NDA I 2018 General Ability Test with Solutions

Q.1 [Antonyms]

The country's economy must be geared to wartime requirements. (Find the antonym of 'geared to')

(a) subordinated to
(b) related to
(c) adjusted to
(d) unlinked to ✓

Explanation: 'Geared to' means adjusted or oriented towards something. The antonym is 'unlinked to', meaning not connected or oriented.

Q.2 [Antonyms]

Why does fire attract insects? (Find the antonym of 'attract')

(a) discharge
(b) destroy
(c) repel ✓
(d) remove

Explanation: 'Attract' means to draw towards. The direct antonym is 'repel', meaning to drive away.

Q.3 [Antonyms]

The party was excellent, and I would like to thank all the people concerned. (Find the antonym of 'concerned')

(a) cared
(b) attentive
(c) dependable
(d) uninvolved ✓

Explanation: 'Concerned' means involved or interested. Its antonym is 'uninvolved', meaning having no part or interest.

Q.4 [Antonyms]

He is very serious by temperament. (Find the antonym of 'serious')

(a) grave
(b) trivial ✓
(c) sober
(d) stupid

Explanation: 'Serious' means grave or solemn. The antonym is 'trivial', meaning of little importance or not serious. Note: 'grave' and 'sober' are synonyms of serious.

Q.5 [Antonyms]

There are a few miscellaneous items to discuss in this meeting. (Find the antonym of 'miscellaneous')

(a) pure
(b) mixed
(c) homogenous ✓
(d) discordant

Explanation: 'Miscellaneous' means composed of various kinds mixed together. Its antonym is 'homogenous', meaning of the same kind or uniform in nature.

Q.6 [Antonyms]

Due to the postal strike, the outgoing mail got delayed. (Find the antonym of 'outgoing')

(a) urgent
(b) incoming ✓
(c) ordinary
(d) speedy

Explanation: 'Outgoing' mail refers to mail being sent out. The antonym is 'incoming', referring to mail being received.

Q.7 [Antonyms]

He had a fine ear for music. (Find the antonym of 'fine')

(a) small
(b) close
(c) coarse ✓
(d) smooth

Explanation: In this context, 'fine' means delicate or subtle. The antonym is 'coarse', meaning rough or lacking refinement.

Q.8 [Antonyms]

There is no likeness between him and his brother. (Find the antonym of 'likeness')

(a) unlikeliness
(b) unlikelihood
(c) dissimilarity ✓
(d) disaffinity

Explanation: 'Likeness' means resemblance or similarity. The correct antonym is 'dissimilarity', meaning the quality of being unlike or different.

Q.9 [Antonyms]

Cultural diversity in the workplace is good for business. (Find the antonym of 'diversity')

(a) uniformity ✓
(b) conformity
(c) identity
(d) similarity

Explanation: 'Diversity' means variety or the state of being different. The best antonym is 'uniformity', meaning the quality of being the same throughout.

Q.10 [Antonyms]

The company was liquidated within five years. (Find the antonym of 'liquidated')

(a) bankrupt
(b) closed down
(c) flourishing ✓
(d) privatised

Explanation: 'Liquidated' means wound up or closed. The antonym is 'flourishing', meaning growing or thriving successfully.

Q.11 [Spotting Errors]

The politician lost face in his constituency (a) when he broke the pre-election promises (b) he made to his people. No error. (c) / (d)

(a) lost face in his constituency
(b) when he broke the pre-election promises ✓
(c) he made to his people
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct expression is 'broke his pre-election promises' — the possessive pronoun 'his' is needed rather than 'the'. Alternatively, 'pre-election' could be debated, but the main error is 'the pre-election promises' should be 'his pre-election promises'.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.12 [Spotting Errors]

At the request of the Defence Attorney, (a) the jury were called (b) and their individual verdicts were recorded. (c) No error. (d)

(a) At the request of the Defence Attorney
(b) the jury were called
(c) and their individual verdicts were recorded
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: 'Jury' as a collective noun can take a plural verb ('were') when individual members are implied, which is appropriate here since 'individual verdicts' follows. The sentence is grammatically correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.13 [Spotting Errors]

Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed (a) by colleagues (b) as the greater of all modern architects. No error. (c) / (d)

(a) Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed
(b) by colleagues
(c) as the greater of all modern architects ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Greater' is a comparative form used for two items; when comparing among more than two, the superlative 'greatest' should be used. It should read 'the greatest of all modern architects'.

Q.14 [Spotting Errors]

In my younger days (a) I could run four miles (b) at a stretch. (c) No error. (d)

(a) In my younger days
(b) I could run four miles
(c) at a stretch
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct in all its parts; there is no error.

Q.15 [Spotting Errors]

The owner as well as his servants (a) is (b) honest. (c) No error. (d)

(a) The owner as well as his servants
(b) is
(c) honest
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: When two subjects are joined by 'as well as', the verb agrees with the first subject ('the owner'), which is singular. 'Is' is correct here, so there is no error.

Q.16 [Idioms and Phrases]

Cry over spilt milk

(a) Complaining about a loss in the past ✓
(b) Too much inquisitive about something
(c) When something is done badly to save money
(d) Dealing with a problem only in an emergency situation

Explanation: 'Cry over spilt milk' means to feel upset or complain about something that has already happened and cannot be changed.

Q.17 [Idioms and Phrases]

Cut the mustard

(a) Prepare spices out of mustard seeds
(b) To come up to expectations ✓
(c) Making absurd expectations
(d) Very enthusiastic

Explanation: 'Cut the mustard' means to meet the required standard or come up to expectations.

Q.18 [Idioms and Phrases]

Devil's advocate

(a) A dangerous person
(b) To present a counter argument ✓
(c) Very argumentative person
(d) Creating an unpleasant situation

Explanation: 'Devil's advocate' refers to someone who argues the opposite side for the sake of argument or to test the strength of an idea.

Q.19 [Idioms and Phrases]

Don't count your chickens before the eggs have hatched

(a) If you are not good at something, better to avoid that
(b) Don't make plans for something that might not happen ✓
(c) Not to come up to expectations
(d) Don't put all your resources in one possibility

Explanation: This proverb advises not to make plans based on something that has not yet happened, as it may not occur.

Q.20 [Idioms and Phrases]

Give the benefit of doubt

(a) To be partial to someone
(b) To be judgmental
(c) Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise ✓
(d) Say something exactly right

Explanation: 'Give the benefit of the doubt' means to treat someone as if they are innocent or trustworthy when you are not completely sure.

Q.21 [Ordering of Sentences]

S1: The Subsidiary Alliance system was extremely advantageous to the British. S6: They controlled the defence and the foreign relations of the protected ally. P: They could now maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states. Q: if any war occurred in the territories. R: either of the British ally or of the Britishers. S: This enabled them to fight wars far away from their own territories. Arrange P, Q, R, S in the correct order.

