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NDA I 2019 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2019 (Session I) Questions: 150 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Error Spotting]

Opening his letters, reading them carefully and sending for his clerk, (a) / (b) / he dictated answers with them. (c) / No error. (d)

(a) Opening his letters, reading them carefully and sending for his clerk,
(b) (transition/connector)
(c) he dictated answers with them. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct phrase should be 'he dictated answers to them' (not 'with them'). One dictates answers TO letters, not WITH them.

Q.2 [Error Spotting]

He was my school-friend, (a) / but becoming a great man, (b) / he has grown proud enough to forget his old friends, (c) / No error. (d)

(a) He was my school-friend,
(b) but becoming a great man, ✓
(c) he has grown proud enough to forget his old friends,
(d) No error

Explanation: The phrase 'but becoming a great man' is grammatically awkward; it should be 'but having become a great man' to indicate a completed action preceding the main clause.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.3 [Error Spotting]

Rabindranath Tagore, a Nobel laureate and the author of the national anthem, (a) / (b) / found Shantiniketan. (c) / No error. (d)

(a) Rabindranath Tagore, a Nobel laureate and the author of the national anthem,
(b) (transition)
(c) found Shantiniketan. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct word should be 'founded' (established) not 'found' (past tense of find). Tagore founded (established) Shantiniketan.

Q.4 [Error Spotting]

The art of printing was introduced into England (a) / during the reign of Edward IV (b) / by William Caxton, a native of Kent. (c) / No error. (d)

(a) The art of printing was introduced into England
(b) during the reign of Edward IV
(c) by William Caxton, a native of Kent.
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct. 'Introduced into', 'during the reign of', and 'a native of Kent' are all proper usages — no error exists.

Q.5 [Error Spotting]

From thirty years (a) / he devoted himself to public affairs (b) / without taking a holiday. (c) / No error. (d)

(a) From thirty years ✓
(b) he devoted himself to public affairs
(c) without taking a holiday.
(d) No error

Explanation: 'From thirty years' is incorrect; the correct preposition is 'For thirty years' when indicating a duration of time.

Q.6 [Error Spotting]

If Ramesh will be promoted (a) / he will get (b) / a higher salary. (c) / No error. (d)

(a) If Ramesh will be promoted ✓
(b) he will get
(c) a higher salary.
(d) No error

Explanation: In a conditional sentence, the 'if' clause uses simple present tense, not future. It should be 'If Ramesh is promoted' not 'If Ramesh will be promoted'.

Q.7 [Error Spotting]

My brother goes (a) / to the office (b) / five day week. (c) / No error. (d)

(a) My brother goes
(b) to the office
(c) five day week. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct phrase is 'five-day week' (hyphenated compound adjective) or simply 'a five-day week'. The article 'a' and hyphen are missing.

Q.8 [Error Spotting]

If you lend Mohan a pen (a) / he will lend it to someone else (b) / and never you will get it back. (c) / No error. (d)

(a) If you lend Mohan a pen
(b) he will lend it to someone else
(c) and never you will get it back. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: When 'never' begins or appears in the middle of a clause as a negative adverb for emphasis, inversion is required: 'and you will never get it back' or 'and never will you get it back' — 'never you will get' is incorrect word order.

Q.9 [Error Spotting]

One of most widely spread bad habits (a) / is the use of tobacco. (b) / No error. (c/d)

(a) One of most widely spread bad habits ✓
(b) is the use of tobacco.
(c) No error
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct phrase requires the definite article: 'One of the most widely spread bad habits'. The article 'the' is missing before 'most'.

Q.10 [Error Spotting]

A great part of Arabia (a) / is (b) / desert. (c) / No error. (d)

(a) A great part of Arabia
(b) is
(c) desert.
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct. 'A great part of Arabia is desert' is a valid construction where 'desert' is used as an uncountable noun referring to desert terrain — no error.

Q.11 [Synonyms]

Some people complain when they encounter a small misfortune in the course of their thoroughly happy life. (underlined: encounter)

(a) run into ✓
(b) run away
(c) run down
(d) run with

Explanation: 'Encounter' means to come across or meet unexpectedly; 'run into' has the same meaning of meeting or coming across something/someone unexpectedly.

Q.12 [Synonyms]

This world is full of miseries. (underlined: miseries)

(a) indifferent love
(b) perfect happiness
(c) great suffering ✓
(d) moderate sympathies

Explanation: 'Miseries' means conditions of great distress or suffering; 'great suffering' is the closest synonym among the options.

Q.13 [Synonyms]

A glance at a beautiful object gives us delight. (underlined: delight)

(a) wisdom
(b) happiness ✓
(c) purity
(d) peace

Explanation: 'Delight' means a feeling of great pleasure or joy; 'happiness' is the nearest synonym among the given options.

Q.14 [Synonyms]

It is terrible for people to die of starvation. (underlined: starvation)

(a) starch
(b) staple
(c) plenty
(d) hunger ✓

Explanation: 'Starvation' means suffering or death caused by lack of food; 'hunger' is the nearest synonym among the options.

Q.15 [Synonyms]

The university has constituted a grievance redressal committee to look into the matter. (underlined: grievance)

(a) depression
(b) complaint ✓
(c) abrasion
(d) gratefulness

Explanation: 'Grievance' means a real or perceived cause for complaint or a feeling of resentment; 'complaint' is the closest synonym.

Q.16 [Synonyms]

Rakesh delivered a slanderous speech. (underlined: slanderous)

(a) abusive ✓
(b) praiseworthy
(c) moderate
(d) inspiring

Explanation: 'Slanderous' means making false and damaging statements about someone; 'abusive' is the nearest in meaning as both involve harmful, attacking language.

Q.17 [Synonyms]

Suddenly, the sky was darkened by a gigantic bird. (underlined: gigantic)

(a) winged
(b) small
(c) tiny
(d) enormous ✓

Explanation: 'Gigantic' means extremely large; 'enormous' is the closest synonym meaning very great in size or extent.

Q.18 [Synonyms]

To abolish poverty would be to destroy the soil upon which mankind produces the virtues conducive to higher civilization. (underlined: abolish)

(a) detest
(b) eradicate ✓
(c) nurture
(d) assimilate

Explanation: 'Abolish' means to formally put an end to something; 'eradicate' means to completely destroy or eliminate, making it the closest synonym.

Q.19 [Synonyms]

The Arabs who are not in the cities live in the desert throughout the year, shifting from one oasis to another. (underlined: oasis)

(a) sandbank
(b) mound
(c) dune
(d) spring ✓

Explanation: An 'oasis' is a fertile spot in a desert where water is found, often featuring a spring or well; 'spring' is the nearest synonym as it refers to the water source that defines an oasis.

Q.20 [Synonyms]

The various facets of life can be found reflected in a large city. (underlined: various)

(a) several ✓
(b) similar
(c) valuable
(d) singular

Explanation: 'Various' means of different kinds, or several in number; 'several' is the closest synonym among the options, indicating more than two but not very many different aspects.

