the plant; phloem transports food (organic solutes).

Q.3 [Biology]

Which one among the following hormones inhibits the growth activity in plants?

(a) Auxins
(b) Cytokinins
(c) Abscisic acid ✓
(d) Gibberellins

Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is known as the 'stress hormone' and acts as a growth inhibitor; it promotes dormancy and stomatal closure. Auxins, cytokinins, and gibberellins all promote growth.

Q.4 [Biology]

Which of the following category of biomolecules does Starch belong to?

(a) Protein
(b) Carbohydrate ✓
(c) Lipid
(d) Nucleic acid

Explanation: Starch is a polysaccharide, which is a type of carbohydrate composed of long chains of glucose units.

Q.5 [Biology]

Which one among the following is not a feature of Xerophytes?

(a) Smaller leaves
(b) Large number of stomata ✓
(c) Waxy cuticle
(d) Stomata in pits

Explanation: Xerophytes (plants adapted to dry conditions) have a reduced number of stomata (not a large number) to minimize water loss; other adaptations include smaller leaves, waxy cuticles, and sunken/pitted stomata.

Q.6 [Biology]

Halophytes are the plants that grow on which one, among the following categories of soil?

(a) Acidic soil
(b) Saline soil ✓
(c) Black soil
(d) Sandy soil

Explanation: Halophytes are plants specially adapted to grow in high-salinity (saline) soils or water, such as mangroves growing in coastal brackish environments.

Q.7 [Biology]

Which one among the following is not a part of vascular bundle in plants?

(a) Phloem
(b) Xylem
(c) Cambium
(d) Endodermis ✓

Explanation: The vascular bundle in plants consists of xylem, phloem, and cambium (in dicots). Endodermis is the innermost layer of the cortex that surrounds the vascular bundle but is not itself a component of the vascular bundle.

Q.8 [Physics]

In which one among the following mediums would the speed of sound be maximum?

(a) Distilled water
(b) Sea water ✓
(c) Drinking water
(d) Methanol

Explanation: The speed of sound increases with the density and elasticity (bulk modulus) of the medium. Sea water, being denser than distilled or drinking water due to dissolved salts, has a higher bulk modulus, giving it the highest speed of sound (~1,500–1,531 m/s) among the options listed.

Q.9 [Biology]

Which organelle in animal cells can digest foreign materials?

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Lysosome ✓
(c) Golgi body
(d) Mitochondria

Explanation: Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that break down foreign materials, worn-out organelles, and cellular debris; they are often called the 'suicide bags' of the cell.

Q.10 [Biology]

Photosynthesis that converts light energy into chemical energy by the plants, involves the use of green pigments of leaves called chlorophyll. The only structure in a leaf that hosts chlorophyll is:

(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosome
(c) Chloroplast ✓
(d) Chromosome

Explanation: Chlorophyll pigments are located in chloroplasts, the organelles responsible for photosynthesis; the thylakoid membranes within chloroplasts hold chlorophyll molecules.

Q.11 [Chemistry]

In which of the following colloids is the dispersing medium a liquid?

(a) Mist
(b) Foam
(c) Jelly ✓
(d) Shaving cream

Explanation: In a jelly (gel), the dispersing medium is a liquid (solid dispersed in liquid). Mist has a gas as dispersing medium, foam and shaving cream have a liquid as the dispersed phase but gas as dispersed in liquid — shaving cream is gas in liquid (liquid is the medium), while jelly is solid in liquid. Among the options, jelly (and shaving cream) have liquid as dispersing medium; however jelly is the classic example of a gel where the dispersion medium is liquid and the dispersed phase is solid, making liquid the medium unambiguously.

Q.12 [Chemistry]

The two isotopes of elemental chlorine are:

(a) Cl-35 and Cl-37 ✓
(b) Cl-35 and Cl-37
(c) Cl-35 and Cl-37
(d) Cl-35 and Cl-37

Explanation: Chlorine has two naturally occurring stable isotopes: Cl-35 (about 75% abundance) and Cl-37 (about 25% abundance), giving an average atomic mass of approximately 35.5. The options appear identical due to extraction noise; the correct answer is Cl-35 and Cl-37.

Q.13 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following metals is not stored under oil?

(a) Sodium
(b) Rubidium
(c) Potassium
(d) Lithium ✓

Explanation: Lithium, being the lightest alkali metal, is stored in paraffin wax or inert atmosphere rather than oil because it is less dense than oil and would float. Sodium, potassium, and rubidium are all stored under oil to prevent reaction with atmospheric oxygen and moisture.

Q.14 [Chemistry]

Potassium nitrate is not used:

(a) as a fertilizer
(b) in medicine
(c) in making gunpowder
(d) as a preservative of meat products ✓

Explanation: Potassium nitrate (KNO3) is used as a fertilizer, in gunpowder (as an oxidiser), and in medicine (e.g., toothpaste for sensitive teeth). As a meat preservative, sodium nitrate/nitrite is used, not potassium nitrate typically; however the commonly tested fact is that potassium nitrate is not used as a meat preservative — sodium nitrate/nitrite are the preservatives used in cured meats.

Q.15 [Chemistry]

The surface of the concrete structure of a new construction is covered with straw/gunny bags by wetting. This is done to:

(a) prevent fast evaporation, until hydration has proceeded well ✓
(b) protect the concrete structure from contamination by dust particles
(c) prevent development of any fungus on the surface
(d) give smoother and cleaner surface over cement structure

Explanation: Curing of concrete requires moisture for the hydration reaction of cement to proceed completely. Wet coverings prevent rapid evaporation of water from the surface, ensuring adequate hydration and proper hardening of the concrete.

Q.16 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following statements for the gases mentioned below is not correct?

(a) Hydrogen has 3 isotopes
(b) Helium is a commonly used gas in electric bulbs ✓
(c) Oxygen is used to burn fuel in rocket engines in spacecraft
(d) Nitrogen can be used in gaseous form to replace air in food packaging

Explanation: Helium is NOT commonly used in electric bulbs; Argon (and sometimes nitrogen) are the gases used in incandescent bulbs to prevent filament oxidation. Helium is used in balloons and cryogenics. The other statements are correct: hydrogen has 3 isotopes (protium, deuterium, tritium), oxygen supports rocket combustion, and nitrogen is used in food packaging.

Q.17 [Chemistry]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Trade Name): A. Bleaching powder, B. Baking soda, C. Washing soda, D. Plaster of Paris List II (Chemical Name): 1. Sodium bicarbonate, 2. Sodium carbonate·10H2O, 3. Calcium oxychloride, 4. Calcium sulphate·½H2O

(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 ✓
(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Explanation: Bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride (3), baking soda is sodium bicarbonate (1), washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate (2), and plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (4). This matches option (a): A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4.

Q.18 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following statements is not true for glass?

(a) Sodium silicate is known as water glass
(b) Glass is also called super cooled liquid
(c) Crystallinity develops on cooling of the molten mass of the glass ✓
(d) Coloured glasses can be made by adding different colouring materials

Explanation: Glass is an amorphous solid — when the molten mass cools, it does NOT develop crystallinity; instead it solidifies without forming a regular crystal lattice. This is precisely why glass is called a supercooled liquid or amorphous solid. The other statements are true.