(a) P Q R S
(b) P S Q R ✓
(c) Q R P S
(d) S R P Q

Explanation: The logical sequence is: P (They could maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states) → S (This enabled them to fight far away) → Q (if any war occurred in the territories) → R (either of the British ally or the Britishers), forming a coherent argument about the British advantage.

Q.22 [Sentence Arrangement]

S1: In reality, by signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian state virtually signed away its independence. S6: In fact, the Indian ruler lost all vestiges of sovereignty in external matters. P: Of maintaining diplomatic relations Q: It lost the right of self defence R: With its neighbours S: And of settling its disputes The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S
(b) P S P Q
(c) Q P S R
(d) Q S R P ✓

Explanation: The sentence after S1 logically begins with 'It lost the right of self defence' (Q), then 'And of settling its disputes' (S), then 'With its neighbours' (R) — which completes the phrase about settling disputes — and finally 'Of maintaining diplomatic relations' (P), leading into S6 about loss of sovereignty in external matters. Sequence Q-S-R-P fits best.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.23 [Sentence Arrangement]

S1: A mighty popular Revolt broke out in Northern and Central India in 1857. S6: Millions of peasants, artisans and soldiers fought heroically and wrote a glorious chapter. P: Sepoys, or the Indian soldiers of the Company's army Q: But soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses R: And nearly swept away the British rule S: It began with a mutiny of the The proper sequence should be

(a) R S P Q
(b) P Q R S ✓
(c) S R P Q
(d) Q R P S

Explanation: The revolt began with a mutiny (S) of the Sepoys/Indian soldiers (P), but soon engulfed wide regions (Q), and nearly swept away British rule (R), giving the sequence P-Q-R-S connecting smoothly with S6 about the masses fighting heroically. Wait — S says 'It began with a mutiny of the' and P continues 'Sepoys…', so S must precede P. The correct order is S-P-Q-R, but that is not an option. Option (b) P-Q-R-S: 'Sepoys… but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses and nearly swept away the British rule' — this works if S is implied. Among the options, (b) P-Q-R-S is the most coherent narrative sequence given the choices.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.24 [Sentence Arrangement]

S1: The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most efficient and powerful civil services in the world. S6: Though these qualities obviously served British, and not Indian interests. P: And often participated in the making of policy Q: Independence, integrity and hard work R: They developed certain traditions of S: Its members exercised vast power The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S
(b) Q R S P
(c) R S Q P
(d) S P R Q ✓

Explanation: 'Its members exercised vast power' (S) follows from S1, then 'And often participated in the making of policy' (P), then 'They developed certain traditions of' (R), then 'Independence, integrity and hard work' (Q) — these qualities then link to S6 about serving British interests. Sequence S-P-R-Q fits logically.

Q.25 [Sentence Arrangement]

S1: The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufactures. S6: Centres were developed and laid waste. P: Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising industrial Q: Ravages of war and plunder, failed to R: Survive British conquest S: Cities which had withstood the The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S
(b) S Q R P ✓
(c) S R P Q
(d) Q R S P

Explanation: 'Cities which had withstood the' (S) leads into 'ravages of war and plunder, failed to' (Q), then 'survive British conquest' (R), then 'Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising industrial' (P) connects to S6 'Centres were developed and laid waste.' Sequence S-Q-R-P is option (b).

Q.26 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preserve — our individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not. According to the author, the 'rule of the road' implies

(a) the rule regulating the traffic on the road
(b) the principle on which a road is constructed to ensure safe traffic
(c) unrestricted freedom for all to lead a happy life
(d) restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all ✓

Explanation: The author explicitly states that liberties of everybody must be curtailed so that the liberties of all may be preserved — meaning restricted individual freedom ensures freedom for all.

Q.27 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preserve — our individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not. The author thinks that when a policeman signals you to stop on a road-crossing, he is

(a) behaving in a whimsical manner
(b) interfering with your freedom to use the road
(c) protecting the liberty of all to use the road ✓
(d) mischievously creating hurdles in your way from some personal motive

Explanation: The author says the policeman is 'the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty', meaning he protects the liberty of all to use the road.

Q.28 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preserve — our individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not. The author is of the view that we should

(a) have absolute individual liberty without any restrictions imposed by the society
(b) have everything controlled by the society without any kind of individual liberty
(c) try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty ✓
(d) have more of social liberty than individual liberty

Explanation: The author states 'we must have a judicious mixture of both' individual and social liberty, which means striking a sensible balance between the two.

Q.29 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preserve — our individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not. The author holds that

(a) educating or not educating his child is a matter of personal liberty
(b) educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty ✓
(c) choosing the school for his child is a matter of social liberty
(d) choosing the subject of study for his child is a matter of social liberty

Explanation: The author says if he refuses to educate his child at all, society will intervene — so not educating becomes a matter of social liberty. Choosing the school or subject (personal decisions) remains personal, but withholding education entirely crosses into social concern.

Q.30 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preserve — our individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not. The most suitable title of the passage would be

(a) The Policeman at a Road Crossing
(b) The Laws of the Road
(c) Importance of Liberty ✓
(d) Education of Children

Explanation: The entire passage revolves around the concept of liberty — individual versus social — making 'Importance of Liberty' the most apt title.

Q.31 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning — a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door, and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy? Consider the following statements: 1. The tiny bat flew in low like a dive-bomber. 2. The tiny bat like all bats keeps near the ceiling. 3. It has lost direction because its radar has gone wrong. 4. It wants to entertain the author with its skill in flying. Which of the above statements may be assumed to be true from the information given in the passage?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

Explanation: Only statement 1 is directly stated in the passage. Statement 2 is false (this bat does the opposite). Statements 3 and 4 are speculations by the author, not stated as facts.

Q.32 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning — a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door, and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy? The bat entered the room

(a) because there was no alternative
(b) to eat the moths round the lamps ✓
(c) as it had gone mad
(d) as it preferred to fly in through the open door

Explanation: The passage clearly states 'His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps.'

Q.33 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning — a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door, and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy? After comparing the habits of the tiny bat with those of other bats, the author was

(a) sure that this bat had lost its direction
(b) not sure of its preferences
(c) surprised to find that it was an expert flier
(d) unable to give the correct explanation for its behaviour ✓

Explanation: The author ends with two rhetorical questions ('Has his radar gone wrong… or is he just plain crazy?'), indicating he could not give a definitive explanation for the bat's unusual behaviour.

Q.34 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning — a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door, and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy? The author calls the tiny bat an 'interesting visitor'. This means

(a) the bat visits him at night
(b) the bat is interested in the moths
(c) this bat has peculiar qualities ✓
(d) this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber

Explanation: The bat is 'interesting' because it behaves very differently from other bats — flying low, zooming between furniture and legs — making it peculiar and unusual.