Q.21 [Antonyms]

Ramesh is a very dubious character. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) shady
(b) suspicious
(c) trustworthy ✓
(d) doubtful

Explanation: 'Dubious' means questionable or untrustworthy; its antonym is 'trustworthy'. Options a, b, and d are all synonyms of dubious.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.22 [Antonyms]

Do not indulge in unmindful activities, please. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) vigilant ✓
(b) careless
(c) stupid
(d) fatuous

Explanation: 'Unmindful' means inattentive or careless; its antonym is 'vigilant' (watchful and alert). Options b, c, and d are synonyms or near-synonyms of unmindful.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.23 [Antonyms]

He is suffering from a curable disease. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) remediable
(b) treatable
(c) terminal ✓
(d) operable

Explanation: 'Curable' means capable of being healed; its antonym is 'terminal' (leading to death, incurable). Options a, b, and d are synonyms of curable.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.24 [Antonyms]

He was born on a very auspicious day. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) propitious
(b) fortunate
(c) ominous ✓
(d) opportune

Explanation: 'Auspicious' means favorable or promising; its antonym is 'ominous' (threatening or inauspicious). Options a, b, and d are synonyms of auspicious.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.25 [Antonyms]

He has deeper hostility towards Mohan. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) animosity
(b) belligerence
(c) malice
(d) friendship ✓

Explanation: 'Hostility' means unfriendliness or antagonism; its antonym is 'friendship'. Options a, b, and c are all synonyms of hostility.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.26 [Antonyms]

His life is rather monotonous. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) exciting ✓
(b) dreary
(c) tedious
(d) uneventful

Explanation: 'Monotonous' means dull and repetitive; its antonym is 'exciting'. Options b, c, and d are synonyms of monotonous.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.27 [Antonyms]

Macbeth is a morally repulsive character. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) abominable
(b) attractive ✓
(c) obnoxious
(d) ugly

Explanation: 'Repulsive' means disgusting or revolting; its antonym is 'attractive'. Options a, c, and d are synonyms of repulsive.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.28 [Antonyms]

The serene beauty of Kashmir had a soothing effect on his mind. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) placid
(b) pleasing
(c) tranquil
(d) turbulent ✓

Explanation: 'Serene' means calm and peaceful; its antonym is 'turbulent' (chaotic, disturbed). Options a and c are synonyms of serene; option b is loosely related.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.29 [Antonyms]

Life is transient in nature. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) brief
(b) momentary
(c) eternal ✓
(d) short-lived

Explanation: 'Transient' means temporary or short-lived; its antonym is 'eternal' (lasting forever). Options a, b, and d are synonyms of transient.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.30 [Antonyms]

Sohan is a vain person. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) modest ✓
(b) arrogant
(c) conceited
(d) proud

Explanation: 'Vain' means excessively proud or conceited; its antonym is 'modest'. Options b, c, and d are synonyms of vain.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.31 [Idioms and Phrases]

A dark horse

(a) a black coloured horse
(b) a person who wins a race or competition although no one expected him to ✓
(c) a person who keeps secrets
(d) an ignorant person

Explanation: The idiom 'a dark horse' refers to a competitor who is unexpectedly successful or wins when not anticipated by others.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.32 [Idioms and Phrases]

A 'show-stopper'

(a) someone who stops the show
(b) someone who organizes the show
(c) a performance that is extremely good ✓
(d) a fashionable person

Explanation: A 'show-stopper' is a performance or act so impressive that it stops the show with applause; it means something or someone outstandingly good.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.33 [Idioms and Phrases]

A jack of all trades

(a) someone who has many skills ✓
(b) a confident and not very serious young man
(c) someone who has hit the jackpot
(d) a great businessman

Explanation: 'A jack of all trades' refers to a person who can do many different types of work, though the full phrase implies mastery of none.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.34 [Idioms and Phrases]

Fight tooth and nail

(a) to quarrel with someone
(b) to attack someone with a lot of force
(c) to try hard to prevent something from happening
(d) to try very hard to achieve something ✓

Explanation: 'Fight tooth and nail' means to try very hard and with great determination to achieve or obtain something, using every possible means.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.35 [Idioms and Phrases]

Fair and square

(a) in an honest way ✓
(b) in a critical way
(c) neither very good nor bad
(d) in a foolish way

Explanation: 'Fair and square' means in an honest, straightforward, and just manner, without cheating or deception.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.36 [Ordering of Sentences]

S1: We do not know what to do with our knowledge. S6: In the course of time they may rule over us altogether. P: For example, we are unable to manage our machines. Q: We already find it difficult to do without machines. R: Machines should be fed properly and waited upon attentively; otherwise they refuse to work or cause destruction. S: Science has given us superhuman powers, which we do not use properly. Choose the proper sequence of the four sentences P, Q, R, S.

(a) SPRQ ✓
(b) PSQR
(c) QRPS
(d) SRPQ

Explanation: The logical flow is: S (Science gave superhuman powers we misuse) → P (example: unable to manage machines) → R (machines need proper care) → Q (we find it hard to do without machines), connecting to S6 about machines eventually ruling us. Sequence SPRQ fits best.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.37 [Ordering of Sentences]

S1: The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country. S6: We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out. P: I regard this rule as a curse. Q: Sedition has become my religion. R: Ours is a non-violent battle. S: I am out to destroy this system of Government. Choose the proper sequence of the four sentences P, Q, R, S.

(a) SPRQ
(b) PSQR
(c) QRPS
(d) SRPQ ✓

Explanation: The logical flow is: S (I am out to destroy this system) → R (ours is a non-violent battle) → P (I regard this rule as a curse) → Q (Sedition has become my religion), leading to S6 about dharma to blot out the curse. Sequence SRPQ connects S1 to S6 coherently.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.38 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a proper sentence: the urban local body elections / unidentified gunmen / and injured another / during (P) (Q) (R) shot dead two workers (S)

(a) QSRP ✓
(b) PQSR
(c) SPRQ
(d) RPSQ

Explanation: The correct sentence is: 'Unidentified gunmen shot dead two workers and injured another during the urban local body elections.' This gives sequence Q(unidentified gunmen) S(shot dead two workers) R(and injured another) P(during... elections) → wait, let me recheck. Parts: P=the urban local body elections, Q=unidentified gunmen, R=and injured another, S=shot dead two workers. Sentence: Q+S+R+P = 'unidentified gunmen shot dead two workers and injured another during the urban local body elections' = QSRP (a).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.39 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a proper sentence: both intense political / and / this state has a history of (P) (Q) of syncretic accomplishments / religious contestation and (R) (S)

(a) SQPR
(b) PQSR
(c) SQRP
(d) QPSR ✓

Explanation: The correct sentence: 'This state has a history of both intense political and religious contestation and of syncretic accomplishments.' Parts: P=both intense political, Q=and, R=of syncretic accomplishments, S=religious contestation and. Base: 'this state has a history of' + P(both intense political) + Q(and — wait, parts may differ). Re-reading: the sentence base is 'this state has a history of', then P=both intense political, Q=and, S=religious contestation and, R=of syncretic accomplishments → PQSR gives 'both intense political and religious contestation and of syncretic accomplishments'. Answer is (b) PQSR.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.40 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a proper sentence: the father / also / in his quest for justice / by the system feels let down (P) (Q) (R) (S)

(a) PSQR
(b) PRQS ✓
(c) QPSR
(d) RPQS

Explanation: The correct sentence: 'The father also feels let down by the system in his quest for justice.' Rearranging: P(the father) R(in his quest for justice) Q(also) S(by the system feels let down) — this does not read well. More naturally: P(the father) + Q(also) + S(by the system feels let down) + R(in his quest for justice). The answer choices are not fully visible from extraction noise; based on standard NDA answer pattern, the sentence 'The father also feels let down by the system in his quest for justice' = PQSR order. Figure-based extraction issue noted.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.41 [Reading Comprehension]

According to the author, India

(a) has never been one nation
(b) has been an aggregate of several nations
(c) has always been one nation along with differences ✓
(d) became a nation after the British

Explanation: The passage conveys that despite its diversity, India has always been one nation. The author acknowledges differences but stresses the underlying unity that has persisted through history.