Q.19 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following is responsible for determining the chemical properties of an element?

(a) Protons
(b) Electrons ✓
(c) Neutrons
(d) Nucleus

Explanation: The chemical properties of an element are determined by its electrons, specifically the valence (outermost shell) electrons, which participate in chemical bonding and reactions.

Q.20 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following is used in bleaching of paper?

(a) Chloride ✓
(b) Chlorobenzene
(c) Ammonium chloride
(d) Hydrochloric acid

Explanation: Chlorine-based compounds (chlorine dioxide or sodium hypochlorite/chloride compounds) are used in bleaching paper pulp. Among the given options, chloride (in the form of chlorine/hypochlorite) is used in the paper bleaching process. Hydrochloric acid and chlorobenzene are not used for bleaching paper.

Q.21 [Physics]

X-rays can be used to: 1. Inspect welded joints between two metal parts of a machine 2. Study structure of crystals Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: X-rays are used in industrial radiography to inspect welds and detect defects (Statement 1), and in X-ray crystallography to determine crystal structures (Statement 2). Both statements are correct.

Q.22 [Physics]

Which one of the following heat transfers is an example of convection?

(a) Heating of food in a microwave oven
(b) Boiling water in a pot on a gas stove ✓
(c) Feeling the warmth in sun
(d) Heating a brass rod at one end and observing the temperature rise at the other end

Explanation: Convection involves heat transfer through fluid movement. Boiling water involves hot water rising and cooler water sinking — a classic convection current. Microwaves use radiation, sunlight involves radiation, and the brass rod demonstrates conduction.

Q.23 [Physics]

The phenomenon of rainbow formation by water droplets involves:

(a) Single refraction of sunlight
(b) One internal reflection of sunlight
(c) Two internal reflections of sunlight
(d) Both refraction and internal reflection of sunlight ✓

Explanation: A rainbow forms when sunlight enters a water droplet (refraction), undergoes one internal reflection inside the droplet, and refracts again on exit. The process involves both refraction and internal reflection, making option (d) correct.

Q.24 [Environment]

Ozone hole is a region over:

(a) The Antarctic caused mainly by CFC gases ✓
(b) The Antarctic caused mainly by carbon dioxide gas
(c) The Arctic caused mainly by CFC gases
(d) The Arctic caused mainly by carbon dioxide gas

Explanation: The ozone hole was first observed over Antarctica. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release chlorine radicals in the stratosphere that catalytically destroy ozone molecules. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas but does not destroy ozone.

Q.25 [Science & Technology]

Which of the following are the major missions of Indian Space Research Organization in 2023? 1. Chandrayaan-3 2. Solar Mission Aditya-L1 3. Liquid fuel powered rockets 4. Solar powered rockets Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: ISRO's major missions in 2023 were Chandrayaan-3 (Moon landing, August 2023) and Aditya-L1 (solar observatory, September 2023). Liquid fuel powered rockets and solar powered rockets are not distinct ISRO missions of 2023.

Q.26 [Physics]

Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for aircraft being equipped with conducting tyres?

(a) They can transfer the charge accumulated on their surfaces during lightning
(b) They can transfer the charge accumulated on their surfaces being rubbed by air particles ✓
(c) They can transfer the charge accumulated on their surfaces due to inflight operation of several gadgets
(d) For preventing sparks while they land on the ground

Explanation: Aircraft accumulate static charge due to friction with air particles during flight. Conducting (carbon-black) tyres allow this static charge to dissipate safely to the ground upon landing, preventing dangerous sparks. This is the primary reason for using conducting tyres.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.27 [Biology]

Which of the following statements for persons suffering from presbyopia is/are correct? 1. They cannot distinguish colours 2. It usually develops with ageing 3. They wear either bi-focal lenses consisting of both concave and convex lenses or progressive lenses Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Presbyopia is age-related loss of near-focusing ability due to hardening of the eye lens, not a colour vision defect (Statement 1 is incorrect). It is corrected with bifocal or progressive lenses containing both concave and convex elements. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.28 [Physics]

A sound wave having frequency of 300 Hz is travelling in an unknown medium. Its wavelength is not known. It travels a distance equal to 150 times its wavelength in time t. The value of t is:

(a) 0.5 s ✓
(b) 1 s
(c) 1.5 s
(d) 2 s

Explanation: Distance = 150λ and speed v = fλ = 300λ. Time t = distance/speed = 150λ / 300λ = 0.5 s.

Q.29 [Defence & Science]

Mission Shakti (DRDO) of India is related to which one among the following?

(a) Launch of multiple satellites using a single rocket
(b) Launch of heavy satellites
(c) Use of high power rockets in launching of satellites
(d) Use of rocket to destroy an orbiting satellite ✓

Explanation: Mission Shakti, conducted on 27 March 2019, was India's anti-satellite (ASAT) missile test in which a DRDO-developed interceptor missile destroyed a live Indian satellite in low Earth orbit, making India the fourth country to demonstrate this capability.

Q.30 [Science & Technology]

In Sun-Earth system, the Sun, the Earth and the Lagrange point L4 form:

(a) an isosceles triangle
(b) an equilateral triangle ✓
(c) a straight line
(d) a scalene triangle

Explanation: Lagrange points L4 and L5 in any two-body system are located such that the three bodies (primary, secondary, and the Lagrange point) form an equilateral triangle. This is a mathematical property of the restricted three-body problem.

Q.31 [Polity]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Training Institute) — List-II (Location) A. National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes and Narcotics — 1. Mussoorie B. LBS National Academy of Administration — 2. Shimla C. National Academy of Audit and Accounts — 3. Mumbai D. All India Institute of Local Self Government — 4. Palasamudram Code:

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 ✓
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation: NACIN is located in Mumbai (3), LBSNAA is in Mussoorie (1), National Academy of Audit and Accounts is in Shimla (2), and All India Institute of Local Self Government is in Palasamudram (4). This matches option (b): A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.32 [Polity]

Consider the following statements: 1. The Flag Code of India superseded the 'Flag Code–India'. 2. The state emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Flag Code of India, 2002 superseded the earlier 'Flag Code — India' instructions (Statement 1 is worded confusingly but essentially the new code replaced old rules — however the statement says it superseded itself, making it incorrect as drafted). The State Emblem of India is indeed adapted from the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath (Statement 2 is correct). Only Statement 2 is unambiguously correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.33 [Environment]

Which one of the following is not among the thematic areas of National Mission on Sustainable Habitat?

(a) Energy and Green Building
(b) Mobility and Air Quality
(c) Waste Management
(d) Rural Planning, Green cover and Biodiversity ✓

Explanation: The National Mission on Sustainable Habitat (one of the eight missions under NAPCC) focuses on Energy and Green Building, Mobility and Air Quality, and Waste Management. Rural Planning, Green cover and Biodiversity is not a thematic area of this mission; it belongs more to the National Mission for a Green India.

Q.34 [Polity]

Which of the following are the components of the Indian Legal System? 1. Basic values and principles enshrined in the Constitution 2. Rights and obligations conferred by ordinary statutes 3. Organizational set-up to enforce rights and obligations within the constitutional norms 4. Legal and judicial persons Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Explanation: All four elements — constitutional values, statutory rights and obligations, the judicial/enforcement machinery, and legal persons (entities with rights/duties) — are recognized components of the Indian Legal System. Hence all four statements are correct.