Q.35 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning — a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door, and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy? What, according to you, can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(a) Someone Visits Me
(b) Night of Mysteries
(c) My Nocturnal Visitor ✓
(d) A Funny Visitor

Explanation: The bat visits at night (nocturnal) and the author describes it as 'my most interesting visitor', making 'My Nocturnal Visitor' the most fitting and precise title.

Q.36 [Fill in the Blank]

The tired traveller ________ on in the hope of finding some resting place.

(a) strolled
(b) scurried
(c) paraded
(d) plodded ✓

Explanation: 'Plodded' means to walk slowly and heavily with effort, which perfectly suits a tired traveller continuing wearily; 'strolled' implies leisure, 'scurried' implies speed, and 'paraded' implies display.

Q.37 [Fill in the Blank]

The car was damaged beyond repair in the ________ accident.

(a) outrageous
(b) ghastly ✓
(c) nasty
(d) heinous

Explanation: 'Ghastly' means horrifying or terrible and is the most natural collocate with 'accident' implying severe damage; 'heinous' typically refers to moral wrongdoing, 'outrageous' to behaviour, and 'nasty' is too mild.

Q.38 [Fill in the Blank]

They gave a ________ dinner to celebrate the occasion, which impressed every guest.

(a) austere
(b) public
(c) sumptuous ✓
(d) summary

Explanation: 'Sumptuous' means splendid and expensive-looking, fitting a celebratory dinner that impressed every guest; 'austere' means plain/simple, which contradicts the impression of grandeur.

Q.39 [Fill in the Blank]

Once the manuscript is ________ received by the publishers, it is typed in double space.

(a) total
(b) full
(c) complete ✓
(d) entire

Explanation: 'Once the manuscript is completely received' is the natural phrasing; adverb 'completely' (from 'complete' used adverbially here) modifies 'received', indicating full receipt. Among the options, 'complete' used as an adverb is idiomatic in this context.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.40 [Fill in the Blank]

I am used to ________ in queues.

(a) stand
(b) standing ✓
(c) stand up
(d) standing still

Explanation: 'Be used to' is always followed by a gerund (verb+ing). 'Standing' is the correct form; 'stand' (bare infinitive) is grammatically incorrect after 'used to' in this sense.

Q.41 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat ✓
(b) Any energy transfer always requires a temperature difference
(c) On heating the length and volume of the object remain exactly the same
(d) Whenever there is a temperature difference, heat is the only way of energy transfer

Explanation: Heat is defined as energy transfer due to a temperature difference; energy transfer without a temperature difference is not heat. Option b is wrong because work is an energy transfer without temperature difference. Option d is wrong because radiation and conduction can occur along with other mechanisms.

Q.42 [Physics]

If T is the time period of an oscillating pendulum, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The motion repeats after time T only once. ✓
(b) T is the least time after which motion repeats itself
(c) The motion repeats itself after nT, where n is a positive integer
(d) T remains the same only for small angular displacements

Explanation: The statement 'the motion repeats after time T only once' is incorrect because the motion repeats after every multiple of T (i.e., 2T, 3T, etc.), not just once. Option b correctly defines T as the period.

Q.43 [Physics]

If an object moves with constant velocity then which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) Its motion is along a straight line
(b) Its speed changes with time ✓
(c) Its acceleration is zero
(d) Its displacement increases linearly with time

Explanation: Constant velocity means both magnitude (speed) and direction are constant, so speed does NOT change with time. Options a, c, and d are all correct properties of constant velocity motion.

Q.44 [Physics]

An object is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its initial velocity is u and after time t its velocity is v. The equation of its motion is v = u + at. The velocity (along y-axis) time (along x-axis) graph shall be a straight line

(a) passing through origin
(b) with x-intercept u
(c) with y-intercept u ✓
(d) with slope u

Explanation: In v = u + at, comparing with y = mx + c, the y-intercept is u (initial velocity) and the slope is a (acceleration). So the graph is a straight line with y-intercept u.

Q.45 [Physics]

What is the net force experienced by a bar magnet placed in a uniform magnetic field?

(a) Zero ✓
(b) Depends upon length of the magnet
(c) Never zero
(d) Depends upon temperature

Explanation: In a uniform magnetic field, the forces on the north and south poles of the bar magnet are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, so the net force is zero (though there may be a net torque).

Q.46 [Physics]

Which one of the following has maximum inertia?

(a) An atom
(b) A molecule
(c) A one-rupee coin
(d) A cricket ball ✓

Explanation: Inertia is directly proportional to mass. A cricket ball has the greatest mass among the given options (approximately 156–163 g), so it has the maximum inertia.

Q.47 [Physics]

Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy converted into joules?

(a) 1.8 x 10^6 J
(b) 3.6 x 10^6 J ✓
(c) 6.0 x 10^6 J
(d) 7.2 x 10^6 J

Explanation: 1 kWh = 1000 W × 3600 s = 3,600,000 J = 3.6 × 10^6 J.

Q.48 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements about gravitational force is NOT correct?

(a) It is experienced by all bodies in the universe
(b) It is a dominant force between celestial bodies
(c) It is a negligible force for atoms
(d) It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe ✓

Explanation: Gravitational force between two bodies depends on their masses and the distance between them (F = Gm1m2/r²), so it is NOT the same for all pairs of bodies. Options a, b, and c are correct statements about gravity.

Q.49 [Physics]

Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends on

(a) mass of the object only
(b) mass of the object and density of liquid only
(c) difference in the densities of the object and liquid ✓
(d) mass and shape of the object only

Explanation: An object floats if its density is less than the liquid's density and sinks if greater. The key factor is the relative densities (difference in densities) of the object and the liquid, not just mass or shape alone.

Q.50 [Physics]

Which one of the following devices is non-ohmic?

(a) Conducting copper coil
(b) Electric heating coil
(c) Semiconductor diode ✓
(d) Rheostat

Explanation: A semiconductor diode does not obey Ohm's law — it has a non-linear current-voltage relationship (it conducts in one direction only). Copper coil, heating coil, and rheostat are all ohmic devices that follow Ohm's law.

Q.51 [Physics]

Which one of the following is the natural phenomenon based on which a simple periscope works?

(a) Reflection of light ✓
(b) Refraction of light
(c) Dispersion of light
(d) Total internal reflection of light

Explanation: A simple periscope uses plane mirrors that reflect light, allowing the viewer to see over or around obstacles. The working principle is reflection of light.

Q.52 [Physics]

Which one of the following frequency ranges is sensitive to human ears?

(a) 0–200 Hz
(b) 20–20,000 Hz ✓
(c) 200–20,000 Hz only
(d) 2,000–20,000 Hz only

Explanation: The audible frequency range for human ears is approximately 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz). Sounds below 20 Hz are infrasonic and above 20,000 Hz are ultrasonic.

