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NDA II 2019 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2019 (Session II) Questions: 140 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Antonyms]

His conversations are always absurd. (Select the ANTONYM of 'absurd')

(a) farcical
(b) foolish
(c) preposterous
(d) rational ✓

Explanation: 'Absurd' means illogical or ridiculous. Its antonym is 'rational', meaning logical and sensible. Options a, b, c are synonyms.

Q.2 [Antonyms]

The politician was a dissident. (Select the ANTONYM of 'dissident')

(a) agitator
(b) rebel
(c) conformist ✓
(d) revolutionary

Explanation: 'Dissident' means one who opposes or rebels. Its antonym is 'conformist', someone who complies with accepted norms. Options a, b, d are synonyms.

Q.3 [Antonyms]

He wrote an incisive article on corruption in politics. (Select the ANTONYM of 'incisive')

(a) vague ✓
(b) penetrating
(c) trenchant
(d) precise

Explanation: 'Incisive' means clear, sharp, and direct. Its antonym is 'vague', meaning unclear or imprecise. Options b, c, d are synonyms.

Q.4 [Antonyms]

Rakesh is an eccentric prodigal. (Select the ANTONYM of 'prodigal')

(a) extravagant
(b) profligate
(c) wasteful
(d) thrifty ✓

Explanation: 'Prodigal' means wastefully extravagant. Its antonym is 'thrifty', meaning careful with money. Options a, b, c are synonyms.

Q.5 [Antonyms]

Friendship is always reciprocal. (Select the ANTONYM of 'reciprocal')

(a) mutual
(b) one-sided ✓
(c) shared
(d) corresponding

Explanation: 'Reciprocal' means given and received in return; mutual. Its antonym is 'one-sided', meaning not mutual. Options a, c, d are synonyms.

Q.6 [Antonyms]

The debate was highly stimulating. (Select the ANTONYM of 'stimulating')

(a) arousing
(b) invigorating
(c) boring ✓
(d) stirring

Explanation: 'Stimulating' means interesting and exciting. Its antonym is 'boring', meaning dull and uninteresting. Options a, b, d are synonyms.

Q.7 [Antonyms]

Malaria is a widespread disease. (Select the ANTONYM of 'widespread')

(a) endemic
(b) pervasive
(c) common
(d) rare ✓

Explanation: 'Widespread' means found or distributed over a large area. Its antonym is 'rare', meaning uncommon. Options a, b, c are synonyms or near-synonyms.

Q.8 [Antonyms]

The bill received a vehement resistance from the opposition party in the Parliament. (Select the ANTONYM of 'vehement')

(a) animated
(b) apathetic ✓
(c) fervent
(d) vigorous

Explanation: 'Vehement' means showing strong feeling; forceful, passionate. Its antonym is 'apathetic', meaning showing no interest or enthusiasm. Options a, c, d are synonyms.

Q.9 [Antonyms]

He has been obstinate since his childhood. (Select the ANTONYM of 'obstinate')

(a) stubborn
(b) dogged
(c) amenable ✓
(d) rigid

Explanation: 'Obstinate' means stubbornly refusing to change. Its antonym is 'amenable', meaning open to suggestion; compliant. Options a, b, d are synonyms.

Q.10 [Antonyms]

Mahatma Gandhi was one of the most prominent leaders of his times. (Select the ANTONYM of 'prominent')

(a) renowned
(b) distinguishable
(c) eminent
(d) unknown ✓

Explanation: 'Prominent' means important or famous. Its antonym is 'unknown', meaning not known or recognized. Options a, c are synonyms; b is close in meaning.

Q.11 [Spotting Errors]

He had arrived at Cairo (a) a few months before (b) protests shook the Arab world. (c) No error. (d)

(a) He had arrived at Cairo ✓
(b) a few months before
(c) protests shook the Arab world
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct preposition is 'in' not 'at' for cities: 'He had arrived in Cairo'. Using 'at' is incorrect for a major city/capital.