Q.35 [Polity]

Which one among the following statements about the objectives of Vibrant Village Programme is correct?

(a) It is a Centrally sponsored scheme. ✓
(b) This programme was launched in 2021.
(c) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Manipur are the states selected under this scheme.
(d) Villages of Uttar Pradesh along the Nepal border are selected as flagship villages under this scheme.

Explanation: The Vibrant Village Programme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme approved in February 2023 (not 2021) for development of border villages in Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Ladakh — not Manipur and not UP. Option (a) — it being a Centrally Sponsored Scheme — is correct.

Q.36 [International Affairs]

Which one of the following UN organizations has not been awarded the Nobel Prize?

(a) WFP
(b) ILO
(c) UNESCO ✓
(d) UNHCR

Explanation: WFP received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020, ILO in 1969, and UNHCR in 1954 and 1981. UNESCO has never been awarded the Nobel Prize, making it the correct answer.

Q.37 [Polity]

Which of the following areas has been exempted from the purview of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?

(a) Ladakh
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) The Sixth Schedule Areas ✓
(d) The Fifth Schedule Areas

Explanation: The CAA, 2019 exempts tribal areas covered under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution (in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura) and areas under the Inner Line Permit regime from its application.

Q.38 [History]

Who among the following stated that "A just society is that society in which ascending sense of reverence and descending sense of contempt is dissolved into the creation of a compassionate society"?

(a) Vinoba Bhave
(b) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar ✓
(c) Rammanohar Lohia
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan

Explanation: This quote is attributed to B.R. Ambedkar, who articulated the vision of a just and compassionate society where caste-based reverence and contempt are eliminated, a central theme of his social philosophy and writings.

Q.39 [Polity]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Criminal law is exclusively a subject under the State List of the Constitution of India. 2. Code of Civil Procedure falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Criminal law (Entry 1) and Criminal Procedure (Entry 2) are in the Concurrent List (List III), not exclusively in the State List — so Statement 1 is incorrect. The Code of Civil Procedure is indeed in the Concurrent List (Entry 13), so Statement 2 is correct.

Q.40 [History]

Arrange the following agreements between India and Pakistan in chronological order: 1. Tashkent Declaration 2. Indus Water Treaty 3. Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Each Other's Nuclear Installations and Facilities 4. Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 ✓
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation: Indus Waters Treaty was signed in 1960 (2), Tashkent Declaration in 1966 (1), Agreement on Prohibition of Attack on Nuclear Installations in 1988 (3), and Agreement on Reducing Risk from Nuclear Accidents in 2007 (4). Chronological order: 2, 1, 3, 4.

Q.41 [International Relations]

Which of the following statements with regard to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is/are correct? 1. The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese. 2. The SCO enjoys observer status in the UN General Assembly. 3. The SCO consists of 13 member states. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 ✓
(d) 2 and 3

Explanation: The SCO's official languages are indeed Russian and Chinese, and the SCO has UN General Assembly observer status (granted in 2005). As of 2024, the SCO has expanded but the count of 13 member states is not accurate for the standard exam context; statements 1 and 2 are well-established facts.

Q.42 [International Relations]

Financial Action Task Force is:

(a) A wing under the Central Economic Intelligence Bureau
(b) A division of Enforcement Directorate
(c) A global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog ✓
(d) A UN Anti-Corruption Agency

Explanation: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1989 that sets international standards to combat money laundering and terrorist financing; it is not part of any single national or UN agency.

Q.43 [International Relations / Polity]

In which of the following matters placed before the UN General Assembly, a resolution by two-thirds majority of the members present and voting is required? 1. Admission of new members to the UN 2. Election of the non-permanent members of the Security Council 3. Election of members of the Economic and Social Council Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Under Article 18 of the UN Charter, important questions requiring a two-thirds majority include admission of new members and election of non-permanent Security Council members. Election of ECOSOC members is decided by simple majority, not two-thirds.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.44 [Current Affairs]

'Bharat Parv' was organized by the Government of India during which of the following programmes? 1. Republic Day 2024 2. National Film Festival 2024 3. Cannes Film Festival 2024 Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Bharat Parv is traditionally organized by the Ministry of Tourism in conjunction with Republic Day celebrations (statement 1). The 70th National Film Festival 2024 also featured a Bharat Parv segment (statement 2). Cannes is an international festival where India participates but Bharat Parv as a government event was not held there.

Q.45 [Polity / Social Issues]

Which one of the following organizations challenged the constitutionality of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code in the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Naz Foundation (India) Trust ✓
(b) Bachpan Bachao Andolan
(c) Sambhav Foundation India
(d) ActionAid India

Explanation: The Naz Foundation (India) Trust filed the landmark petition in the Delhi High Court in 2001 challenging Section 377, which led to the eventual Supreme Court proceedings and the Navtej Singh Johar judgment in 2018.

Q.46 [Polity]

As per Article 371G of the Constitution of India, special provisions have been made with respect to the state of Mizoram. Accordingly, no Act of Parliament shall apply on certain matters unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram so decides by a resolution. Which one of the following matters is not covered under this Article?

(a) Religious or social practices of the Mizos
(b) Mizo customary law and procedure
(c) Administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law
(d) Ownership and transfer of natural resources ✓

Explanation: Article 371G protects religious or social practices, Mizo customary law and procedure, and administration of civil and criminal justice involving Mizo customary law. Ownership and transfer of natural resources is not among the specifically listed protected matters under this article.

Q.47 [Polity / Law]

Which of the following statements, as per the Information Technology Act, 2000, is/are correct? 1. This Act provides that electronic signature is legally valid in the same manner as the handwritten signature. 2. Both the Central Government and State Governments have been given the power to make rules with respect to electronic signature. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The IT Act 2000 recognizes electronic signatures as legally equivalent to handwritten signatures (statement 1 is correct). However, under the IT Act, rule-making power regarding electronic signatures is vested only in the Central Government, not State Governments (statement 2 is incorrect).

Q.48 [Polity / Governance]

Which of the following statements about National Recruitment Agency is correct?

(a) It is a body to conduct Common Eligibility Test (CET) to shortlist the candidates for vacancies under 'Group B' and 'Group C' of the Government. ✓
(b) Employment in private sector is facilitated in all the districts, particularly 117 aspirational districts.
(c) It was set up in 2014.
(d) It has been accorded Constitutional status in 2021.

Explanation: The National Recruitment Agency was established in 2020 (not 2014) to conduct the Common Eligibility Test (CET) for shortlisting candidates for Group B and Group C (non-technical) posts in Central Government. It has no constitutional status and its mandate is for government, not private sector, employment.

Q.49 [Science & Technology]

The Research Design and Standards Organization is the R&D wing of which one of the following organizations?

(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(b) Indian Space Research Organization
(c) Indian Railways ✓
(d) Defence Research and Development Organization

Explanation: The Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO) is headquartered in Lucknow and functions as the sole R&D organization and technical adviser to Indian Railways and the Ministry of Railways.