Q.53 [Chemistry]

The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation, which is due to injection of

(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Methanoic acid ✓
(c) Citric acid
(d) Sulphuric acid

Explanation: Nettle leaves inject methanoic acid (formic acid, HCOOH) through their stinging hair-like structures, causing the characteristic burning sensation on skin contact.

Q.54 [Chemistry]

Which of the following properties is true for a toothpaste?

(a) It is acidic
(b) It is neutral
(c) It is basic ✓
(d) It is made up of Calcium phosphate, the material of tooth enamel

Explanation: Toothpaste is basic (alkaline) in nature, typically with a pH between 8 and 10. This basic nature helps neutralize the acids produced by bacteria in the mouth that cause tooth decay.

Q.55 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following gives the highest amount of hydrogen ions (H+)?

(a) Sodium hydroxide solution
(b) Milk of magnesia
(c) Lemon juice
(d) Gastric juice ✓

Explanation: Gastric juice has a pH of approximately 1.5–2, making it the most acidic among the options and giving it the highest concentration of H+ ions. Lemon juice has pH ~2–3, while sodium hydroxide and milk of magnesia are alkaline.

Q.56 [Chemistry]

Brine is an aqueous solution of

(a) NaCl ✓
(b) NaOH
(c) NaHCO3
(d) Na2CO3

Explanation: Brine is simply a concentrated aqueous solution of common salt, sodium chloride (NaCl). It is used in food preservation and as a raw material in the chlor-alkali process.

Q.57 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Washing Soda?

(a) NaHCO3
(b) Na2CO3·10H2O ✓
(c) Na2CO3·5H2O
(d) NaOH

Explanation: Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate with the formula Na2CO3·10H2O. NaHCO3 is baking soda, and NaOH is caustic soda.

Q.58 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder?

(a) It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries ✓
(b) It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories
(c) It is used for disinfecting drinking water
(d) It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry

Explanation: Bleaching powder (Ca(OCl)Cl) acts as an oxidizing agent, not a reducing agent. It is widely used for bleaching, disinfecting water, and in paper factories — all of which are oxidation-based applications.

Q.59 [Biology]

AIDS is caused by a virus whose genetic material is

(a) single stranded circular DNA
(b) double stranded DNA
(c) single stranded RNA ✓
(d) double stranded RNA

Explanation: HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus), which causes AIDS, is a retrovirus whose genetic material is single-stranded RNA. The virus uses reverse transcriptase to convert this RNA into DNA inside the host cell.

Q.60 [Biology]

Which one of the following is an organelle that is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?

(a) Cell wall
(b) Mitochondria ✓
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Plasma membrane

Explanation: Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles found only in eukaryotic cells; prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles. Cell wall and plasma membrane are present in most prokaryotes. (Note: options c and d appear identical in the source text, likely a printing error — the intended option d may have been 'Ribosome', but based on available text, mitochondria is clearly the correct answer.)

Q.61 [Biology]

Which one of the following parts of body does NOT take part in the process of breathing?

(a) Bronchi
(b) Bowman's capsule ✓
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Trachea

Explanation: Bowman's capsule is part of the nephron in the kidney and is involved in filtration of blood, not breathing. Bronchi, diaphragm, and trachea are all part of the respiratory system.

Q.62 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements about classification of plants is correct?

(a) Thallophytes have well differentiated body design
(b) Funaria is a fungus
(c) All Pteridophytes are Phanerogams
(d) Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes ✓

Explanation: Bryophytes (mosses, liverworts) lack true vascular tissue (xylem and phloem). Thallophytes have undifferentiated body design, Funaria is a moss (Bryophyte), and Pteridophytes are Cryptogams not Phanerogams.

Q.63 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of levels of hierarchy of classification of organisms from higher to lower?

(a) Phylum — Class — Order — Family — Genus ✓
(b) Phylum — Class — Family — Order — Genus
(c) Family — Order — Class — Species — Genus
(d) Class — Family — Order — Species — Genus

Explanation: The correct taxonomic hierarchy from higher to lower is: Kingdom — Phylum — Class — Order — Family — Genus — Species. Among the options, Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus is the correct sequence.

Q.64 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements about meristematic tissues in plants is correct?

(a) These are dead tissues and form wood
(b) They provide flexibility to plant due to their thickened walls
(c) These are present in the bark of a tree only
(d) Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues ✓

Explanation: Meristematic tissues consist of actively dividing cells responsible for growth in plants. They are living tissues, not dead, and are found at growing tips (apical), nodes (intercalary), and lateral regions (lateral meristem), not just in the bark.

Q.65 [Geography]

Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate?

(a) Chandigarh
(b) Lakshadweep ✓
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Puducherry

Explanation: Lakshadweep has the highest female literacy rate among Union Territories in India, recorded at around 88% as per Census 2011, surpassing Chandigarh and other UTs.

Q.66 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about Roaring Forties: 1. They are strong Westerly winds found in the oceans of Southern Hemisphere. 2. The strong east to west air currents are caused by the combination of air being displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole and the earth's rotation and abundance of landmasses to serve as wind breaks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Roaring Forties are strong westerly winds in the Southern Hemisphere between 40° and 50° latitude. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Roaring Forties are actually west to east (not east to west) winds, and the Southern Hemisphere has fewer landmasses (not abundance), which is why the winds are so strong.

Q.67 [Geography]

Consider the following statements: 1. The doldrums is a low pressure area around Equator where the prevailing winds are calm. 2. Chinook is a hot and dry wind that blows in winter and therefore raises the temperature in a short time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The doldrums is an equatorial low-pressure belt characterized by calm, light winds. The Chinook is a warm, dry foehn-type wind on the eastern side of the Rockies that causes rapid temperature rises in winter.

Q.68 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the driest desert of the world?

(a) Atacama ✓
(b) Gobi
(c) Sahara
(d) Kalahari

Explanation: The Atacama Desert in South America is the driest non-polar desert in the world, with some areas receiving less than 1 mm of rainfall per year. It is significantly drier than the Sahara, Gobi, or Kalahari.

Q.69 [Physics]

Which of the following statements about latent heat for a given substance is/are correct? 1. It is fixed at a given temperature. 2. It depends upon the temperature and volume. 3. It is independent of temperature and volume. 4. It depends on the temperature but independent of volume. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 ✓

Explanation: Latent heat for a given substance depends on temperature (it varies at different temperatures, e.g., latent heat of vaporization of water is different at different boiling points under different pressures) but is independent of volume. Statements 1 and 4 together are correct: it is fixed at a given temperature and depends on temperature but not volume.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.70 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements about the mass of a body is correct?

(a) It changes from one place to another
(b) It is same everywhere ✓
(c) It depends on its shape
(d) It does not depend on its temperature

Explanation: Mass is a scalar quantity representing the amount of matter in a body and remains constant regardless of location, shape, or gravitational field. Weight changes with location but mass does not.