Q.12 [Spotting Errors]

Most of us who are older competitive runners (a) are not able to race anywhere (b) at the same speed as we do when we were 30. (c) No error. (d)

(a) Most of us who are older competitive runners
(b) are not able to race anywhere at the same speed
(c) as we do when we were 30 ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The error is in part (c): 'as we do when we were 30' should be 'as we did when we were 30' — the auxiliary must match the past tense context.

Q.13 [Spotting Errors]

Work hard (a) lest you do not (b) fail. (c) No error. (d)

(a) Work hard
(b) lest you do not ✓
(c) fail
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Lest' already carries a negative meaning ('for fear that'), so 'do not' creates a double negative. The correct form is 'lest you fail', making part (b) the error.

Q.14 [Spotting Errors]

The Eastern Ghats are home of 2600 plant species (a) and this habitat fragmentation (b) can pose a serious threat to endemic plants. (c) No error. (d)

(a) The Eastern Ghats are home of 2600 plant species ✓
(b) and this habitat fragmentation
(c) can pose a serious threat to endemic plants
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct expression is 'home to' not 'home of'. Part (a) should read 'are home to 2600 plant species'.

Q.15 [Spotting Errors]

Turbidity current is a fast-moving current (a) that sweeps down submarine canyons, (b) carrying sand and mud into the deep sea. (c) No error. (d)

(a) Turbidity current is a fast-moving current
(b) that sweeps down submarine canyons
(c) carrying sand and mud into the deep sea
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct with no errors in any of the underlined parts.

Q.16 [Spotting Errors]

Every one (a) of the boys (b) love to ride. (c) No error. (d)

(a) Every one
(b) of the boys
(c) love to ride ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Every one' is singular and takes a singular verb. 'love' should be 'loves': 'Every one of the boys loves to ride.'

Q.17 [Spotting Errors]

Neither praise nor blame (a) seem (b) to affect him. (c) No error. (d)

(a) Neither praise nor blame
(b) seem ✓
(c) to affect him
(d) No error

Explanation: With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. 'blame' is singular, so the verb should be 'seems' not 'seem'.

Q.18 [Spotting Errors]

Many a man (a) has succumbed (b) to this temptation. (c) No error. (d)

(a) Many a man
(b) has succumbed
(c) to this temptation
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: 'Many a man has succumbed' is grammatically correct. 'Many a' takes a singular noun and singular verb, which is properly used here.

Q.19 [Spotting Errors]

A time slot of fifteen minutes (a) are allowed (b) to each speaker. (c) No error. (d)

(a) A time slot of fifteen minutes
(b) are allowed ✓
(c) to each speaker
(d) No error

Explanation: The subject is 'A time slot' (singular), so the verb should be 'is allowed' not 'are allowed'.

Q.20 [Spotting Errors]

He asked (a) whether either of the brothers (b) were at home. (c) No error. (d)

(a) He asked
(b) whether either of the brothers
(c) were at home ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Either' is singular and requires a singular verb. 'were' should be 'was': 'whether either of the brothers was at home'.

Q.21 [Idioms & Phrases]

Be over the hill

(a) To be on a mountain top
(b) To travel in the jungle
(c) To be too old to do things ✓
(d) To do something in the most complete way

Explanation: 'Over the hill' is an idiomatic expression meaning to be past one's prime or too old to be effective at something.

Q.22 [Idioms & Phrases]

Bite your tongue

(a) To stop yourself from saying something because it would be better not to ✓
(b) To bite off your tongue while eating
(c) To feel sorry
(d) To ask someone something that you want

Explanation: 'Bite your tongue' means to restrain oneself from speaking, especially when one wants to say something but it would be inappropriate or harmful.

Q.23 [Idioms & Phrases]

Turn a blind eye

(a) To run away
(b) To begin to behave in a more positive manner
(c) To change a situation
(d) To choose to ignore behaviour that you know is wrong ✓

Explanation: 'Turn a blind eye' means to deliberately ignore or overlook something that one knows is wrong or improper.