Q.50 [Polity]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Speaker of Lok Sabha) — List-II (Tenure) A. Manohar Gajanan Joshi — 1. 14th Lok Sabha B. Somnath Chatterjee — 2. 18th Lok Sabha C. Meira Kumar — 3. 16th Lok Sabha D. Sumitra Mahajan — 4. 15th Lok Sabha

(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 ✓
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation: Manohar Joshi was Speaker of the 13th Lok Sabha but the question maps him to 18th Lok Sabha (Om Birla held 17th; this mapping is as per the question's list). Somnath Chatterjee served as Speaker of the 14th Lok Sabha (2004–2009), Meira Kumar of the 15th (2009–2014), and Sumitra Mahajan of the 16th (2014–2019). Therefore B-1, C-4, D-3, and A-2 fits option (a).

Q.51 [History / Philosophy]

Consider the following statements about the Vedanta philosophy: 1. Shankara was the founder of Advaita Vedanta. 2. The philosophy of Dvaita was elaborated by Madhva. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Adi Shankaracharya (8th century CE) is the founder of Advaita (non-dualism) Vedanta, and Madhvacharya (13th century CE) is the founder of Dvaita (dualism) Vedanta; both statements are correct.

Q.52 [History / Freedom Movement]

The distribution of charkhas on a wide scale among the people was decided by:

(a) Congress Working Committee in 1919
(b) All India Congress Committee in 1921 ✓
(c) Mahatma Gandhi at the start of Dandi March
(d) All India Congress Committee in 1947

Explanation: The All India Congress Committee in 1921 decided to distribute charkhas on a wide scale as part of the Non-Cooperation Movement's emphasis on swadeshi and economic self-reliance championed by Gandhi.

Q.53 [History / Ancient India]

The terms used for cereals in the Rig Veda are:

(a) Godhuma and Vrihi ✓
(b) Tila and Khala
(c) Yava and Dhanya
(d) Priyangu and Shyamaka

Explanation: In the Rig Veda, 'Godhuma' refers to wheat and 'Vrihi' refers to rice; these are the terms specifically used for cereals. Yava (barley) is Vedic but the primary grain pair cited as cereals in the Rig Veda is Godhuma and Vrihi.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.54 [History / Medieval India]

Consider the following statements about the condition of widows in the 18th century India: 1. Raja Sawai Jai Singh of Amber promoted widow remarriage. 2. Maratha General Parshuram Bhau promoted widow remarriage. 3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy opposed Sati. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Raja Sawai Jai Singh of Amber did promote widow remarriage and Raja Ram Mohan Roy famously campaigned against Sati leading to the Sati Prohibition Act 1829. Parshuram Bhau (Peshwa general) is not historically documented as a promoter of widow remarriage; statements 1 and 3 are correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.55 [History / Medieval India]

Consider the following statements about the administrative measures of Shivaji: 1. The scheme of Ashta Pradhan (eight ministers) was completed and announced at the time of Shivaji's coronation with regulations and duties properly defined. 2. Shivaji introduced Marathi in place of Persian and coined Sanskrit technical terms for administrative purposes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: the Ashta Pradhan system was formalized at Shivaji's coronation in 1674 with defined roles, and Shivaji replaced Persian with Marathi as the administrative language and used Sanskrit-derived terms (as compiled in the Rajya Vyavahar Kosha).

Q.56 [History / Art & Culture]

With reference to the Mesolithic art in India, consider the following statements: 1. Alexander Burns discovered the first rock paintings in India at Sohagighat in Uttar Pradesh. 2. Bhimbetka rock paintings were discovered when archaeologist V.S. Wakankar noticed the rocks out of a train window while travelling from Bhopal to Itarsi and got off at the nearest railway station to explore the site. 3. The paintings and engravings do not exist in the same shelter in the rock art of Orissa. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Explanation: V.S. Wakankar's discovery of Bhimbetka by spotting the rocks from a train is a well-documented account (statement 2 is correct). Statement 1 is incorrect — the first rock paintings in India were discovered by Archibold Carlleyle at Sohagighat, not Alexander Burns. Statement 3 is also incorrect as paintings and engravings do coexist in the same shelters in Odisha rock art.

Q.57 [Art & Culture]

In the decoration of Stupas, what does the term Kinjalkini refer to?

(a) Creepers showing ornaments and textiles
(b) Scarves and saris
(c) Mango-shaped pendants
(d) A garland of thousand lotus flowers ✓

Explanation: Kinjalkini in stupa decorative vocabulary refers to a garland of a thousand lotus flowers, used as a motif in the sculptural ornamentation of Buddhist stupas.

Q.58 [Art & Culture]

Which of the following is/are the correct components of the 'Lion Capital' at Sarnath? 1. The shaft (stambha-yashti) or the tall tapering column 2. An elliptical top part — the abacus, devoid of any carvings 3. Overflowing inverted petals below the abacus Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Sarnath Lion Capital consists of: the shaft (stambha-yashti), a bell-shaped lotus abacus with carved animals (not devoid of carvings — statement 2 is wrong), and the inverted lotus/overflowing petal base below the abacus (statement 3 is correct). Thus statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q.59 [History / Freedom Movement]

Consider the following events leading to the Indian Independence: 1. Lucknow Pact 2. Return of Subhash Chandra Bose to India 3. Cripps Mission 4. Naval Mutiny in Bombay Select the chronological sequence of these events (earliest to latest) from the code given below:

(a) 4, 5, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 ✓
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Explanation: Lucknow Pact (1916), Return of Subhash Chandra Bose to India (1921), Cripps Mission (1942), Naval Mutiny in Bombay (1946) — the correct chronological order is 1, 2, 3, 4.

Q.60 [History / Medieval India]

Who among the following were famous for their metal-casting skills and used to cast excellent matchlocks during the medieval period?

(a) Marathas
(b) Rajputs
(c) Ahoms ✓
(d) Gonds

Explanation: The Ahoms of Assam were renowned for their advanced metallurgy and metal-casting skills during the medieval period, and they produced excellent matchlocks and artillery which contributed significantly to their military strength against Mughal invasions.

Q.61 [History / Art & Culture]

Consider the following statements about the Ancient Hindu metal images in India: 1. The Chola period is well known for the aesthetic and technical finesse of its metal sculpture. 2. The iconography and style of Chola metal images were similar to those of their stone counterparts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Chola period is indeed renowned for its bronze sculpture (e.g., Nataraja), and Chola metal images followed the same iconographic canons and stylistic conventions as Chola stone temple sculptures.

Q.62 [Polity / Constitution]

Which one of the following terms was used for the States in the Draft Constitution presented by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on 4th November, 1948?

(a) Union of States ✓
(b) Federation of States
(c) Subsidiary States
(d) Autonomous States

Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar's Draft Constitution described India as a 'Union of States', a term that was retained in the final Constitution (Article 1), emphasising an indestructible union rather than a loose federation.

Q.63 [History / Mauryan Period]

The antariya was a garment worn by people during the Mauryan period. It was:

(a) an unstitched length of cloth draped around the body. ✓
(b) a sewn garment consisting of a sleeved tunic.
(c) a head covering used exclusively by women.
(d) made of strips sewn together tied at the waist with a cord.

Explanation: The antariya was the principal lower garment of the Mauryan period — an unstitched length of cloth (similar to a dhoti) that was draped around the lower body; stitched garments were not the norm in ancient India.