Q.42 [Reading Comprehension]

Why did the great sages of India establish pilgrimages in the different corners of the country?

(a) Because they wanted to push people to travel to different places
(b) Because they could observe the underlying unity of the country as made by nature ✓
(c) Because they themselves had travelled to these places
(d) Because they wanted people to be religious everywhere

Explanation: The sages, having travelled across India, perceived the natural unity of the land and established pilgrimages so that people would also experience and appreciate this underlying oneness of the country.

Q.43 [Reading Comprehension]

In the passage, the author's attitude towards the railways is

(a) critical ✓
(b) sympathetic
(c) indifferent
(d) apathetic

Explanation: The author is critical of the railways, suggesting that despite bringing people physically closer, the railways have not fostered a genuine sense of national unity or spiritual brotherhood among Indians.

Q.44 [Reading Comprehension]

What does the author mean when he says that "whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes"?

(a) One need not visit the Ganges to take holy bath
(b) The Ganges has been polluted, so one should bath at home
(c) One should take a holy dip in the Ganges to purify one's heart
(d) The purity of heart is superior to observance of any ritual ✓

Explanation: The author means that true righteousness and purity of heart is more important than performing external rituals like bathing in the Ganges; an inner purity supersedes any outward religious observance.

Q.45 [Reading Comprehension]

The paragraph is written in a

(a) dialogic style
(b) prescriptive style
(c) descriptive style
(d) analytical style ✓

Explanation: The author examines and analyses the concept of Indian unity, its historical roots, and the role of sages and modern developments, making the style analytical rather than merely descriptive or prescriptive.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.46 [Fill in the Blank]

_________ forests prevent erosion.

(a) Lean
(b) Dense ✓
(c) Sparse
(d) Tidy

Explanation: Dense forests have thick ground cover and root systems that bind soil, thereby preventing erosion. Sparse or lean forests would have the opposite effect.

Q.47 [Fill in the Blank]

Three people were arrested and an illegal arms unit was _______ by the police in a raid.

(a) revealed
(b) searched
(c) discovered
(d) busted ✓

Explanation: The phrasal verb 'busted' is the most idiomatic collocation with an illegal operation being dismantled by police in a raid; 'discovered' or 'revealed' do not carry the sense of shutting down an operation.

Q.48 [Fill in the Blank]

A woman got into the car and _____.

(a) drove off ✓
(b) broke down
(c) rode in
(d) drove in

Explanation: 'Drove off' means to leave in a vehicle, which naturally follows getting into a car. 'Broke down' refers to mechanical failure and 'rode in'/'drove in' do not correctly follow the context of departing.

Q.49 [Fill in the Blank]

The lecture was not very interesting. In fact I __________ in the middle of it.

(a) showed off
(b) put off
(c) dozed off ✓
(d) plugged off

Explanation: 'Dozed off' means to fall asleep, which is the natural consequence of finding a lecture uninteresting. The other options do not fit the context semantically.

Q.50 [Fill in the Blank]

The cops ______ murder by kin.

(a) suspect ✓
(b) afford
(c) manage
(d) administer

Explanation: 'Suspect' is the correct word as police 'suspect' a crime or a person; the sentence means the cops suspect the murder was committed by a family member.

Q.51 [Biology]

Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess nucleic acid?

(a) Nucleolus
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosome
(d) Plasma Membrane ✓

Explanation: The plasma membrane is a lipid bilayer with proteins and does not contain nucleic acid. Nucleolus contains rRNA, chloroplasts contain their own DNA and RNA, and ribosomes are made of rRNA.

Q.52 [Biology]

Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess its own genetic material encoding proteins?

(a) Ribosome ✓
(b) Nucleus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Chloroplast

Explanation: Ribosomes are made of rRNA and proteins but do not possess their own genome for encoding proteins; they are the site of translation, not the source of genetic material. Nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts all have their own DNA.

Q.53 [Biology]

Which one of the following is NOT a component of conducting tissue in plants?

(a) Fibres
(b) Tracheids
(c) Pericycle ✓
(d) Sieve tubes

Explanation: Pericycle is a layer of cells in the root that gives rise to lateral roots; it is not a vascular conducting tissue. Tracheids and sieve tubes are xylem and phloem elements respectively, while fibres provide structural support within vascular bundles.

Q.54 [Biology]

Which one of the following organisms has vascular tissues?

(a) Cladophora
(b) Penicillium
(c) Marsilea ✓
(d) Anabaena

Explanation: Marsilea is a pteridophyte (water fern) and possesses well-developed vascular tissue (xylem and phloem). Cladophora is a green alga, Penicillium is a fungus, and Anabaena is a cyanobacterium — none of these have vascular tissues.

Q.55 [Biology]

Which one of the following organisms represents the primary consumer category in an ecosystem?

(a) Caterpillar ✓
(b) Crabapple tree
(c) Frog
(d) Sparrowhawk

Explanation: Primary consumers are herbivores that feed directly on producers (plants). A caterpillar feeds on plant leaves, making it a primary consumer. Frogs and sparrowhawks are secondary/tertiary consumers, and the crabapple tree is a producer.

Q.56 [Geography]

Spring tides refer to

(a) greatest difference in the sea level at high and low tides ✓
(b) lowest difference in the sea level at high and low tides
(c) no difference in the sea level at high and low tides
(d) counteraction of gravitational pull of the Sun to that of Moon

Explanation: Spring tides occur when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned (new or full moon), causing the gravitational pulls to combine, resulting in the greatest difference between high and low tide levels.

Q.57 [Physics]

Which one of the following energy is stored in the links between the atoms?

(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Chemical energy ✓
(c) Potential energy
(d) Thermal energy

Explanation: Chemical energy is the energy stored in the chemical bonds (links) between atoms. When these bonds are broken or formed during chemical reactions, energy is released or absorbed.

Q.58 [Physics]

The light energy escaping from the Sun can be spread by

(a) a shower of rain drops ✓
(b) a plane mirror
(c) a convex lens
(d) a combination of a convex lens and a concave lens

Explanation: A shower of raindrops acts as prisms dispersing white sunlight into its component colours (spectrum), spreading the light energy into a rainbow. Mirrors reflect without spreading, and lenses refract but do not disperse into a broad spread the way raindrops do.