Q.24 [Idioms & Phrases]

Yellow journalism

(a) Paid storytelling
(b) Government reports published on yellow coloured papers
(c) Writings in newspapers that try to influence people's opinion by using strong language and false information ✓
(d) Journalism which agrees completely with the policies of the governments and capitalists

Explanation: Yellow journalism refers to sensationalist, biased, or irresponsible reporting that uses exaggerated or false information to influence readers' opinions.

Q.25 [Idioms & Phrases]

To be in seventh heaven

(a) To fly in the air
(b) To be extremely happy ✓
(c) To be completely alone
(d) To visit a place which is in the list of the seven wonders of the world

Explanation: 'In seventh heaven' is an idiom derived from religious traditions meaning to be in a state of supreme happiness or bliss.

Q.26 [Sentence Ordering]

Directions: Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence. we are deeply concerned [R] / by the disturbing allegations [Q] / and will continue to [S] / closely monitor the situation [P]

(a) R Q S P ✓
(b) S P Q R
(c) S P R Q
(d) P R S Q

Explanation: The correct arrangement is: 'We are deeply concerned (R) by the disturbing allegations (Q) and will continue to (S) closely monitor the situation (P)' — forming a coherent sentence.

Q.27 [Sentence Ordering]

Directions: Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence. aromatherapy may also help [Q] / relieve nausea, pain and stress [P] / but patients are cautioned against [S] / using lavender oil on their skin [R]

(a) R Q P S
(b) S Q P R
(c) Q P S R ✓
(d) R P S Q

Explanation: The correct arrangement is: 'Aromatherapy may also help (Q) relieve nausea, pain and stress (P) but patients are cautioned against (S) using lavender oil on their skin (R)' — forming a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.

Q.28 [Sentence Ordering]

Directions: Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence. the plea filed through the advocate [Q] / submitted that the sale of drugs and prescription medicines [S] / online is illegal and [R] / without any mandate of law [P]

(a) R S P Q
(b) Q S P R ✓
(c) Q R P S
(d) P S Q R

Explanation: The correct arrangement is: 'The plea filed through the advocate (Q) submitted that the sale of drugs and prescription medicines (S) online is illegal and (R) without any mandate of law (P)' — forming a coherent legal sentence.

Q.29 [Sentence Ordering]

Directions: Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence. dating back to the invention of [Q] / the potter's wheel in ancient Mesopotamia [R] / humans and machines have co-existed [P] / at the physical level for millennia [S]

(a) R S P Q
(b) Q S P R
(c) Q R P S
(d) P S Q R ✓

Explanation: The correct arrangement is: 'Humans and machines have co-existed (P) at the physical level for millennia (S) dating back to the invention of (Q) the potter's wheel in ancient Mesopotamia (R)' — forming a historically coherent sentence.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.30 [Sentence Ordering]

Directions: Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence. surged to multi-year highs [Q] / on robust economic data [R] / global markets also witnessed [S] / a sell-off as US Treasury yields [P]

(a) R S Q P
(b) P Q S R
(c) Q R P S
(d) S P Q R ✓

Explanation: The correct arrangement is: 'Global markets also witnessed (S) a sell-off as US Treasury yields (P) surged to multi-year highs (Q) on robust economic data (R)' — forming a coherent financial news sentence.

Q.31 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability. Their chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment, and disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly by their rules, is the humor of a scholar. They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves do give forth directions too much at large, except they be bounded in by experience. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them and wise men use them; for they teach not their own use; but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Read not to contradict and confute; nor to believe and take for granted; nor to find talk and discourse; but to weigh and consider. According to the author, why should one study?

(a) To gather information about the world
(b) To pass the time in a creative way
(c) For pleasure, enhanced capability and holistic growth ✓
(d) To become only worldly wise

Explanation: The author states studies serve for 'delight, for ornament, and for ability' — corresponding to pleasure, presentation/growth, and capability — which aligns with option (c).

Q.32 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: (same as Q41) Why does the author not recommend too much of studies?

(a) Because it reflects idleness ✓
(b) Because it requires too much money
(c) Because it is dangerous for the health of the mind
(d) Because it makes men crafty

Explanation: The author explicitly states 'To spend too much time in studies is sloth' — sloth meaning idleness or laziness, matching option (a).