Q.64 [History / Medieval India]

Consider the following statements with reference to the Utpala dynasty of Kashmir: 1. Avantivarman, the founder, devoted his energies to the economic upliftment of his subjects. 2. Avantivarman's period in Kashmir is known for the engineering operations under his minister Suyya, resulting in the enormous increase of grains and fall in prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Avantivarman (r. 855–883 CE), founder of the Utpala dynasty, focused on public welfare, and his minister Suyya carried out notable hydraulic/engineering works that improved agriculture, increased grain production, and lowered prices.

Q.65 [History / Mauryan Administration]

Consider the following pairs of High Offices and concerned Departments in the Mauryan Administration: 1. Samahartri — Chief Collector of Revenue 2. Dauvarika — Chief of Army 3. Akshapatala — Records-cum-Audit Officer 4. Samnidhatri — Treasurer Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only ✓
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Samahartri was the Chief Collector of Revenue, Akshapatala was the Records/Audit Officer, and Samnidhatri was the Treasurer — all correctly matched. Dauvarika was the Chief of the Palace Guards/Doorkeeper, not the Chief of Army (that was the Senapati), so pair 2 is wrong.

Q.66 [History / British India]

Which kingdom was described by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie as 'A cherry that will drop into our mouth one day'?

(a) Delhi
(b) Awadh ✓
(c) Jhansi
(d) Gwalior

Explanation: Lord Dalhousie famously described the kingdom of Awadh (Oudh) as 'a cherry that will drop into our mouth one day', and he eventually annexed it in 1856 on grounds of misgovernance, using the Doctrine of Lapse's spirit.

Q.67 [History / Modern India]

Consider the following statements with reference to Census in India: 1. The first All India Census was attempted in 1872. 2. From 1881, decennial censuses became a regular feature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. A non-synchronous census was attempted across various provinces in 1872 under Viceroy Mayo, and from 1881 onwards a regular decennial (every 10 years) synchronous census was conducted across British India.

Q.68 [History / Freedom Struggle]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. During the Second Round Table Conference held in London in 1931, the British Government refused to accept the basic nationalist demand for freedom. 2. India was granted dominion status in 1932. 3. Viceroy Lord Willingdon adopted a policy of reconciliation with Congress. 4. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started with the breaking of salt laws. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (British refused to concede freedom at the Second RTC 1931) and Statement 4 is correct (Civil Disobedience Movement began with Dandi March/salt law breaking in 1930). Statement 2 is wrong (India was not granted dominion status in 1932) and Statement 3 is wrong (Willingdon pursued repression, not reconciliation, against Congress).

Q.69 [History / Freedom Struggle]

Which of the following statements about Cabinet Mission are correct? 1. It was sent to India in 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power with the Indian leaders. 2. It proposed a two-tiered federal plan while conceding the largest measure of regional autonomy. 3. There was to be a federation of provinces and states, alongside a federal centre. 4. The individual provinces were allowed to form regional unions to which they could surrender some of their powers by mutual agreement. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only ✓
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. The Cabinet Mission (1946) was sent to negotiate power transfer, proposed a three-tier federal structure (Centre, Groups, Provinces) giving maximum autonomy, and allowed provinces to form groups voluntarily. Statement 3 is inaccurate in wording — the plan was a three-tier structure (not just provinces and states alongside a centre); the Cabinet Mission plan did not simply propose a federation of provinces and princely states at one level.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.70 [History / Medieval India]

Consider the following pairs: 1. Gajapati — Name of a powerful Dynasty in Orissa 2. Ashvapati — Deccan Sultans 3. Narapati — Rayas of Vijayanagara Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above

Explanation: Gajapati (lord of elephants) correctly refers to the powerful Gajapati dynasty of Orissa (Odisha). Ashvapati (lord of horses) referred to the rulers of Malwa/Central India, not the Deccan Sultans. Narapati (lord of men) referred to the rulers of Delhi, not the Rayas of Vijayanagara (who were called Narapati by some sources but classically Ashvapati = Malwa sultans, Gajapati = Odisha kings, Narapati = Delhi sultans per medieval classification). Hence only pair 1 is correctly matched.

Q.71 [Geography / Physical Geography of India]

Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Glaciers and their location is/are correctly matched? 1. Siachen — Nubra Valley Region 2. Chungphar — Kumaon-Garhwal Region 3. Zemu — Central Nepal Region 4. Gasherbrum — Pir Panjal Range Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 ✓
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

Explanation: Siachen Glacier is correctly located in the Nubra Valley region (Karakoram, Ladakh). Chungphar (also spelled Chungpar) glacier is in the Kumaon-Garhwal Himalayan region. Zemu Glacier is in Sikkim (not Central Nepal). Gasherbrum is in the Karakoram range (not the Pir Panjal). So pairs 1 and 2 are correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.72 [Geography / Rivers of India]

Consider the following statements regarding the rivers of India: 1. The Barak River, the head stream of the Meghna, rises in the hills of Meghalaya. 2. The Ghaggar River does not drain out to the sea and gets lost in the Rajasthan desert. 3. Puthimari and Manas are important tributaries of the Brahmaputra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — the Barak River rises in the Manipur hills (Nagaland-Manipur border), not Meghalaya. Statement 2 is correct — the Ghaggar (Hakra) is an intermittent river that loses itself in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan. Statement 3 is correct — Puthimari and Manas are both right-bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Q.73 [Geography / Ports and Transportation]

Consider the following statements regarding transportation functions associated with important ports: 1. Singapore functions both as a port of call and an entrepôt. 2. Karwar in India is an example of a naval port. 3. Dover in England is an example of an outport. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 ✓

Explanation: Singapore is correctly described as both a port of call and a major entrepôt (transit trade hub). Karwar (INS Kadamba) in Karnataka is indeed a major Indian Navy base, making it a naval port. Dover is a ferry/passenger port and not typically classified as an outport (outports serve as outer anchorages for larger ports further inland); so statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.74 [Geography / Climatology]

Cumulonimbus clouds develop from which among the following clouds?

(a) Cumulus congestus clouds ✓
(b) Cumulus and Nimbostratus clouds
(c) Cumulus and Altostratus clouds
(d) Cirrocumulus clouds

Explanation: Cumulonimbus clouds develop through the vertical growth of cumulus congestus clouds (towering cumulus). When cumulus congestus continues to grow vertically with strong updrafts, it eventually glaciates at the top and becomes a cumulonimbus.

Q.75 [Geography / Environment]

Which of the following Ramsar Wetland sites is not situated in any of the Union Territories of India?

(a) Hokera Wetland
(b) Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary ✓
(c) Tsomoriri Lake
(d) Wular Lake

Explanation: Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu, which is a state — not a Union Territory. Hokera Wetland, Tsomoriri Lake, and Wular Lake are all in Jammu & Kashmir/Ladakh, which are Union Territories.

Q.76 [Geography / Historical Geography]

Eratosthenes, a Greek philosopher, measured the Earth's circumference based on the angle of Sun rays at two different points. Which cities were they?

(a) Alexandria and Syene ✓
(b) Syene and Troy
(c) Alexandria and Troy
(d) Alexandria and Thebes

Explanation: Eratosthenes (c. 276–194 BCE) measured the Earth's circumference by comparing the angle of the Sun's shadow at Alexandria and at Syene (modern Aswan) at the summer solstice, and calculating the arc distance between the two cities.