Q.59 [Physics]

The correct sequence of energy transfer that occurs when an apple falls to the ground is

(a) Gravitational potential energy → heat energy to air → kinetic energy → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy
(b) Gravitational potential energy → sound energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air + heat energy to ground and apple
(c) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy ✓
(d) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → sound energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple

Explanation: As the apple falls, gravitational potential energy converts to kinetic energy; air resistance converts some kinetic energy to heat; on impact, kinetic energy converts to heat (in ground and apple) and sound energy — matching option (c).

Q.60 [Physics]

Which one of the following minerals is used as a fuel in nuclear power stations?

(a) Bauxite
(b) Quartz
(c) Feldspar
(d) Pitchblende ✓

Explanation: Pitchblende (uraninite) is the primary ore of uranium, which is the fuel used in nuclear fission reactors. Bauxite is aluminium ore, quartz is silicon dioxide, and feldspar is an aluminium silicate.

Q.61 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is NOT a synthetic detergent?

(a) CH₃(CH₂)₁₀CH₂OSO₃⁻Na⁺
(b) [CH₃(CH₂)₁₅–N(CH₃)₃]⁺Br⁻
(c) CH₃(CH₂)₇COO⁻Na⁺ ✓
(d) CH₃(CH₂)₇COO(CH₂CH₂O)nCH₂CH₂OH

Explanation: CH₃(CH₂)₇COO⁻Na⁺ is sodium octanoate, a soap (salt of a fatty acid), not a synthetic detergent. The others are sulphonate-based anionic detergent, a cationic detergent (quaternary ammonium salt), and a non-ionic detergent respectively.

Q.62 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is an example of a clean fuel?

(a) Coke
(b) Propane ✓
(c) Petrol
(d) Wax

Explanation: Propane (LPG) is considered a clean fuel because it burns more completely with fewer pollutants and particulates compared to coke, petrol, or wax, which produce soot, CO, and other pollutants.

Q.63 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following metals does NOT react with cold water?

(a) Calcium (Ca)
(b) Potassium (K)
(c) Magnesium (Mg) ✓
(d) Sodium (Na)

Explanation: Magnesium reacts very slowly with cold water but vigorously with hot water or steam. Potassium, sodium, and calcium all react readily with cold water to produce hydrogen gas and their respective hydroxides.

Q.64 [Chemistry]

In which of the following pairs are the ions isoelectronic?

(a) Mg²⁺, Ar⁻
(b) Na⁺, O²⁻ ✓
(c) Al³⁺, Cr
(d) K⁺, Ne

Explanation: Na⁺ has 10 electrons (11−1) and O²⁻ has 10 electrons (8+2), so they are isoelectronic. Ar⁻ is not a stable ion, Al³⁺ has 10 electrons while Cr is neutral, and K⁺ has 18 electrons while Ne has 10.

Q.65 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is used as a binder in paints?

(a) Titanium dioxide
(b) Novolac
(c) Phthalocyanine
(d) Silicones ✓

Explanation: Silicones (polysiloxanes) are widely used as binders in paints and coatings due to their excellent adhesion and film-forming properties. Titanium dioxide is a pigment/opacifier, novolac is a phenol-formaldehyde resin used in other applications, and phthalocyanine is a blue/green pigment.

Q.66 [Geography]

Which one of the following is NOT true in reference to Air mass?

(a) Air mass forms either in tropical or in polar region
(b) Air mass develops on continents as well as over ocean
(c) Air mass develops in a cyclonic condition ✓
(d) Air mass changes the weather conditions

Explanation: Air masses develop under anticyclonic (high pressure) conditions where air stagnates over a source region and acquires uniform temperature and humidity characteristics. Cyclonic (low pressure) conditions cause air convergence and mixing, not air mass formation.

Q.67 [Geography]

National Water Academy, a centre of excellence in training and capacity building in water resource, is located at

(a) New Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Pune ✓
(d) Chennai

Explanation: The National Water Academy (NWA) is located in Pune, Maharashtra. It functions under the Central Water Commission and provides training in water resources management.

Q.68 [Geography]

"Campos" and "Llanos", Tropical grasslands are generally found in

(a) Australia
(b) Central Africa
(c) South America ✓
(d) East Asia

Explanation: Campos and Llanos are tropical grassland regions of South America — Campos in Brazil and Llanos in Venezuela and Colombia. They are among the major tropical grassland (savanna) types of the world.

Q.69 [Geography]

"Viticulture" is a common feature of which one of the following Australian cities?

(a) Adelaide ✓
(b) Darwin
(c) Hobart
(d) Brisbane

Explanation: Adelaide (South Australia) is famous for viticulture (grape cultivation and wine production). The Barossa Valley and McLaren Vale near Adelaide are renowned wine-producing regions of Australia.

Q.70 [Geography]

"Shamal" warm and dry wind is a "Local" wind found in

(a) East Asia
(b) West Coast of Canada
(c) Sahara of Africa
(d) Mesopotamia ✓

Explanation: The Shamal is a northwesterly wind that blows over Iraq and the Persian Gulf region (Mesopotamia), particularly in summer. It is a dry, dusty wind characteristic of the Tigris-Euphrates valley area.

Q.71 [Geography]

"Inversion of Rainfall" is associated with

(a) Orographic rainfall
(b) Convectional rainfall
(c) Cyclonic rainfall (Tropical)
(d) Cyclonic rainfall (Temperate) ✓

Explanation: Inversion of rainfall (or orographic reversal) is associated with Temperate Cyclonic rainfall, where the windward side receives less rainfall than the leeward side due to temperature inversion conditions in temperate cyclones.

Q.72 [History]

Who was the author of the book History of British India?

(a) Charles Grant
(b) John Stuart Mill
(c) James Mill ✓
(d) William Jones

Explanation: James Mill authored 'The History of British India' published in 1817, a highly influential and controversial work that shaped British colonial policy in India.

Q.73 [History]

The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 stressed on which one of the following issues?

(a) Hindu-Muslim divide
(b) Support to the English Government
(c) The return of the Badshahi
(d) The imposition of heavy Jumas (revenue demand) ✓

Explanation: The Azamgarh Proclamation of 1857 primarily stressed on the oppressive revenue (Jumas) demands imposed by the British, calling on various sections of society including zamindars, merchants, and artisans to revolt against the English.

Q.74 [History]

Which Viceroy had made the observation, "It's a beautiful world if it wasn't for Gandhi"?

(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Wavell
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) Lord Willingdon ✓

Explanation: Lord Willingdon, Viceroy from 1931 to 1936, was known for his antagonism towards Gandhi and is credited with making this remark, reflecting his frustration with Gandhi's mass mobilisation campaigns.

Q.75 [History]

Which Indian businessman favoured 'healthy capitalism' in helping Gandhiji to work towards a 'common object'?

(a) Ghanshyam Das Birla ✓
(b) Ambalal Sarabhai
(c) Sir Biren Mookerjee
(d) T. T. Krishnamachari

Explanation: Ghanshyam Das Birla was a close associate of Gandhi and advocated 'healthy capitalism' as compatible with Gandhian ideals, supporting his movements financially and ideologically towards a common national object.

Q.76 [Art & Culture]

The art piece In Memoriam was a creation of which one of the following European painters?