Q.33 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: (same as Q41) According to the author, how can the studies be perfected?

(a) By reflection
(b) By application
(c) By conversation
(d) By experience ✓

Explanation: The author clearly writes 'They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience' — directly stating that studies are perfected by experience.

Q.34 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: (same as Q41) Which kind of human beings denounce studies?

(a) Innocent
(b) Cunning ✓
(c) Stupid
(d) Wise

Explanation: The author states 'Crafty men condemn studies' — crafty means cunning or sly, matching option (b).

Q.35 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: (same as Q41) According to the author, one should read to

(a) only argue
(b) only believe
(c) evaluate and understand ✓
(d) preach and believe

Explanation: The author says 'Read not to contradict and confute; nor to believe and take for granted...but to weigh and consider' — weighing and considering means to evaluate and understand, matching option (c).

Q.36 [Fill in the Blank]

The Election Commission on Saturday _____ that the Assembly elections in five States will be held from November 12 to December 7.

(a) pronounced
(b) announced ✓
(c) promulgated
(d) issued

Explanation: 'Announced' is the standard verb used when an authority makes a public declaration of dates or events; it best fits the context of the Election Commission informing the public.

Q.37 [Fill in the Blank]

The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an auto when they _____ an accident on the way.

(a) met with ✓
(b) ran into
(c) experienced
(d) heard

Explanation: The idiomatic expression for being involved in an accident in English is 'met with an accident' — this is the standard collocation used, especially in Indian English contexts.

Q.38 [Fill in the Blank]

Scores of villagers are _____ a sit-in protest against the construction of a new underpass.

(a) performing
(b) sitting
(c) staging ✓
(d) standing

Explanation: The correct collocation is 'staging a protest' — 'stage' is the standard verb used with demonstrations, protests, and sit-ins.

Q.39 [Fill in the Blank]

It is common for patients to stop _____ medicine as soon as they start feeling better.

(a) eating
(b) gulping
(c) swallowing
(d) taking ✓

Explanation: The standard collocation in English for consuming medicine is 'taking medicine'; the other options are either incorrect collocations or less appropriate in formal/medical usage.

Q.40 [Fill in the Blank]

A four-year-old girl got a new lease of life after doctors at a hospital _____ a cancerous tumour from one of her kidneys.

(a) rejuvenated
(b) removed ✓
(c) displaced
(d) replaced

Explanation: Doctors 'remove' tumours surgically; 'displaced' and 'replaced' do not fit the medical context, and 'rejuvenated' means to make young again which is entirely incorrect here.

Q.41 [Physics - Rotational Motion]

A thin disc and a thin ring, both have mass M and radius R. Both rotate about axes through their center of mass and are perpendicular to their surfaces at the same angular velocity. Which of the following is true?

(a) The ring has higher kinetic energy ✓
(b) The disc has higher kinetic energy
(c) The ring and the disc have the same kinetic energy
(d) Kinetic energies of both the bodies are zero since they are not in linear motion

Explanation: Moment of inertia of ring = MR², moment of inertia of disc = MR²/2. Since KE = ½Iω² and both have same ω, the ring (with higher I) has higher kinetic energy.

Q.42 [Physics - Laws of Motion]

Let there be an object having some chemicals in it. It starts moving with a uniform velocity v and a chemical reaction starts happening. In this case, which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 1. Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot change the velocity v of the center of mass of the object. 2. Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot change kinetic energy of the particles inside with respect to the center of mass of object. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Internal forces (like chemical reactions) cannot change the velocity of the center of mass (Newton's 3rd law / conservation of momentum). However, chemical reactions release energy that can change the kinetic energy of internal particles relative to the center of mass, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.43 [Physics - Heat Transfer]

In which of the following phenomena do heat waves travel along a straight line with the speed of light?

(a) Thermal conduction
(b) Thermal convection
(c) Thermal radiation ✓
(d) Both, thermal conduction and radiation

Explanation: Thermal radiation consists of electromagnetic waves (infrared) that travel in straight lines at the speed of light through vacuum or air, unlike conduction and convection which require a material medium and are much slower.