Q.71 [Physics]

A ball balanced on a vertical rod is an example of

(a) stable equilibrium
(b) unstable equilibrium ✓
(c) neutral equilibrium
(d) perfect equilibrium

Explanation: A ball balanced on top of a vertical rod is an example of unstable equilibrium. Any slight displacement raises the centre of gravity relative to the pivot and the ball topples, unable to return to its original position.

Q.72 [Physics]

Which of the following statements about a fluid at rest in a cup is/are correct? 1. Pressure is same at all the points in the fluid. 2. Pressure is exerted on the walls. 3. Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: In a fluid at rest, pressure at a point depends on depth (Pascal's law), so pressure is NOT the same at all points — statement 1 is false. Pressure is exerted on the walls (statement 2) and exists everywhere in the fluid (statement 3), so only 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.73 [Physics]

Which one of the following devices is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

(a) Ammeter
(b) Barometer ✓
(c) Potentiometer
(d) Lactometer

Explanation: A barometer is the instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure. Ammeter measures electric current, potentiometer measures EMF/potential difference, and lactometer measures purity/density of milk.

Q.74 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the number of water molecules that share with two formula units CaSO4 in plaster of Paris?

(a) One ✓
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) Ten

Explanation: Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate: (CaSO4)2·H2O. Two formula units of CaSO4 share one water molecule, hence the formula has half a water molecule per CaSO4 unit.

Q.75 [Chemistry]

How is carbon black obtained?

(a) By heating wood at high temperature in absence of air
(b) By heating coal at high temperature in absence of air
(c) By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air ✓
(d) By heating coal at high temperature in presence of air

Explanation: Carbon black is produced by the incomplete combustion (burning) of hydrocarbons such as natural gas or oil in a limited supply of air. This process deposits fine carbon particles.

Q.76 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following properties is NOT true for graphite?

(a) Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3 ✓
(b) Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3
(c) Electrons are delocalized over the whole sheet of atoms
(d) Each layer is composed of hexagonal rings

Explanation: In graphite, each carbon atom is sp2 hybridised, not sp3. The sp2 hybridisation allows formation of planar hexagonal layers with delocalized pi electrons, which is why graphite conducts electricity. sp3 hybridisation is characteristic of diamond.

Q.77 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the purest form of Carbon?

(a) Charcoal
(b) Coke
(c) Fullerene ✓
(d) Carbon black

Explanation: Fullerene (C60 and other allotropes) is considered the purest form of carbon as it consists entirely of carbon atoms arranged in a closed cage structure with no impurities. Charcoal, coke, and carbon black all contain impurities.

Q.78 [Chemistry]

The poisonous nature of Carbon monoxide (CO) is due to its

(a) insolubility in water
(b) ability to form a complex with haemoglobin ✓
(c) ability to reduce some metal oxides
(d) property of having one sigma bond

Explanation: CO is toxic because it binds to haemoglobin with an affinity about 200–250 times greater than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb), which prevents oxygen transport to body tissues, causing asphyxiation.

Q.79 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells?

(a) Lithium
(b) Sodium ✓
(c) Rubidium
(d) Caesium

Explanation: Sodium (Na+) ions are essential for generating and propagating action potentials in nerve cells. The sodium-potassium pump and sodium ion channels are fundamental to nerve signal transmission.

Q.80 [Biology]

Who among the following first discovered cell?

(a) Robert Brown
(b) Robert Hooke ✓
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Rudolf Virchow

Explanation: Robert Hooke first discovered and named the cell in 1665 when he observed cork under a microscope and described the box-like structures as 'cells'. Robert Brown discovered the nucleus, Leeuwenhoek observed living microorganisms, and Virchow proposed cells arise from pre-existing cells.

Q.81 [Biology]

Which one of the following group of organisms forms a food chain?

(a) Grass, human and fish
(b) Grass, goat and human ✓
(c) Tree, tree cutter and tiger
(d) Goat, cow and human

Explanation: A food chain requires a producer (plant) and successive consumers. Grass → Goat → Human is a valid linear food chain with a plant producer, primary consumer, and secondary consumer. Options (a) and (c) break the trophic sequence; (d) has no plant producer.

Q.82 [Biology]

Which one of the following types of tissues will have contractile proteins?

(a) Nervous tissue
(b) Muscle tissue ✓
(c) Bone tissue
(d) Blood tissue

Explanation: Muscle tissue contains actin and myosin, which are contractile proteins responsible for muscle contraction. No other tissue listed has this primary characteristic.

Q.83 [Biology]

If by an unknown accident the acid secreting cells of the stomach wall of an individual are damaged, digestion of which one of the following biomolecule will be affected to a greater extent?

(a) Protein only ✓
(b) Lipid
(c) Carbohydrate only
(d) Protein and Carbohydrate

Explanation: Gastric acid (HCl) from parietal cells activates pepsinogen to pepsin, which digests proteins. Carbohydrate digestion by salivary/pancreatic amylase is not acid-dependent; lipid digestion occurs mainly in the small intestine via bile and lipase, not stomach acid. Thus protein digestion is primarily affected.

Q.84 [Geography / Transport]

In which one of the following places is the Headquarters of a Railway Zone located?

(a) Kanpur
(b) Lucknow
(c) Hajipur ✓
(d) New Jalpaiguri

Explanation: Hajipur is the headquarters of East Central Railway zone. Lucknow is the HQ of North Eastern Railway, New Jalpaiguri is not a zonal HQ, and Kanpur is not a zonal HQ.

Q.85 [Polity / Governance]

Which of the following statements about Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is/are correct? 1. It is a registered society. 2. It is a collaborative body of both Central Government and State Governments. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Indian Academy of Highway Engineers (IAHE) is a registered society established jointly by the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways (Central Government) and State PWD departments, making both statements correct.

Q.86 [Geography]

Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of Indus River?

(a) Beas
(b) Ravi
(c) Chenab
(d) Tawi ✓

Explanation: Beas, Ravi, and Chenab are all major tributaries of the Indus. Tawi is a tributary of Chenab, not a direct tributary of the Indus River.

Q.87 [Environment / Geography]

Which one among the following is the largest tiger reserve of India in terms of area of the core/critical tiger habitat?

(a) Manas
(b) Pakke
(c) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam ✓
(d) Periyar

Explanation: Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh/Telangana has the largest core/critical tiger habitat area among all tiger reserves in India, covering over 3,500 sq km in core area.

Q.88 [Geography]

Which one of the following is NOT a coastal depositional feature?

(a) Tombolo
(b) Sand bar
(c) Stack ✓
(d) Spit

Explanation: A stack is a coastal erosional feature formed when a sea arch collapses, leaving an isolated pillar of rock. Tombolo, sand bar, and spit are all depositional features formed by sediment accumulation.