(a) Thomas Jones Barker
(b) Joseph Noel Paton ✓
(c) Thomas Daniell
(d) Charles D'Oyly

Explanation: 'In Memoriam' (1858) is a painting by Scottish artist Joseph Noel Paton, depicting the aftermath of the Indian Mutiny of 1857 and the relief of Lucknow.

Q.77 [Physics]

Which one of the following can charge an insulator?

(a) Current electricity
(b) Static electricity ✓
(c) Magnetic field
(d) Gravitational field

Explanation: Static electricity (friction/contact/induction by rubbing) can charge an insulator because insulators do not allow current flow; static charge builds up on their surface rather than dissipating.

Q.78 [Physics]

At 20°C, the speed of sound in water is approximately

(a) 330 m/s
(b) 800 m/s
(c) 1500 m/s ✓
(d) 5000 m/s

Explanation: The speed of sound in water at 20°C is approximately 1480–1500 m/s, much higher than in air (~343 m/s) due to water's high bulk modulus.

Q.79 [Physics]

Which one of the following could be the melting point of iron?

(a) 25°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 500°C
(d) 1500°C ✓

Explanation: The melting point of iron is approximately 1538°C, so 1500°C is the closest and only plausible option among the given choices.

Q.80 [Physics]

Let us consider a copper wire having radius r and length l. Let its resistance be R. If the radius of another copper wire is 2r and the length is l/2, then the resistance of this wire will be

(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) R/4
(d) R/8 ✓

Explanation: Resistance R = ρl/A = ρl/(πr²). New resistance = ρ(l/2)/(π(2r)²) = ρl/(2·4πr²) = R/8. So the new resistance is R/8.

Q.81 [Physics]

Basic scientific principle behind a nuclear reactor is

(a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Controlled nuclear fusion
(c) Uncontrolled nuclear fission
(d) Controlled nuclear fission ✓

Explanation: A nuclear reactor operates on the principle of controlled nuclear fission, where the chain reaction of splitting heavy nuclei (like U-235) is regulated to produce a steady release of energy.

Q.82 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for the given reaction? Fe(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → FeSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)

(a) Iron is the reducing agent
(b) The solution turns green in colour after the reaction
(c) Copper is a more reactive metal than iron ✓
(d) The reaction is an example of a redox reaction

Explanation: Iron is more reactive than copper (higher in the reactivity series), which is why iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. The statement that copper is more reactive than iron is incorrect.

Q.83 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is an organic acid?

(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Acetic acid ✓
(d) Sulphuric acid

Explanation: Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is an organic acid as it contains carbon. Hydrochloric, nitric, and sulphuric acids are all inorganic (mineral) acids.

Q.84 [Chemistry]

Dinitrogen (N₂) and dioxygen (O₂) are the main constituents of air but they do not react with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because

(a) the reaction requires initiation by a catalyst
(b) oxides of nitrogen are unstable
(c) the reaction is endothermic and requires very high temperature ✓
(d) the stoichiometry of N₂ and O₂ in air is not ideal for the reaction to take place

Explanation: The formation of nitrogen oxides from N₂ and O₂ is highly endothermic and requires very high temperatures (such as lightning strikes or internal combustion engines), so under normal atmospheric conditions the reaction does not proceed.

Q.85 [Physics]

Who among the following has explained the phenomenon of photoelectric effect?

(a) Max Planck
(b) Albert Einstein ✓
(c) Neils Bohr
(d) Ernest Rutherford

Explanation: Albert Einstein explained the photoelectric effect in 1905 using the concept of light quanta (photons), for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921.

Q.86 [Chemistry]

The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in C₂H₂O₄·2H₂O is

(a) 45
(b) 63 ✓
(c) 90
(d) 126

Explanation: The molar mass of oxalic acid dihydrate (C₂H₂O₄·2H₂O) is 126 g/mol. Oxalic acid is diprotic (n-factor = 2), so equivalent weight = 126/2 = 63.

Q.87 [Geography]

Which one of the following is NOT a west flowing river?

(a) Periyar
(b) Bharatpuzha
(c) Pamba
(d) Tamraparni ✓

Explanation: Tamraparni (also called Thamirabarani) flows eastward and drains into the Bay of Bengal in Tamil Nadu, whereas Periyar, Bharatpuzha, and Pamba are west-flowing rivers draining into the Arabian Sea.

Q.88 [Geography]

Which one of the following rivers was earlier known as "Vitasta"?

(a) Tista
(b) Jhelum ✓
(c) Tungabhadra
(d) Bharatpuzha

Explanation: The Jhelum River was known as 'Vitasta' in ancient texts (including the Rigveda) and in Greek accounts (Hydaspes). It flows through Jammu & Kashmir and Pakistan.

Q.89 [Geography]

River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of Uttar Pradesh. Before entering in the Plains, Sarda is known as

(a) Seraawon
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Kali ✓
(d) Pindar

Explanation: The river Sarda, which flows through the Terai plains of Uttar Pradesh, is known as the Kali (or Sharda) River in its upper course in Uttarakhand, forming part of the India-Nepal border.

Q.90 [Polity/Government Schemes]

"Mission Indradhanush" is related to

(a) Bullet train project
(b) Agriculture development
(c) Women empowerment
(d) Full immunization ✓

Explanation: Mission Indradhanush, launched in 2014 by the Government of India, aims to achieve full immunization coverage for children and pregnant women against vaccine-preventable diseases.

Q.91 [Geography]

Which of the following is/are environmental effects of Rotation of the Earth? 1. Daily or diurnal rhythm in daylight and air temperature 2. Flow path of both air and water are turned consistently in a sideward direction 3. The movement of the tides Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Daily diurnal rhythm and deflection of air/water (Coriolis effect) are due to Earth's rotation. Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and Sun, not Earth's rotation.

Q.92 [History]

Who among the following historians have described the Quit India movement as a 'spontaneous revolution'?

(a) Gordon Johnson
(b) David Arnold
(c) F. G. Hutchins ✓
(d) Peter Robb

Explanation: F. G. Hutchins in his work 'India's Revolution: Gandhi and the Quit India Movement' described the Quit India movement as a spontaneous revolution that went beyond Gandhi's control.

Q.93 [History]

Statement I: Abul Fazl shaped, represented and articulated the ideas associated with the reign of Akbar Statement II: The qualities of Abul Fazl impressed Akbar who found the former suitable as an adviser and spokesperson for his policies

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I ✓
(b) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Both statements are true: Abul Fazl did shape and articulate Akbar's ideas, and the reason he could do so was because Akbar was impressed by his qualities and appointed him as adviser and spokesperson, making Statement II the correct explanation of Statement I.

Q.94 [History]

Statement I: The Kisan manifesto adopted by the All India Kisan Sabha in August 1936 contained radical demands Statement II: The All India Kisan Sabha was a part of the Congress and maintained close relationship with the Provincial Congress Committees

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false ✓
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Statement I is true — the 1936 Kisan manifesto had radical demands like abolition of zamindari and rent reduction. Statement II is false — AIKS was NOT a part of Congress; it was an independent peasant organisation, though some Congress leaders were associated with it.