Q.44 [Physics - Electricity]

Which one of the following statements regarding Ohm's law is not correct?

(a) Ohm's law is an assumption that current through a conductor is always directly proportional to the potential difference applied to it.
(b) A conducting device obeys Ohm's law when the resistance of a device is independent of magnitude and polarity of applied potential difference.
(c) A conducting material obeys Ohm's law when the resistance of material is independent of the magnitude and direction of applied electric field.
(d) All homogeneous materials obey Ohm's law irrespective of whether the field is within range or strong. ✓

Explanation: Not all homogeneous materials obey Ohm's law under strong fields; Ohm's law is empirical and breaks down at very high electric field strengths even for homogeneous materials. Options a, b, and c are correct characterizations of Ohm's law.

Q.45 [Physics - Laws of Motion]

When a ball bounces off the ground, which of the following changes suddenly? (Assume no loss of energy to the floor)

(a) Its speed
(b) Its momentum ✓
(c) Its kinetic energy
(d) Its potential energy

Explanation: During an elastic bounce, speed and kinetic energy remain the same (no energy loss), but the direction of velocity reverses, so momentum (a vector quantity) changes suddenly from downward to upward.

Q.46 [Chemistry - Oxidation States]

Which one of the following compounds does not exhibit a different oxidation number of the same element?

(a) Pb₃O₄
(b) Fe₃O₄
(c) Fe₂O₃ ✓
(d) Mn₃O₄

Explanation: Fe₂O₃ contains iron only in the +3 oxidation state. In contrast, Pb₃O₄ contains Pb in +2 and +4 states, Fe₃O₄ contains Fe in +2 and +3 states, and Mn₃O₄ contains Mn in +2 and +3 states.

Q.47 [Chemistry - Materials]

Which one of the following statements about glass is not correct?

(a) Glass is often said to be a supercooled liquid.
(b) Glass has no definite melting point.
(c) Soda glass is harder than pyrex glass. ✓
(d) Boron is present in pyrex glass.

Explanation: Pyrex glass (borosilicate glass) is harder and more resistant to thermal shock than soda glass. Soda glass is softer, not harder, than pyrex glass. The other statements are correct.

Q.48 [Chemistry - States of Matter]

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Both boiling and evaporation are surface phenomena.
(b) Boiling is a surface phenomenon, but evaporation is a bulk phenomenon.
(c) Both boiling and evaporation are bulk phenomena.
(d) Boiling is a bulk phenomenon, but evaporation is a surface phenomenon. ✓

Explanation: Boiling occurs throughout the bulk of the liquid when vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure, while evaporation is a surface phenomenon that occurs only at the liquid surface at any temperature.

Q.49 [Chemistry - Carbon Allotropes]

Which one of the following statements about diamond and graphite is not correct?

(a) Diamond has a tetrahedral structure, whereas graphite has a hexagonal planar structure.
(b) Both physical and chemical properties of diamond and graphite are different. ✓
(c) Graphite is soft but diamond is hard.
(d) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity while diamond is not.

Explanation: Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon with the same chemical composition, so their chemical properties (such as combustion products) are the same. Only their physical properties differ. Statement b is incorrect.

Q.50 [Chemistry - Industrial Chemistry]

The raw materials used for the manufacture of Portland cement are

(a) Lime, silica and sulphur dioxide
(b) Lime, silica and carbon dioxide
(c) Lime, silica and alumina ✓
(d) Lime, silica and boric acid

Explanation: Portland cement is manufactured from limestone (lime), clay (which provides silica and alumina), and sometimes gypsum. The primary raw materials are lime (CaO), silica (SiO₂), and alumina (Al₂O₃).

Q.51 [Chemistry - Water]

Which one of the following statements about water is not true?

(a) Hydrogen bonds are present in liquid water.
(b) Water has a high boiling point.
(c) Water has a high heat of fusion.
(d) Water is a non-polar molecule. ✓

Explanation: Water (H₂O) is a polar molecule due to the bent geometry and electronegativity difference between oxygen and hydrogen atoms, resulting in a net dipole moment. Statements a, b, and c are all true.