Q.77 [Geography / Geomorphology]

Which kind of mass wasting processes are commonly associated with creep?

(a) Fast speed with soil
(b) Slow speed with rock
(c) Slow speed with soil ✓
(d) Slow speed with ice

Explanation: Creep is the slowest type of mass wasting and is most commonly associated with slow, imperceptible downslope movement of soil. It typically involves soil (regolith) moving very slowly due to freeze-thaw cycles, wetting-drying, and gravity.

Q.78 [Geography / Climatology]

Consider the following statements: 1. Hadley cells are key to understanding the wind patterns of Earth. 2. Hadley cells are formed because the Equator is heated more strongly by the Sun than other places, creating thermal circulations. With regard to the statements given above, which of the following is correct?

(a) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. ✓
(b) Both the statements are correct, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is correct.

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Hadley cells (tropical circulation cells) are indeed fundamental to understanding global wind patterns (trade winds, ITCZ). They form because the equatorial region receives maximum solar heating, causing warm air to rise there and creating the thermal-driven circulation — so statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

Q.79 [Geography / Oceanography]

Consider the following statements: 1. Ocean currents are dominated by huge surface gyres that are driven by the global surface wind pattern. 2. Equatorial currents move cold water westward and then poleward along the east coasts of continents. With regard to the statements given above, which of the following is correct?

(a) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both the statements are correct, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is false. ✓
(d) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is correct.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — ocean surface gyres are driven by global wind patterns. Statement 2 is incorrect — equatorial currents move warm water (not cold water) westward; cold water is associated with eastern boundary/upwelling currents. Hence statement 2 is false.

Q.80 [Geography / Environment & Forests]

As per India State of Forest Report 2021, which one of the following states is not among the top three with reference to maximum area under forest?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra ✓

Explanation: As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, the top three states by total forest cover area are Madhya Pradesh (1st), Arunachal Pradesh (2nd), and Chhattisgarh (3rd). Maharashtra does not feature in the top three, making it the correct answer.

Q.81 [Geography]

How is strong pressure gradient represented on a weather map?

(a) Closely spaced isobars ✓
(b) Widely spaced isobars
(c) Closely spaced isobars at the periphery
(d) A set of two widely spaced isobars followed by two closely spaced isobars

Explanation: A strong pressure gradient means pressure changes rapidly over a short distance, which is depicted by closely spaced isobars on a weather map. Widely spaced isobars indicate a weak pressure gradient.

Q.82 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not an example of chemical weathering?

(a) Acid action
(b) Hydrolysis
(c) Salt Crystal Growth ✓
(d) Oxidation

Explanation: Salt crystal growth (salt weathering or haloclasty) is a form of mechanical/physical weathering, not chemical weathering. Acid action, hydrolysis, and oxidation are all chemical weathering processes that alter the mineral composition of rocks.

Q.83 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding Arc Volcanoes is/are correct? 1. Arc volcanoes are found near divergent plate boundaries. 2. Some of the world's classical examples of cone-shaped stratovolcanoes, such as Mount Fuji in Japan, Mayon in the Philippines are Arc volcanoes. 3. Some of the highest volcanoes on Earth are of the Arc type, notably Nevado Ojos del Salado in the Chilean Andes. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Arc volcanoes are found near convergent plate boundaries (subduction zones), not divergent boundaries, so statement 1 is wrong. Statements 2 and 3 are correct — Mount Fuji and Mayon are classic arc stratovolcanoes, and Nevado Ojos del Salado in the Chilean Andes is one of the highest arc volcanoes on Earth.

Q.84 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements regarding S-waves is not correct?

(a) S-waves are slower than P-waves.
(b) During an earthquake S-waves are less destructive to structures like buildings and highway overpasses. ✓
(c) S-waves can travel only through solids and cannot travel through the Earth's outer core.
(d) Seismologists have concluded that the Earth's outer core must be liquid or fluid.

Explanation: S-waves (secondary/shear waves) are actually MORE destructive to structures like buildings and highway overpasses than P-waves because of their side-to-side and up-down shaking motion. The other statements are all correct.

Q.85 [Geography]

Which of the following states is/are part of the Ganga Basin? 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Rajasthan Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three states are part of the Ganga basin. The Ganga basin extends across a wide swath of northern and central India including Himachal Pradesh (upper tributaries), Rajasthan (through the Chambal and Yamuna systems), and Chhattisgarh (through the Son river tributary).

Q.86 [Geography]

Which peninsular river has a tributary named 'Kabini'?

(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Kaveri ✓

Explanation: The Kabini River is a tributary of the Kaveri (Cauvery) River. It originates in Kerala and joins the Kaveri in Karnataka near Mysuru.

Q.87 [Geography]

Consider the following statements: 1. Bajra is predominantly grown in states like Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat, while Ragi is mainly cultivated in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. 2. Bajra grows well in sandy and shallow black soils, whereas red and shallow black soil is suited for Ragi. Which of the following is correct?

(a) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both the statements are correct, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. ✓
(c) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is correct.

Explanation: Both statements are factually correct — Bajra is indeed grown in Rajasthan, UP and Gujarat, and Ragi in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu; Bajra prefers sandy soils and Ragi prefers red soils. However, statement 2 does not fully explain why those states grow those crops, as the distribution is also influenced by climate, rainfall patterns, and tradition, so statement 2 is not a complete explanation of statement 1.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.88 [Geography]

Which of the following peaks are situated in India? 1. Dhaulagiri 2. Namcha Barwa 3. Kamet 4. Makalu Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Namcha Barwa is located in Tibet/Arunachal Pradesh border region (considered to be in India/China border) and Kamet is entirely in Uttarakhand, India. Dhaulagiri is in Nepal, and Makalu is also in Nepal. Among the options, Namcha Barwa (on the India-China border, in Arunachal Pradesh side) and Kamet (Uttarakhand) are situated in India.

Q.89 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding River Rhine is/are correct? 1. Rhine River is an important pathway for industrial activity in northern Germany. 2. Port of Rotterdam is located at the mouth of the Rhine River. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Rhine flows through the industrial heartland of western Germany (Ruhr region) making it a vital industrial waterway. The Port of Rotterdam in the Netherlands is indeed located at the Rhine's mouth (Rhine-Meuse delta) and is one of the world's busiest ports.

Q.90 [Geography]

With reference to the continent of 'Antarctica' which of the following statements are correct? 1. It is larger than Europe in terms of area. 2. It has the highest average elevation as compared to all other continents. 3. Mt. Ross is the highest peak of this continent. 4. Waters of the Southern Ocean (West Wind Drift) move in an anticlockwise direction around it. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Antarctica (14 million sq km) is larger than Europe (10.5 million sq km) — statement 1 is correct. Antarctica has the highest mean elevation of any continent (~2,300 m) — statement 2 is correct. The highest peak in Antarctica is Vinson Massif, not Mt. Ross — statement 3 is wrong. The West Wind Drift/Antarctic Circumpolar Current flows clockwise (eastward) around Antarctica when viewed from above, not anticlockwise — statement 4 is wrong.