Q.95 [History]

Statement I: The British ruled India through a modern bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose members were recruited through merit based on open competition Statement II: The Indian Civil Service was based on the wholehearted participation of Indians

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false ✓
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Statement I is true — the ICS was recruited through competitive examinations (Macaulay's reforms). Statement II is false — Indians were largely excluded or barely represented in ICS; exams were held only in England until much later, making wholehearted Indian participation impossible.

Q.96 [Physics]

Two metallic wires A and B are made using copper. The radius of wire A is r while its length is l. A DC voltage V is applied across the wire A, causing power dissipation, P. The radius of wire B is 2r and its length is 2l and the same DC voltage V is applied across it causing power dissipation P₁. Which one of the following is the correct relationship between P and P₁?

(a) P = 2P₁
(b) P = P₁/2 ✓
(c) P = 4P₁
(d) P = P₁

Explanation: Resistance R = ρl/(πr²). For wire A: R_A = ρl/(πr²); for wire B: R_B = ρ(2l)/(π(2r)²) = 2ρl/(4πr²) = ρl/(2πr²) = R_A/2. Power P = V²/R, so P₁ = V²/R_B = 2V²/R_A = 2P, giving P = P₁/2.

Q.97 [Physics]

Consider the following statements about a solenoid: 1. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the number of turns per unit length in the solenoid 2. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the current flowing in the wire of the solenoid 3. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the diameter of the solenoid Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only ✓

Explanation: The magnetic field inside a solenoid is B = μ₀nI, where n is the number of turns per unit length and I is the current. The diameter of the solenoid does not affect B, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.98 [Physics]

Light year is a unit of measurement of

(a) very large distances ✓
(b) time interval in years
(c) amount of light received on earth in a year
(d) mass of atoms

Explanation: A light year is the distance travelled by light in one year (approximately 9.46 × 10¹⁵ metres), and is used to measure very large astronomical distances.

Q.99 [Physics]

The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is 50 cm. If the magnification of the telescope is 25, then the focal length of the eye-piece is

(a) 12.5 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 2 cm ✓
(d) 10 cm

Explanation: Magnification of a telescope m = f_o / f_e. So f_e = f_o / m = 50 / 25 = 2 cm.

Q.100 [Physics]

Which one of the following forces is non-central and non-conservative?

(a) Frictional force ✓
(b) Electric force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Mechanical force

Explanation: Frictional force is non-central (does not act along the line joining two particles) and non-conservative (work done depends on path, and energy is dissipated as heat). Electric and gravitational forces are both central and conservative.

Q.101 [Chemistry]

On exposure to moist air, copper gains a green coat on its surface due to formation of which one of the following compounds?

(a) Copper carbonate ✓
(b) Copper oxide
(c) Copper sulphate
(d) Copper nitrate

Explanation: The green patina on copper exposed to moist air is basic copper carbonate (Cu₂(OH)₂CO₃), formed by reaction of copper with carbon dioxide, water, and oxygen in air.

Q.102 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following will NOT produce carbon dioxide on reacting with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?

(a) Limestone
(b) Quick Lime ✓
(c) Chalk
(d) Marble

Explanation: Quick lime is CaO (calcium oxide), which reacts with HCl to form CaCl₂ and water only — no CO₂ is produced. Limestone, chalk, and marble are all forms of CaCO₃ which release CO₂ with HCl.

Q.103 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following substances is NOT a mixture?

(a) Ice ✓
(b) Ice-cream
(c) Air
(d) Honey

Explanation: Ice is pure water (H₂O) in solid state — it is a pure substance, not a mixture. Ice-cream, air, and honey are all mixtures of multiple components.

Q.104 [Geography]

Which one of the following is an example of Salt-Crystal growth?

(a) Chemical weathering
(b) Physical weathering ✓
(c) Biological weathering
(d) Bio-chemical weathering

Explanation: Salt-crystal growth (haloclasty) is a form of physical (mechanical) weathering where salt crystals grow in rock crevices, exerting pressure that causes the rock to crack and disintegrate.

Q.105 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian States in decreasing order?

(a) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal ✓
(b) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal
(c) Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
(d) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Jharkhand

Explanation: Jharkhand has the largest coal reserves in India, followed by Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and West Bengal in decreasing order of proved reserves.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.106 [Geography]

Consider the following statements relating to Richter scale: 1. It was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter 2. It describes the quantity of energy released by a single earthquake 3. Richter Scale has no upper limit Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct: Richter devised the scale in 1935, it measures the energy released by an earthquake, and theoretically the scale has no upper limit (though practical limits exist for Earth's crust strength).

Q.107 [Geography]

Which one of the following ocean currents is NOT a cold ocean current?

(a) Canary current
(b) California current
(c) Kuroshio current ✓
(d) Oyashio current

Explanation: The Kuroshio current is a warm ocean current flowing northward along the eastern coast of Japan. The Canary, California, and Oyashio currents are all cold ocean currents.

Q.108 [Geography]

What is the time gap in occurrence of two successive tides at a given place on the ocean surface?

(a) 12 hours
(b) 12 hours 26 minutes ✓
(c) 24 hours
(d) 24 hours 52 minutes

Explanation: Two successive high tides occur approximately every 12 hours 26 minutes because the lunar day (time for Earth to rotate relative to the Moon) is about 24 hours 52 minutes, making the interval between successive tides half of that, i.e., 12 hours 26 minutes.

Q.109 [Chemistry]

Tooth enamel is made up of which one of the following calcium compounds?

(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Calcium sulphate
(c) Calcium hydroxide
(d) Calcium phosphate ✓

Explanation: Tooth enamel is primarily composed of hydroxyapatite, which is a form of calcium phosphate (Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂), making calcium phosphate the correct answer.

Q.110 [Physics]

Suppose there are two planets, 1 and 2, having the same density but their radii are R₁ and R₂ respectively, where R₁ > R₂. The accelerations due to gravity on the surface of these planets are related as

(a) g₁ > g₂ ✓
(b) g₁ = g₂
(c) g₁ < g₂
(d) Can't say anything

Explanation: Surface gravity g = GM/R² = G(4/3 πR³ρ)/R² = (4/3)πGρR. Since density ρ is the same and R₁ > R₂, we get g₁ > g₂.

Q.111 [Physics]

The Sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while after it sets. This is because of

(a) total internal reflection
(b) atmospheric refraction ✓
(c) apparent shift in the direction of Sun
(d) dispersion

Explanation: Atmospheric refraction bends sunlight around the Earth's curvature, making the Sun visible slightly before it actually rises above and after it sets below the horizon.

Q.112 [Physics]

The figure shown above gives the time (t) versus position (x) graphs of three objects A, B and C. Which one of the following is the correct relation between their speeds VA, VB and VC, respectively at any instant (t > 0)?

(a) VA < VB < VC ✓
(b) VA > VB > VC
(c) VA = VB = VC ≠ 0
(d) VA = VB = VC = 0

Explanation: In a t-x graph, speed is the inverse of the slope (dt/dx); steeper slope in t-x means lower speed. Typically in such problems object A has the steepest slope giving lowest speed, so VA < VB < VC.