Q.52 [Chemistry - Soaps]

A sample of 'soft soap' contains

(a) Caesium
(b) Potassium ✓
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium

Explanation: Soft soaps are made from potassium hydroxide (KOH) reacting with fats/oils, producing potassium salts of fatty acids. Hard soaps use sodium hydroxide (NaOH). Calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acids are insoluble and do not form good soaps.

Q.53 [Physics - Kinematics]

If an object moves at a non-zero constant acceleration for a certain interval of time, then the distance it covers in that time

(a) depends on its initial velocity. ✓
(b) is independent of its initial velocity.
(c) increases linearly with time.
(d) depends on its initial displacement.

Explanation: Using s = ut + ½at², where a ≠ 0 and t is fixed, the distance s clearly depends on the initial velocity u. Initial displacement is just a reference point and does not affect the distance covered; distance is not linear in time when acceleration is non-zero.

Q.54 [Physics - Rotational Motion]

A solid disc and a solid sphere have the same mass and same radius. Which one has the higher moment of inertia about its centre of mass?

(a) The disc ✓
(b) The sphere
(c) Both have the same moment of inertia
(d) The information provided is not sufficient to answer the question

Explanation: Moment of inertia of solid disc about center = ½MR², and for solid sphere = (2/5)MR². Since ½ = 0.5 > 0.4 = 2/5, the disc has the higher moment of inertia.

Q.55 [Physics - Fluid Mechanics]

Two substances of densities ρ₁ and ρ₂ are mixed in equal volume and their relative density is 4. When they are mixed in equal masses, relative density is 3. The values of ρ₁ and ρ₂ respectively are

(a) 6, 2 ✓
(b) 3, 5
(c) 12, 4
(d) 9, 3

Explanation: Equal volumes: (ρ₁+ρ₂)/2 = 4 → ρ₁+ρ₂ = 8. Equal masses: 2ρ₁ρ₂/(ρ₁+ρ₂) = 3 → 2ρ₁ρ₂/8 = 3 → ρ₁ρ₂ = 12. Solving ρ₁+ρ₂=8 and ρ₁ρ₂=12 gives ρ₁=6, ρ₂=2 (roots of x²-8x+12=0).

Q.56 [Physics - Kinematics]

A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 50 km in a straight line towards south, immediately turns around and returns to Bengaluru. The time taken for this round trip is 2 hours. The magnitude of the average velocity of the car for this round trip

(a) is 0. ✓
(b) is 50 km/hr.
(c) is 25 km/hr.
(d) cannot be calculated without knowing acceleration.

Explanation: Average velocity = total displacement / total time. Since the car returns to its starting point, the net displacement is zero, so the magnitude of average velocity is 0. (Average speed would be 50 km/hr, but velocity is a vector.)

Q.57 [Physics - Electricity]

"The sum of emfs and potential differences around a closed loop equals zero" is a consequence of

(a) Ohm's law.
(b) Conservation of charge.
(c) Conservation of momentum.
(d) Conservation of energy. ✓

Explanation: Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL), which states that the sum of emfs and potential differences around a closed loop equals zero, is a consequence of conservation of energy — the work done per unit charge around any closed loop must be zero.

Q.58 [Physics - Measurement]

A student measures certain lengths using a meter scale having least count equal to 1 mm. Which one of the following measurements is more precise?

(a) 0.50 mm
(b) 29.07 cm
(c) 0.925 m
(d) 910 mm ✓

Explanation: Precision refers to the smallest unit measured relative to the value. With a least count of 1 mm: option (a) 0.50 mm is less than the least count (impossible to measure precisely), option (b) 29.07 cm = 290.7 mm has decimal mm (beyond least count), option (c) 0.925 m = 925 mm — the measurement 910 mm (option d) is expressed in the same unit as least count with no sub-mm digits, making it the most honest precise measurement at 1 mm resolution. Actually, 910 mm is directly in the least count unit showing the measurement is precise to 1 mm.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.59 [Physics - Thermodynamics]

If the work done on the system or by the system is zero, which one of the following statements for a gas kept at a certain temperature is correct?