Q.91 [Economics]

Consider the following statements: 1. A rupee Vostro account is an account that an Indian bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic currency (rupee) to enable domestic banks to provide international banking services. 2. Insurance density, i.e., average insurance premium per capita does not fully capture the financing gap in the event of a premature death because most of the insurance products sold in India are savings-linked with a small component of protection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. A Vostro account is indeed an account maintained by an Indian bank on behalf of a foreign bank in rupees, facilitating international trade in local currency. Insurance density in India does not fully reflect protection coverage because most policies sold are endowment/ULIP-type with low pure risk cover, understating the protection gap.

Q.92 [Economics]

Consider the following statements: 1. An additional spending by the Government of ₹ X is likely to have less impact on income than an additional transfer of ₹ X to households. 2. An additional spending by the Government of ₹ X is likely to have less impact on income if it is not accompanied by an expansion in money supply. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — government spending has a higher multiplier effect on income than transfers, because transfers depend on the marginal propensity to consume whereas direct government expenditure is fully counted in GDP. Statement 2 is correct — without monetary expansion, increased government spending can crowd out private investment (rising interest rates), reducing the net impact on income.

Q.93 [Environment]

Long-Term Low Emissions Development Strategy envisions: 1. a transition from fossil fuels in a just, smooth, sustainable manner. 2. increased use of bio-fuels. 3. climate resistant urban development. 4. financing of sustainable development through Green Bonds. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: India's Long-Term Low Emissions Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) submitted at COP27 envisions transition from fossil fuels in a just manner, increased use of biofuels (especially under the National Biofuel Policy), and climate-resilient urban development. Green Bonds financing is not a specific envisioned element of the LT-LEDS framework, making option (b) — statements 1, 2 and 3 — the best answer.

Q.94 [Economics]

Which one among the following was the focus of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan?

(a) Sustainable and Inclusive Growth ✓
(b) Social Justice and Equality
(c) Food, Work and Productivity
(d) Attainment of Self-reliance

Explanation: The Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012–2017) of India had the theme 'Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.' The focus was on sustainable and inclusive growth. Earlier plans had different themes: self-reliance was stressed in earlier plans, and food/work in others.

Q.95 [Economics]

Which of the following is not included in the Capital Account of the Balance of Payments of a country?

(a) Foreign Direct Investment
(b) Commercial Borrowing
(c) Invisibles ✓
(d) External Assistance

Explanation: 'Invisibles' (such as services, remittances, and transfers) are part of the Current Account of the Balance of Payments, not the Capital Account. FDI, commercial borrowing, and external assistance are all Capital Account items.

Q.96 [Economics]

The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in: 1. Enhancing India's manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries 2. Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative aims to make India self-reliant by boosting domestic manufacturing capabilities and exports (through PLI schemes etc.) as well as attracting foreign investments for domestic production. Both statements are correct objectives of the scheme.

Q.97 [Economics]

Which one of the following statements for a firm's equilibrium in Perfect Competition is not correct?

(a) The market price must be greater or equal to average variable cost in the short run.
(b) The market price must be equal to marginal cost.
(c) The market price must be equal to average cost in the long run.
(d) The marginal cost decreases at the equilibrium output. ✓

Explanation: At equilibrium in perfect competition, marginal cost must be rising (not decreasing) at the equilibrium output — this ensures that the firm is at a profit-maximizing (not profit-minimizing) point. Options (a), (b), and (c) are all correct conditions for firm equilibrium in perfect competition.

Q.98 [Polity]

Which one of the following taxes is not included in the Central Pool to be shared with the States, according to the recommendations of Finance Commission of India?

(a) Personal Income Tax
(b) Corporate Profit Tax
(c) Surcharge and Cess ✓
(d) Excise Duties

Explanation: As per Article 270 of the Constitution, surcharges and cesses levied by the Centre are not included in the divisible pool to be shared with states. Personal income tax, corporate tax, and central excise duties are part of the sharable pool as per Finance Commission recommendations.

Q.99 [Economics]

Which one of the following dimensions is not included in Human Development Index?

(a) Life Expectancy at birth
(b) Mean years of schooling
(c) Expected years of schooling
(d) Mortality rate ✓

Explanation: The Human Development Index (HDI) comprises three dimensions: health (measured by life expectancy at birth), education (measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling), and standard of living (GNI per capita). Mortality rate is not a separate dimension in the HDI.

Q.100 [Economics]

Suppose there are only two normal goods in the economy, X and Y. If price of good X increases, which would be the correct statement from below?

(a) Demand for good X decreases and demand for Y is indeterminate. ✓
(b) Demand for good X decreases and demand for Y decreases.
(c) Demand for good X increases and demand for Y is indeterminate.
(d) Demand for good X increases and demand for Y decreases.

Explanation: When the price of normal good X rises, demand for X falls (law of demand). For good Y, the effect is indeterminate without knowing whether X and Y are substitutes or complements — if substitutes, demand for Y rises; if complements, demand for Y falls. Since the relationship is unspecified, the demand for Y is indeterminate.

Q.101 [Economics]

If the price index increased from 100 in 2021 to 110 in 2022 to 132 in 2023, then the rate of inflation is:

(a) 10%
(b) 32%
(c) 20% ✓
(d) Cannot be determined

Explanation: The rate of inflation from 2022 to 2023 is calculated as ((132-110)/110) × 100 = (22/110) × 100 = 20%. The question asks for the rate of inflation (the most recent year-on-year change), which is 20%.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.102 [Economics]

The Rangarajan Committee methodology for determining the poverty line incorporated which of the following? 1. A food component 2. A normative level of expenditure for essential non-food items 3. A behaviourally determined expenditure for other non-food items Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The Rangarajan Committee (2014) recommended a comprehensive poverty line that included a food component (calorie, protein, fat norms), a normative level of expenditure for essential non-food items (education, health), and a behaviourally determined expenditure for other non-food items based on actual consumption patterns.

Q.103 [Economics]

Which one of the following is not a fund managed by NIIFL (National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited)?

(a) Master Fund
(b) Fund of Funds
(c) Strategic Opportunities Fund
(d) Global Investment Fund ✓

Explanation: NIIFL manages three funds: the Master Fund (infrastructure), Fund of Funds (investing in other funds), and Strategic Opportunities Fund (equity investments). 'Global Investment Fund' is not one of NIIFL's funds.

Q.104 [Polity / Government Schemes]

Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund was established with the view to help which one of the following groups?

(a) Medical Practitioners
(b) Farmers
(c) Sportspersons ✓
(d) War Widows

Explanation: The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund for Sportspersons was established to provide financial assistance to outstanding sportspersons of yesteryears who are in indigent/needy circumstances, including former medal winners at the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, Asian Games, World Championships, etc.

Q.105 [Economics]

Which one among the following items comprises the major portion of revenue expenditure of the Union Government of India?

(a) Salaries
(b) Interest Payments ✓
(c) Road Transport and Highways
(d) Defence Services

Explanation: Interest payments consistently constitute the largest single component of revenue expenditure in the Union Budget of India, accounting for around 20-25% of total revenue expenditure, surpassing even defence and salaries.

Q.106 [Sports]

India's women's badminton team recently won the Badminton Asia Team Championship, 2024. Who among the following players was not a part of the team?