Q.113 [Physics]

1 dyne (a unit of force in CGS system) equals to

(a) $10^3$ g·cm/s²
(b) $10^{-3}$ g·cm/s²
(c) $10^5$ kg·m/s²
(d) $10^{-5}$ kg·m/s² ✓

Explanation: 1 dyne = 1 g·cm/s² = 10⁻³ kg × 10⁻² m/s² = 10⁻⁵ kg·m/s² = 10⁻⁵ N.

Q.114 [Physics]

In the given velocity (V) versus time (t) graph, accelerated and decelerated motions are respectively represented by line segments

(a) CD and BC
(b) BC and AB
(c) CD and AB
(d) AB and CD ✓

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review. However, in a typical V-t graph for this question, AB shows increasing velocity (acceleration) and CD shows decreasing velocity (deceleration), making option (d) the standard answer.

Q.115 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements regarding a thermos flask is NOT correct?

(a) The walls of flask are separated by vacuum and made of glass which is a poor conductor of heat
(b) The glass walls themselves have shiny surfaces
(c) The surface of inner wall radiates good amount of heat and the surface of outer wall absorbs some of the heat that is radiated from the inner wall ✓
(d) The cork supports are poor conductors of heat

Explanation: A thermos flask is designed to minimize heat transfer. The silvered (shiny) inner and outer walls reflect radiation rather than radiating or absorbing heat, so statement (c) is incorrect — the walls are designed to minimise radiation, not promote it.

Q.116 [Physics]

'Black hole' is a

(a) huge black star which has zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface
(b) star which has moderate acceleration due to gravity on its surface
(c) star which has collapsed into itself and has large acceleration due to gravity on its surface ✓
(d) star which has collapsed into itself and has zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface

Explanation: A black hole is formed when a massive star collapses under its own gravity into an extremely dense object; its gravitational acceleration (and escape velocity) is so large that even light cannot escape.

Q.117 [Physics]

The formula for conversion between Fahrenheit and Celsius is °F = X + (1.8 × °C). What is factor X?

(a) 32 ✓
(b) 22
(c) 98
(d) 42

Explanation: The standard conversion formula is °F = 32 + 1.8 × °C, so X = 32.

Q.118 [Physics]

When a beam of white light passes through a glass prism, the colour of light beam that deviates the least is

(a) Blue
(b) Red ✓
(c) Green
(d) Violet

Explanation: Red light has the longest wavelength and lowest refractive index in glass among visible colours, so it deviates the least when passing through a prism (VIBGYOR order of increasing deviation).

Q.119 [Science & Technology]

LIGO stands for

(a) Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory ✓
(b) Light Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory
(c) Induced Gravity Observatory
(d) Laser Induced Gaseous Optics

Explanation: LIGO stands for Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory, the facility that made the first direct detection of gravitational waves in 2015.

Q.120 [Physics]

A fuse wire must be

(a) conducting and of low melting point ✓
(b) conducting and of high melting point
(c) insulator and of high melting point
(d) insulator and of low melting point

Explanation: A fuse wire must be electrically conducting to carry current and must have a low melting point so it melts and breaks the circuit when excess current flows.

Q.121 [Geography]

Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to handle thermal coal requirements. It is situated along the coast of which Indian State?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Odisha
(c) Tamil Nadu ✓
(d) Karnataka

Explanation: Kamarajar Port (formerly Ennore Port) is located in Ennore, near Chennai, along the coast of Tamil Nadu.

Q.122 [Geography]

Which one of the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in terms of geographical area?

(a) Daman and Diu ✓
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Lakshadweep

Explanation: Daman and Diu (before its merger with Dadra and Nagar Haveli) had an area of about 112 sq km, making it the smallest Union Territory by geographical area among the listed options.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.123 [Geography]

Which one of the following can be said to be essentially related to 'Polar Front Theory'?

(a) Anticyclone
(b) Tropical Cyclone
(c) Temperate Cyclone ✓
(d) Inter Tropical Convergence

Explanation: The Polar Front Theory, propounded by Norwegian meteorologists, explains the origin and development of Temperate (Extra-tropical) Cyclones at the polar front where cold polar air meets warm tropical air.

Q.124 [Geography]

Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are antecedent rivers. Which one of the following may be the true definition of an antecedent drainage?

(a) Which follows the initial slope of the Himalaya
(b) Which existed before the Himalayan range came into existence ✓
(c) Which followed the dip or rock beds of the Himalaya
(d) Which followed the strikes of rock beds of the Himalaya

Explanation: Antecedent drainage refers to rivers that are older than the mountain ranges they cross — the rivers existed before the Himalayas were uplifted and maintained their original course by cutting through the rising mountains.

Q.125 [History]

The Karachi resolution of Congress in 1931 advocated which one of the following issues?

(a) State shall not own or control key industries and services
(b) State shall handover the key industries and services to the Indian business groups
(c) State should allow the Indian business group to invest fifty per cent of the capital
(d) State shall own or control key industries and services ✓

Explanation: The Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931 passed a resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy, which stated that the state shall own or control key industries and services, reflecting socialist economic thinking.

Q.126 [History]

The treaty of Schonbrunn (1809) was signed after which one of the following battles?

(a) Battle of Austerlitz
(b) Battle of Tilsit
(c) Battle of Wagram ✓
(d) Battle of Lisbon

Explanation: The Treaty of Schönbrunn was signed on 14 October 1809 following Napoleon's victory at the Battle of Wagram (July 1809) against Austria.

Q.127 [History]

Which of the following statements about The New Model Unions is/are correct? 1. The New Model Unions were formed in the 1850s 2. The New Model Unions were formed in the 1880s 3. The New Model Unions comprised a Labour Party idea 4. The New Model Unions excluded women in the 1920s Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 ✓
(b) 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3 only

Explanation: The New Model Unions (e.g., the Amalgamated Society of Engineers) were formed in Britain in the 1850s, characterised by skilled craftsmen, high membership fees, and moderate policies — not in the 1880s, and not linked to a Labour Party idea.

Q.128 [History]

The Truman Doctrine of 1947 was announced to achieve which one of the following?

(a) Containment of the USSR ✓
(b) Increasing agricultural production in the USA
(c) Offering friendship to Europe
(d) Strengthening the UNO

Explanation: The Truman Doctrine (1947) was a US foreign policy pledging support to nations threatened by Soviet expansion, forming the foundation of the Cold War strategy of containment of the USSR.

Q.129 [History]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In 1948, Burma was admitted to the United Nations and immediately supported the USA in the Cold War 2. In 1948, Burma joined the United Nations but refused to denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean War Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Burma (Myanmar) joined the UN in 1948 and pursued a neutral, non-aligned foreign policy — it did not align with the USA in the Cold War, and it refused to denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean War, making statement 2 correct.

Q.130 [History]

Who among the following presented 'The April Theses' to the Russian people in 1917?

(a) Stalin
(b) Trotsky
(c) Bukharin
(d) Lenin ✓

Explanation: Lenin presented the April Theses in April 1917 after returning to Russia, outlining his programme for moving from the bourgeois democratic revolution to a socialist revolution.

Q.131 [Polity]

An Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the recommendation of

(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The Chief Election Commissioner ✓
(c) The President of India
(d) The Parliament

Explanation: Under Article 324(5) of the Indian Constitution, an Election Commissioner (other than the Chief Election Commissioner) can be removed on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Q.132 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?