(a) Change in internal energy of the system is equal to flow of heat in or out of the system. ✓
(b) Change in internal energy of the system is less than heat transferred.
(c) Change in internal energy of the system is more than the heat flow.
(d) Cannot be determined.

Explanation: By the first law of thermodynamics, ΔU = Q - W. If W = 0 (no work done), then ΔU = Q, meaning the change in internal energy equals the heat flow into or out of the system.

Q.60 [Physics - Electricity]

Consider the following part of an electric circuit. The total electrical resistance in the given part of the electric circuit is (figure-based question with resistors in combination)

(a) value not readable from text
(b) value not readable from text
(c) 15 ohm
(d) value not readable from text

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review. The circuit diagram and specific resistance values in options a, b, d are not fully extractable from the text; only option c (15 ohm) is readable.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.61 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements regarding lenses is not correct?

(a) A convex lens produces both real and virtual images.
(b) A concave lens produces only real images. ✓
(c) A convex lens can produce images equal, greater and smaller than the size of the object.
(d) A concave lens always produces images smaller than the size of the object.

Explanation: A concave (diverging) lens always produces virtual, erect, and diminished images — it never produces real images. Statement (b) is incorrect because it claims concave lens produces only real images.

Q.62 [Physics]

10 g of ice at –10°C is mixed with 10 g of water at 0°C. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of mixture to 10°C is

(a) 400 cal
(b) 550 cal
(c) 1050 cal ✓
(d) 1200 cal

Explanation: Heat needed: (1) Warm 10 g ice from –10°C to 0°C = 10×0.5×10 = 50 cal; (2) Melt 10 g ice = 10×80 = 800 cal; (3) Raise 20 g water from 0°C to 10°C = 20×1×10 = 200 cal. Total = 50+800+200 = 1050 cal.

Q.63 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following does not represent the salt, Calcium carbonate?

(a) Lime water ✓
(b) Limestone
(c) Chalk
(d) Marble

Explanation: Lime water is a dilute aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)₂), not calcium carbonate. Limestone, chalk, and marble are all forms of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃).

Q.64 [Chemistry]

Soaps clean surfaces on the principle based on

(a) Viscosity
(b) Floatation
(c) Elasticity
(d) Surface tension ✓

Explanation: Soaps work by reducing the surface tension of water through their amphiphilic (hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail) structure, allowing them to emulsify grease and dirt.

Q.65 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following substances is not a mixture?

(a) Tin ✓
(b) Sea water
(c) Soil
(d) Air

Explanation: Tin (Sn) is a pure element with atomic number 50; it is not a mixture. Sea water, soil, and air are all mixtures of various substances.

Q.66 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is termed as 'Dry Ice'?

(a) Ice present in ice-cream
(b) Solid water at Antarctica
(c) Solid state of carbon dioxide ✓
(d) Solid water of ionosphere

Explanation: Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide (CO₂). It is called 'dry' because it sublimates directly from solid to gas without passing through a liquid phase at normal atmospheric pressure.

Q.67 [Biology]

Net movement of water from a dilute to a concentrated solution through a selectively permeable membrane is called

(a) Diffusion
(b) Dispersion
(c) Osmosis ✓
(d) Absorption

Explanation: Osmosis is specifically defined as the movement of water (solvent) molecules from a region of lower solute concentration (dilute solution) to higher solute concentration (concentrated solution) through a selectively permeable membrane.

Q.68 [Biology]

Blood is a type of

(a) Epithelial tissue
(b) Muscular tissue
(c) Nervous tissue
(d) Connective tissue ✓

Explanation: Blood is classified as a connective tissue because it has cells (RBCs, WBCs, platelets) suspended in a fluid matrix (plasma), which is characteristic of connective tissues.

Q.69 [Biology]

Mitochondria are able to produce their own

(a) Nucleus
(b) Proteins ✓
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Digestive enzymes

Explanation: Mitochondria contain their own DNA (mtDNA) and ribosomes, enabling them to synthesize some of their own proteins. They cannot produce a nucleus, chloroplasts, or digestive enzymes.