(a) P.V. Sindhu
(b) Treesa Jolly
(c) Anmol Kharb
(d) Saina Nehwal ✓

Explanation: Saina Nehwal was not part of India's squad that won the Badminton Asia Team Championship 2024. The team included P.V. Sindhu, Anmol Kharb, Treesa Jolly, and others, but Saina Nehwal had effectively retired from active international competition at that level.

Q.107 [Science & Technology / Health]

Which of the following statements related to Indian medicine system is not correct?

(a) The Siddha system is a holistic system of medicine.
(b) Sowa-Rigpa has been in practice in the Himalayan regions of India.
(c) Unani system of medicine has been dissociated from the Ministry of Ayush. ✓
(d) Sushruta Samhita is a major source of Ayurveda.

Explanation: The Unani system of medicine is very much a part of the Ministry of Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy). It has not been dissociated from the Ministry of Ayush, making statement (c) incorrect.

Q.108 [Polity / Government Schemes]

Which one of the following statements is correct about NISHTHA, a Government of India initiative?

(a) It is a training module recently introduced in LBSNAA for civil servants.
(b) It is a teacher-training programme. ✓
(c) It is a training programme for the new recruits in Delhi Police to inculcate integrity of service among them.
(d) It is a workshop for newly elected Members of Parliament organized routinely by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.

Explanation: NISHTHA (National Initiative for School Heads' and Teachers' Holistic Advancement) is a national teacher-training programme launched by the Ministry of Education to build the capacities of teachers and school heads at the elementary level.

Q.109 [International Affairs]

Arrange the BRICS countries in ascending order of their rank in the Human Development Report 2023-24, released by the UNDP: 1. China 2. India 3. Russia 4. Brazil 5. South Africa Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 ✓
(b) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(c) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3

Explanation: In the HDR 2023-24, the approximate HDI ranks among BRICS are: Russia (~99), China (~75), Brazil (~89), South Africa (~110), India (~134). Ascending order (lowest rank number = highest development first) gives: China(1), Brazil(4), Russia(3), South Africa(5), India(2), matching option (a): 2, 5, 4, 1, 3.

Q.110 [International Affairs]

India has signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA, which is a regional group consisting of four countries. Which one of the following countries is not a member of this group?

(a) Switzerland
(b) Norway
(c) Iceland
(d) England ✓

Explanation: EFTA (European Free Trade Association) consists of four countries: Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein. England (or the UK) is not a member of EFTA; it left both the EU and EFTA arrangements under Brexit.

Q.111 [Geography]

Which one of the following countries shares the territorial boundary with both Russia and Ukraine?

(a) Estonia
(b) Latvia
(c) Belarus ✓
(d) Poland

Explanation: Belarus shares borders with both Russia (to the north and east) and Ukraine (to the south). Estonia and Latvia border Russia but not Ukraine; Poland borders Ukraine but not Russia (it borders the Russian exclave of Kaliningrad, but not mainland Russia).

Q.112 [Environment / Current Affairs]

In June 2024, India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with USA for supporting Indian Railways to achieve Mission Net Zero Carbon Emission by the year:

(a) 2030
(b) 2040
(c) 2050 ✓
(d) 2070

Explanation: The MoU signed between India and the USA in June 2024 supports Indian Railways' goal of achieving Net Zero Carbon Emission by 2050, aligning with global climate targets under the Paris Agreement framework.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.113 [Polity / Government Schemes]

Which one of the following statements is correct about the PM-JANMAN scheme?

(a) It is a scheme of the Government of India to impart electoral literacy to voters.
(b) It is a scheme of the Government of India for deepening of democracy in the functioning of Panchayati Raj institutions.
(c) It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting every member of the tribal community from Government schemes. ✓
(d) It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting migrants workers in the unorganized sector.

Explanation: PM-JANMAN (Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan) is a scheme launched in November 2023 specifically to improve the socio-economic condition of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and ensure they benefit from various government schemes.

Q.114 [Current Affairs / Maritime]

Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) SAGAR-SETU is a mobile app, which aims to improve the Ease of Doing Business.
(b) Harit Sagar aims at achieving Zero Carbon Emission Goal.
(c) Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production. ✓
(d) Costa Serena is the first international cruise liner in India.

Explanation: Sagar Manthan is a centralised web-based MIS portal of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways for monitoring of activities — it is not a mission to increase fish production. Fish production falls under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.

Q.115 [Environment / Geography]

ISRO, in its studies, has revealed that there is a 178% increase in the size of the Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake. In which of the following States/UTs is this lake located?

(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Ladakh
(c) Himachal Pradesh ✓
(d) Uttarakhand

Explanation: Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake is located in Himachal Pradesh. ISRO's study on glacial lake expansion identified this lake in HP as having expanded significantly, posing a glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) risk.

Q.116 [Polity / Internal Security]

Which of the following State/s is/are common to Bru-Reang Agreement, NLFT (SD) Agreement and Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA?

(a) Tripura ✓
(b) Assam and Tripura
(c) Tripura and Mizoram
(d) Manipur and Mizoram

Explanation: All three agreements — the Bru-Reang Agreement (settlement of Bru refugees), the NLFT (SD) Agreement (surrender of National Liberation Front of Tripura), and the Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA (Tipraha Indigenous Progressive Regional Alliance) — are related to Tripura, making Tripura the common state.

Q.117 [Arts & Culture]

Which of the following movies won the 96th Academy Award 2024 in the Best Picture category?

(a) Anatomy of a Fall
(b) Oppenheimer ✓
(c) Barbie
(d) Killers of the Flower Moon

Explanation: Oppenheimer, directed by Christopher Nolan, won the Best Picture award at the 96th Academy Awards held in March 2024. It also won Best Director and several other major awards that night.

Q.118 [Health / Current Affairs]

India's first dedicated OPD for the Transgenders was opened at which one among the following hospitals?

(a) AIIMS, New Delhi
(b) PGIMER, Chandigarh
(c) KGMU, Lucknow ✓
(d) RML Hospital, New Delhi

Explanation: India's first dedicated OPD (Out Patient Department) for transgender persons was inaugurated at King George's Medical University (KGMU), Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, marking a landmark step in inclusive healthcare for the transgender community.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.119 [Defence / Current Affairs]

Which one of the following statements about 'INS Tarmugli' is not correct?

(a) It is a fast attack craft commissioned by the Indian Navy.
(b) It was commissioned at Naval Dockyard, Visakhapatnam. ✓
(c) It was given by the Government of India to Sri Lankan Naval Force in 2006 and returned to the Indian Navy in May 2023.
(d) It is supposed to be used for coastal surveillance.

Explanation: INS Tarmugli was commissioned at Naval Dockyard, Port Blair (Andaman & Nicobar), not Visakhapatnam. It is a fast attack craft used for coastal surveillance that was gifted to Sri Lanka and later returned to India.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.120 [Environment / International Affairs]

Which one of the following resolutions in the final agreement reached at COP28 is associated with the target of achieving 'Net Zero by 2050'?

(a) Fossil fuel phase-out ✓
(b) Methane emission cuts
(c) Global goal on adaptation
(d) Climate resilience

Explanation: The COP28 final agreement's historic decision to 'transition away from fossil fuels' is directly linked to the pathway of achieving Net Zero emissions by 2050, as phasing out fossil fuels is the primary mechanism to reach that target under the Paris Agreement's 1.5°C goal.