(a) Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of a State
(b) The election follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote
(c) 1/3rd of its members retire after every two years
(d) It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President ✓

Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved — not even by the President. Only the Lok Sabha can be dissolved. Hence option (d) is the incorrect statement.

Q.133 [Polity]

Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is available only to the citizens of India?

(a) Article 19 ✓
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22

Explanation: Article 19 (freedoms of speech, assembly, movement, etc.) is available only to citizens. Articles 20, 21, and 22 are available to all persons, including non-citizens.

Q.134 [History]

The treaty of Yandabo was signed in

(a) 1826 ✓
(b) 1825
(c) 1824
(d) 1823

Explanation: The Treaty of Yandabo was signed on 24 February 1826, ending the First Anglo-Burmese War, under which Burma ceded Assam, Manipur, Arakan, and Tenasserim to Britain.

Q.135 [History]

In the Manusmriti which form of marriage results from the 'voluntary union of a maiden and her lover'?

(a) Eighth form
(b) Fifth form
(c) Seventh form
(d) Sixth form ✓

Explanation: According to Manusmriti, the Gandharva form of marriage — the voluntary union of a maiden and her lover — is listed as the sixth form among the eight types of marriage.

Q.136 [Current Affairs]

Consider the following description of the Samadhi of a former Prime Minister of India: Central Samadhi platform comprises nine square black polished granite solid stone blocks, capped with a 'Diya' in the centre. The number nine holds significance and represents the navarasas, navaratras and navagrahas. The placement of the nine-square Samadhi is in a circular lotus shaped pattern. The nine-square platform is accessed in four cardinal directions by pathways made in white composite tiles so that the floor does not get heated. Identify the Samadhi:

(a) Shakti Sthal
(b) Shantivan
(c) Sadaiv Atal ✓
(d) Veer Bhumi

Explanation: Sadaiv Atal is the memorial of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, inaugurated in 2018, described by the nine-square black granite blocks and lotus-shaped pattern matching the description given.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.137 [Current Affairs]

IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly between Armies of India and

(a) Malaysia
(b) Maldives ✓
(c) Mauritius
(d) Myanmar

Explanation: IMBEX (India-Maldives Bilateral Exercise) is a joint military exercise conducted regularly between the Indian Army and the Maldives National Defence Force.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.138 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following was awarded The Hindu Prize in Fiction category for the year 2018?

(a) Neelum Saran Gour ✓
(b) N. Kalyan Raman
(c) Manoranjan Byapari
(d) Arunava Sinha

Explanation: Neelum Saran Gour won The Hindu Prize 2018 in the Fiction category for her novel 'Requiem in Raga Janki'.

Q.139 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following was appointed as head of the seven-member committee to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps for augmenting collections?

(a) Himanta Biswa Sarma
(b) Thomas Isaac
(c) Sushil Modi ✓
(d) Capt Abhimanyu

Explanation: Sushil Modi, Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar, was appointed as head of the seven-member committee of state finance ministers to examine GST revenue shortfall and suggest measures for augmenting collections.

Q.140 [Current Affairs]

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in

(a) New Delhi
(b) Gandhinagar
(c) Prayagraj
(d) Varanasi ✓

Explanation: The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention 2019 was held in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, from 21–23 January 2019.

Q.141 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following cities was named by UNESCO as World Capital of Architecture for 2020?

(a) Tokyo
(b) Johannesburg
(c) Rio de Janeiro ✓
(d) New Delhi

Explanation: Rio de Janeiro was named by UNESCO as the World Capital of Architecture for 2020, coinciding with the World Congress of Architects hosted there.

Q.142 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following was named ICC's Emerging Player of the Year 2018?

(a) Rishabh Pant ✓
(b) Josh Hazlewood
(c) Hasan Ali
(d) Mustafizur Rahman

Explanation: Rishabh Pant was named the ICC Emerging Player of the Year for 2018, recognizing his outstanding performances across formats for India.

Q.143 [Current Affairs]

India's first private sector Howitzer gun-making unit is located at

(a) Surat
(b) Kolkata
(c) Hazira ✓
(d) Sahibabad

Explanation: India's first private sector Howitzer gun manufacturing facility was set up by Larsen & Toubro (L&T) at Hazira, Gujarat, as part of the Make in India initiative for defence production.

Q.144 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following pairs of old names and new names of islands in India is/are correctly matched? 1. Ross Island : Shaheed Dweep 2. Neil Island : Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep 3. Havelock Island : Swaraj Dweep Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Ross Island was renamed Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep (not Shaheed Dweep); Neil Island was renamed Shaheed Dweep; and Havelock Island was renamed Swaraj Dweep. So pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched as listed (Neil Island = Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep is actually incorrect — Ross Island got that name). Re-checking: Ross Island = Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep, Neil Island = Shaheed Dweep, Havelock Island = Swaraj Dweep. Therefore only pair 3 (Havelock = Swaraj Dweep) is correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.145 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following was posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India's highest peacetime gallantry award, in 2019?

(a) Jyoti Prakash Nirala
(b) Nazir Ahmad Wani ✓
(c) Hangpan Dada
(d) Mohan Nath Goswami

Explanation: Nazir Ahmad Wani, a Special Police Officer from Jammu & Kashmir, was posthumously awarded the Ashoka Chakra in 2019 for his exceptional courage in counter-insurgency operations.

Q.146 [Biology]

As per the code of the nomenclature, which one of the following is the correct way of writing a biological name?

(a) Amoeba Proteus
(b) Amoeba proteus ✓
(c) amoeba proteus
(d) Amoeba Proteus

Explanation: Under binomial nomenclature, the genus name is capitalized (Amoeba) and the species epithet is written in lowercase (proteus); both are italicized. Option (b) follows this rule correctly (options a and d are identical and both incorrect as species should be lowercase).

Q.147 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements regarding Electrocardiogram is correct?

(a) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of cornea
(b) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of kidney
(c) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of brain
(d) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of heart ✓

Explanation: An Electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) records the electrical activity of the heart over time, producing a graphical tracing used to diagnose cardiac conditions.

Q.148 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements regarding Penicillin is correct?

(a) Penicillin-resistant bacteria can store this antibiotic in vacuole
(b) Penicillin-resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called β-lactamase ✓
(c) Penicillin-resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called lactic acid dehydrogenase
(d) Penicillin is not absorbed by bacteria; so most bacteria are resistant

Explanation: Penicillin-resistant bacteria produce the enzyme β-lactamase (penicillinase), which breaks the β-lactam ring of penicillin, rendering it inactive and conferring resistance.

Q.149 [Biology]

Which one of the following organelles of mammalian cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes?

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Lysosome ✓
(d) Nucleus

Explanation: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing a wide variety of hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes that break down macromolecules, cellular debris, and foreign material.

Q.150 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements regarding Cholera is correct?

(a) Cholera is a disease that causes loss of memory
(b) Cholera is a disease of muscles due to consumption of alcohol
(c) Cholera is a disease due to consumption of contaminated food or water ✓
(d) Cholera is a genetic disease

Explanation: Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection caused by ingestion of food or water contaminated with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae; it is not genetic, nor does it cause memory loss or muscle disease.