Q.89 [Geography]

Which of the following is/are coastal erosional feature(s)? 1. Notch 2. Sea Arch 3. Cliff 4. Hook Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Explanation: Notch, Sea Arch, and Cliff are all coastal erosional features carved by wave action. A Hook is a depositional feature (a curved spit), so it is excluded. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Q.90 [Geography / Physical Geography]

Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a place with

(a) cold and dry climate
(b) hot and humid climate ✓
(c) hot and dry climate
(d) cold and humid climate

Explanation: Chemical weathering processes such as hydrolysis, oxidation, and carbonation are greatly accelerated by high temperature and abundant moisture. Hot and humid climates therefore promote maximum chemical weathering of rocks.

Q.91 [Physics]

Which of the following statements about specific heat of a body is/are correct? 1. It depends upon mass and shape of the body 2. It is independent of mass and shape of the body 3. It depends only upon the temperature of the body Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only ✓

Explanation: Specific heat is an intrinsic property of the material and is independent of the mass, shape, or size of the body. Statement 2 alone is correct; statement 1 is wrong and statement 3 is also incorrect (specific heat depends on the material, not just temperature).

Q.92 [Physics]

Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob?

(a) Applied force
(b) Frictional force
(c) Restoring force ✓
(d) Virtual force

Explanation: In a pendulum, the component of gravitational force acting along the arc (tangential component) acts as the restoring force that brings the bob back to equilibrium. Gravity thus provides the restoring force for oscillation.

Q.93 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements about the refractive index of a material medium with respect to air is correct?

(a) It can be either positive or negative
(b) It can have zero value
(c) It is unity for all materials
(d) It is always greater than one ✓

Explanation: The refractive index of any material medium with respect to air is always greater than 1 because light travels slower in any material medium than in air/vacuum. It is always a positive value greater than 1.

Q.94 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements about magnetic field lines is NOT correct?

(a) They can emanate from a point
(b) They do not cross each other
(c) Field lines between two poles cannot be precisely straight lines at the ends
(d) There are no field lines within a bar magnet ✓

Explanation: Magnetic field lines exist inside a bar magnet as well — they run from the south pole to the north pole inside the magnet, forming closed loops. The statement that there are no field lines within a bar magnet is incorrect.

Q.95 [Physics]

Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is

(a) 0.10 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 0.25 m ✓

Explanation: When two lenses are in contact, total power P = P1 + P2 = 2 + 2 = 4 dioptre. Focal length f = 1/P = 1/4 = 0.25 m.

Q.96 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following alkali metals has lowest melting point?

(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Rubidium
(d) Caesium ✓

Explanation: Among alkali metals, melting point decreases down the group. Caesium (Cs) has the lowest melting point (~28.5°C) among the options listed, as atomic size increases and metallic bonding weakens going down Group 1.

Q.97 [Chemistry / Nuclear Science]

Which one of the following metals is alloyed with sodium to transfer heat in a nuclear reactor?

(a) Potassium ✓
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
(d) Strontium

Explanation: Sodium-potassium alloy (NaK) is used as a liquid metal coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactors due to its excellent heat transfer properties and low melting point, allowing it to remain liquid at operating temperatures.

Q.98 [Chemistry / Physics]

Which one of the following metals is used in the filaments of photo-electric cells that convert light energy into electric energy?

(a) Tungsten
(b) Copper
(c) Rubidium ✓
(d) Aluminium

Explanation: Rubidium (and caesium) are used in photoelectric cells because they have very low work functions, meaning they easily emit electrons when struck by light (visible range). Tungsten is used in incandescent bulb filaments, not photoelectric cells.

Q.99 [Geography / Geology]

Which of the following statements about Ring of Fire is/are correct? 1. It is a zone of convergence plate boundaries 2. It is an active seismic and volcanic zone 3. It is associated with deep trench Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: The Ring of Fire around the Pacific Ocean is associated with convergent plate boundaries, is highly active seismically and volcanically, and features deep oceanic trenches formed by subduction. All three statements are correct.

Q.100 [Geography / Ecology]

Which one of the following Himalayan vegetation species is found between the altitudes of 1800 to 2600 metres?

(a) Saal
(b) Chir ✓
(c) Spruce
(d) Deodar

Explanation: Chir pine (Pinus roxburghii) grows in the Himalayan subtropical pine forests at altitudes of approximately 1000–2000 m, but commonly cited in NCERT/Indian geography texts as the zone around 1800–2600 m. Deodar grows higher (2600–3000 m), Spruce even higher, and Sal grows in foothills below 1000 m.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.101 [Geography]

Which one of the following rivers is NOT a tributary of river Cauvery?

(a) Hemavati
(b) Arkavati
(c) Indravati ✓
(d) Amravati

Explanation: Hemavati, Arkavati, and Amravati are tributaries of the Cauvery river. Indravati is a tributary of the Godavari river, not Cauvery.

Q.102 [Geography]

Which of the following conditions is/are essential for tea cultivation? 1. Tropical and sub-tropical climate 2. Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm 3. Soil should contain good amount of lime Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Explanation: Tea cultivation requires tropical/sub-tropical climate and heavy rainfall (150–250 cm). Tea actually thrives in acidic soils, not lime-rich soils, so condition 3 is incorrect.

Q.103 [Current Affairs]

Bharatmala Project is related to

(a) Improving road connectivity ✓
(b) Interlinking ports and railways
(c) Interlinking of rivers
(d) Interlinking major cities with gas pipelines

Explanation: Bharatmala Pariyojana is a centrally sponsored and funded road and highways construction project launched in 2017 aimed at improving road connectivity across India.

Q.104 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a local wind that blows out from Siberia?

(a) Bora
(b) Purga ✓
(c) Mistral
(d) Blizzard

Explanation: Purga is a strong blizzard-like storm wind that blows from Siberia. Bora blows from the Balkans, Mistral from France, and Blizzard is a general term for cold snowstorms.

Q.105 [Geography]

Which one of the following centres is NOT known for iron and steel industry?

(a) Bhadravati
(b) Salem
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Renukoot ✓

Explanation: Renukoot in Uttar Pradesh is known for its aluminium industry (Hindalco), not iron and steel. Bhadravati, Salem, and Vishakhapatnam all have iron and steel plants.

Q.106 [Geography]

Which of the following are essential prerequisites for establishment of a thermal power station? 1. Availability of fossil fuels 2. Proximity to a river, lake or sea 3. Good transport network 4. Proximity to an urban centre Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Thermal power stations require fossil fuels as input, water (from rivers/lakes/sea) for cooling, and good transport to bring in fuel. Proximity to an urban centre is not a necessary prerequisite.

Q.107 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements about 'Aadi Mahotsav' held recently in New Delhi is/are correct? 1. The theme of the festival was 'A Celebration of the Spirit of Tribal Culture, Cuisine and Commerce' 2. The festival was organized by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Aadi Mahotsav was organised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (not Tourism) through TRIFED, making statement 2 incorrect. Statement 1 correctly describes the festival's theme.

Q.108 [Physics]

Light year is a unit for measurement of

(a) age of universe
(b) very small time intervals
(c) very high temperature
(d) very large distance ✓

Explanation: A light year is the distance that light travels in one year in a vacuum (approximately 9.46 × 10^12 km). It is a unit of distance, not time.

Q.109 [Physics]

Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water waves is/are correct? 1. They exhibit reflection 2. They carry energy 3. They exert pressure 4. They can travel in vacuum Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Explanation: All three wave types exhibit reflection and carry energy. Electromagnetic waves (like light) exert radiation pressure, and sound/water waves exert pressure too. However, only electromagnetic waves can travel in vacuum — sound and water waves cannot, making statement 4 false for the group. Statements 1, 2, and 3 apply to all or are generally true, making option (a) the best answer.

Q.110 [Physics]

Thermal capacity of a body depends on the

(a) mass of the body only ✓
(b) mass and shape of the body only
(c) density of the body
(d) mass, shape and temperature of the body

Explanation: Thermal capacity (heat capacity) of a body = mass × specific heat capacity. It depends on the mass and the material (specific heat), not shape or temperature independently. Among the given options, mass is the primary factor, making (a) the closest correct answer.

Q.111 [History]

Who among the following first used the term 'Industrial Revolution' in English to describe the changes that occurred in British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?

(a) Karl Marx
(b) Georges Michelet
(c) Arnold Toynbee ✓
(d) Friedrich Engels

Explanation: Arnold Toynbee popularised the term 'Industrial Revolution' in English through his 1884 lectures later published as 'Lectures on the Industrial Revolution in England', making it widely used in the English language.

Q.112 [History]

Which one of the following statements about Olympe de Gouges (1748–1793) is correct?

(a) She declared that although citizens should have equal rights, they are not entitled to the same honours by the State
(b) She was a supporter of the Jacobin government
(c) She was jailed for treason by the National Assembly
(d) She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man ✓

Explanation: Olympe de Gouges authored the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and of the Female Citizen (1791), in which she declared that the nation is the union of woman and man. She was actually executed by the Jacobins (not jailed by the National Assembly) and opposed the Jacobin government.

Q.113 [History]

Who among the following built a model steam engine in 1698 called 'Miner's Friend' to drain mines?

(a) Thomas Savery ✓
(b) Thomas Newcomen
(c) James Watt
(d) Richard Arkwright

Explanation: Thomas Savery patented the first steam-powered water pump in 1698, which he called 'The Miner's Friend', designed to pump water out of coal mines.

Q.114 [History]

Which one of the following statements about Renaissance Humanist culture is NOT true?

(a) It slackened the control of religion over human life
(b) It believed that human nature was many-sided
(c) It was concerned with good manners
(d) It criticized material wealth, power and glory ✓

Explanation: Renaissance Humanism actually celebrated and glorified material wealth, power, and glory as part of human achievement. It did not criticise these; rather it embraced worldly success, making option (d) the statement that is NOT true.

Q.115 [History]

Who gifted the Badshah Nama to King George in 1799?

(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Abdul Hamid Lahori
(c) Nawab of Awadh ✓
(d) William Jones

Explanation: The Badshah Nama, the official chronicle of Shah Jahan's reign written by Abdul Hamid Lahori, was presented to King George III in 1799 by the Nawab of Awadh (Saadat Ali Khan).

Q.116 [History]

What is the name of the award given to meritorious men in the Mughal Court in the form of a robe of honour that was once worn by the Emperor?

(a) Sarapa
(b) Patka
(c) Padma murassa
(d) Khilat ✓

Explanation: Khilat (also Khilat or Khil'at) was a robe of honour bestowed by Mughal emperors on meritorious nobles and men at court; it was a garment previously worn by the emperor himself.

Q.117 [History]

Who among the following social reformers started a society for the encouragement of widow remarriage in 1866 in Maharashtra?

(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Jyotirao Phule
(c) Vishnushastri Pandit ✓
(d) Pandita Ramabai

Explanation: Vishnushastri Pandit founded the Widow Remarriage Association in 1866 in Pune, Maharashtra, to promote and facilitate widow remarriage in Hindu society.

Q.118 [History]

Name the first major voluntary association representing primarily Indian landlord interests that was set up in Calcutta in 1851.

(a) British Indian Association ✓
(b) Land holder's Society
(c) Madras Native Association
(d) Bombay Association

Explanation: The British Indian Association was established in Calcutta in 1851 by merging the Landholders' Society and the Bengal British India Society. It primarily represented Indian zamindars (landlords) and was one of the earliest political associations in India.

Q.119 [History]

Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793?

(a) Lord Cornwallis ✓
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Robert Clive
(d) John Adam

Explanation: Lord Cornwallis, as Governor-General of India, introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793, which fixed the land revenue to be paid by zamindars permanently.

Q.120 [History]

Name the rebel who fought against the British in the battle of Chinhat in the course of the 1857 Revolt.

(a) Ahmadullah Shah ✓
(b) Shah Mal
(c) Mangal Pandey
(d) Kunwar Singh

Explanation: Ahmadullah Shah, also known as 'Maulvi of Faizabad', led rebel forces and fought the British at the Battle of Chinhat (near Lucknow) on 30 June 1857, inflicting a significant defeat on British troops.

Q.121 [Polity]

Who among the following are the two civil servants who assisted the Constituent Assembly in framing the Constitution of India?

(a) B.N. Rau and K.M. Munshi
(b) S.N. Mukherjee and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar
(c) B.N. Rau and S.N. Mukherjee ✓
(d) K.M. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar

Explanation: B.N. Rau served as the Constitutional Adviser and S.N. Mukherjee was the chief draftsman (civil servant) of the Constituent Assembly. K.M. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar were lawyers and members of the Assembly, not civil servants in that role.

Q.122 [History/Polity]

Which member of the Constituent Assembly proposed the resolution that the National Flag of India be a "horizontal tricolour of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion", with a wheel in navy blue at the centre?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru ✓
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru moved the resolution for the adoption of the National Flag in the Constituent Assembly on 22 July 1947, proposing the tricolour with the Ashoka Chakra in navy blue at the centre.

Q.123 [History]

Which of the following is/are NOT historical biography/biographies? 1. Dipavamsa 2. Harshacharita 3. Vikramankadevacharita 4. Prithvirajavijaya Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Dipavamsa is a Buddhist chronicle of Sri Lanka, not a biography. Harshacharita (biography of Harsha by Banabhatta), Vikramankadevacharita (biography of Vikramaditya VI by Bilhana), and Prithvirajavijaya (about Prithviraj Chahamana) are all historical biographies.

Q.124 [History]

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Traveller — Country from 1. Marco Polo — Italy 2. Ibn Battuta — Morocco 3. Nikitin — Russia 4. Seydi Ali Reis — Turkey Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation: All four pairs are correctly matched: Marco Polo was from Venice (Italy), Ibn Battuta from Morocco, Afanasy Nikitin from Russia, and Seydi Ali Reis was an Ottoman (Turkish) admiral and traveller.

Q.125 [History]

Which of the following clans are included in the Agnikula Rajputs? 1. Pratiharas 2. Chaulukyas 3. Paramaras 4. Chahamanas Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation: According to the Agnikula legend in the Prithvirajraso, four Rajput clans — Pratiharas, Chaulukyas (Solankis), Paramaras, and Chahamanas (Chauhans) — were born from a sacrificial fire pit (Agnikund) at Mount Abu, hence all four are Agnikula Rajputs.

Q.126 [History]

Who among the following was the author of Humayun Nama?

(a) Roshanara Begum
(b) Ruquaiya Sultan Begum
(c) Gulbadan Begum ✓
(d) Gauhara Begum

Explanation: Humayun Nama was written by Gulbadan Begum, the daughter of Babur and sister of Humayun, at the request of Akbar to record memoirs of her brother's reign.

Q.127 [Polity]

Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?

(a) The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(b) There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha ✓
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Some members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President

Explanation: This statement is NOT correct because the President can nominate up to 2 members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha under Article 331 (before the 104th Amendment 2020 abolished this provision; at the time of the exam in 2018 it was still in force). Hence the claim that there are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha was incorrect.

Q.128 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is NOT correct?

(a) He is appointed by the President of India
(b) He can be removed from office in the same way as the judge of the Supreme Court of India
(c) The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office ✓
(d) The salary of the CAG is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India

Explanation: Article 148(4) of the Constitution explicitly states that the CAG shall NOT be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after ceasing to hold his office, making option (c) incorrect.

Q.129 [Polity]

The Superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in

(a) The Supreme Court of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Election Commission of India ✓
(d) The Chief Election Commissioner

Explanation: Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections in the Election Commission of India, not in any single officer or court.

Q.130 [Polity]

Which of the following provision(s) of the Constitution of India became effective from 26th November 1949? 1. Elections 2. Citizenship 3. Emergency provisions 4. Appointment of the Judges Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4

Explanation: Articles relating to citizenship (Articles 5-11), elections (Articles 324-367 in part), provisional parliament, and temporary/transitional provisions came into force on 26 November 1949 itself. The rest of the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950. Among the listed options, Elections and Citizenship (1 and 2) are the ones that became effective on 26 November 1949.

Q.131 [Geography/Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements regarding construction of Rohtang tunnel is NOT correct?

(a) It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet ✓
(b) It will provide all-year connectivity to Lahaul and Spiti Valley
(c) The tunnel is being built by the Border Roads Organization
(d) It will reduce the length of the Leh-Manali highway by approximately 50 km

Explanation: The Rohtang Tunnel (now called Atal Tunnel) is located at an altitude of approximately 10,000 feet (about 3,000 m), not 5,000 feet; hence statement (a) is NOT correct.

Q.132 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following recently became the first woman pilot in Indian Navy?

(a) Astha Segal
(b) Roopa A
(c) Sakthi Maya S
(d) Shubhangi Swaroop ✓

Explanation: Sub-Lieutenant Shubhangi Swaroop became the first woman pilot in the Indian Navy in December 2017, making her the correct answer for this current-affairs question set in early 2018.

Q.133 [Current Affairs/Sports]

Who among the following Indians did NOT hold the title of Miss World?

(a) Reita Faria
(b) Sushmita Sen ✓
(c) Diana Hayden
(d) Yukta Mookhey

Explanation: Sushmita Sen won Miss Universe 1994, not Miss World. Reita Faria (1966), Diana Hayden (1997), and Yukta Mookhey (1999) all won the Miss World title, so Sushmita Sen is the one who did NOT hold Miss World.

Q.134 [Current Affairs/Sports]

Which one of the following countries has failed to qualify for the first time in 60 years for the FIFA World Cup to be held in Russia in the year 2018?

(a) Mexico
(b) Iran
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Italy ✓

Explanation: Italy failed to qualify for the 2018 FIFA World Cup in Russia, their first non-qualification since 1958 — a gap of 60 years — after losing the play-off to Sweden.

Q.135 [Current Affairs/Defence]

The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) is a forum for dialogue on defence partnership between India and

(a) Russia
(b) United States of America ✓
(c) Israel
(d) France

Explanation: The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) was launched in 2012 as a bilateral forum to advance defence cooperation and co-production between India and the United States of America.

Q.136 [Current Affairs/Economy]

As per the policy applicable in 2017, how much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted in the defence sector in India?

(a) 49 per cent through the automatic route ✓
(b) 26 per cent through the government route
(c) 26 per cent through the automatic route and beyond that up to 49 per cent through the government route
(d) 75 per cent through the automatic route

Explanation: As per the revised FDI policy of 2016 applicable in 2017, up to 49% FDI in the defence sector was permitted through the automatic route, and beyond 49% (up to 100%) through the government approval route on case-to-case basis.

Q.137 [Current Affairs/Defence]

Which one of the following countries did NOT participate in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar?

(a) United States of America
(b) Japan
(c) India
(d) Australia ✓

Explanation: Exercise Malabar 2017 (21st edition) was a trilateral naval exercise involving India, the United States of America, and Japan. Australia did not participate in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar.

Q.138 [Current Affairs/International]

Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India was recently re-elected to the International Court of Justice after Christopher Greenwood pulled out before 12th round of voting. Christopher Greenwood was a nominee of

(a) Canada
(b) Russia
(c) Britain ✓
(d) USA

Explanation: Christopher Greenwood was the British nominee to the ICJ. He withdrew from the election in November 2017 before the 12th round of voting, allowing India's Justice Dalveer Bhandari to win the seat, marking a diplomatic victory for India over the UK.

Q.139 [Current Affairs/Economy]

In order to review the Income Tax Act, 1961 and to draft a new Direct Tax Law in consonance with economic needs of the country, the Government of India in November 2017 has constituted a Task Force. Who among the following is made the convenor of it?

(a) Shri Arvind Subramanian
(b) Shri Arbind Modi ✓
(c) Shri Amitabh Kant
(d) Dr. Bibek Debroy

Explanation: The Government of India constituted a Task Force in November 2017 to draft a new Direct Tax Code, with Shri Arbind Modi (Member, CBDT) as convener and Dr. Bibek Debroy as a member.

Q.140 [Current Affairs/Technology]

The 5th Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) was held in New Delhi in November, 2017. Which of the following statements about GCCS is/are correct? 1. The 4th version of GCCS was held in London. 2. The main theme of GCCS 2017 is 'Cyber4All: A Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable Development'. 3. 'Bindu' is the logo of GCCS 2017. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The 4th GCCS was held in The Hague (Netherlands) in 2015, not London (London hosted the 1st GCCS in 2011), so statement 1 is incorrect. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: the theme was 'Cyber4All: A Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable Development' and 'Bindu' was indeed the logo of GCCS 2017.