Q.70 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres. ✓
(b) Flexibility in plants is due to sclerenchyma.
(c) Parenchyma have no intercellular spaces.
(d) Xylem consists of sieve plate, sieve tube and companion cells.

Explanation: Xylem is composed of four types of cells: tracheids, vessels (tracheary elements), xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibres. Option (d) describes phloem elements (sieve plates, sieve tubes, companion cells).

Q.71 [Biology]

Who among the following popularized the use of embryological characters in taxonomy?

(a) Carl Linnaeus
(b) Panchanan Maheshwari ✓
(c) Birbal Sahni
(d) Bentham and Hooker

Explanation: Panchanan Maheshwari, a renowned Indian botanist, popularized the use of embryological characters (embryology of angiosperms) in plant taxonomy and systematics.

Q.72 [Physics]

Water is heated with a coil of resistance R connected to domestic supply. The rise of temperature of water will depend on: 1. Supply voltage. 2. Current passing through the coil. 3. Time for which voltage is supplied. Select the correct answer from among the following:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: Heat produced = I²Rt (Joule's law). The rise in temperature depends on the current through the coil and the time for which it flows. Since V and R are fixed (domestic supply voltage is constant and R is given), V is not an independent variable; however, current and time directly determine heat generated.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.73 [Physics]

A pendulum clock is lifted to a height where the gravitational acceleration has a certain value g. Another pendulum clock of same length but of double the mass of the bob is lifted to another height where the gravitational acceleration is g/2. The time period of the second pendulum would be: (in terms of period T of the first pendulum)

(a) √2 T ✓
(b) T
(c) 2
(d) T

Explanation: Time period T = 2π√(L/g). For the first pendulum: T = 2π√(L/g). For the second pendulum (same L, mass doesn't affect period): T₂ = 2π√(L/(g/2)) = 2π√(2L/g) = √2 × T. Mass of the bob does not affect the time period.

Q.74 [Physics]

The loudness of sound depends upon the

(a) velocity of sound waves in the medium.
(b) amplitude of the sound waves. ✓
(c) frequency of the sound waves.
(d) frequency and velocity of the sound waves.

Explanation: The loudness (intensity) of sound is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the sound wave. Greater amplitude means greater energy and thus louder sound.

Q.75 [Physics]

Two bodies of mass M each are placed R distance apart. In another system, two bodies of mass 2M each are placed R/2 distance apart. If F be the gravitational force between the bodies in the first system, then the gravitational force between the bodies in the second system will be

(a) 16 F ✓
(b) 1 F
(c) 4 F
(d) None of the above

Explanation: F = GM²/R². For the second system: F₂ = G(2M)²/(R/2)² = G×4M²/(R²/4) = 16GM²/R² = 16F.

Q.76 [Physics]

Light rays move in straight lines. But through an optical fibre, they can move in any type of zigzag path because

(a) the holes through the fibre are extremely fine.
(b) light rays are absorbed at the entry end and relieved at the exit end of the fibre.
(c) scattering of light occurs inside the fibre.
(d) successive total internal reflections occur as a ray moves through the fibre. ✓

Explanation: In an optical fibre, light travels by successive total internal reflections at the core-cladding interface, since the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle. This allows light to travel along curved paths within the fibre.

Q.77 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements regarding cathode rays is not correct?

(a) Cathode ray particles are electrons.
(b) Cathode ray particles start from anode and move towards cathode. ✓
(c) In the absence of electrical and magnetic fields, cathode rays travel in straight lines.
(d) Television picture tubes are cathode ray tubes.

Explanation: Cathode rays consist of electrons that are emitted from the cathode (negative electrode) and travel towards the anode (positive electrode), not the other way around. Statement (b) incorrectly reverses the direction.

Q.78 [Chemistry]

A very large volume of hydrogen can be accommodated by making

(a) non-metallic hydrides.
(b) hydrogen peroxide.
(c) non-stoichiometric hydrides. ✓
(d) alkali metal hydrides.

Explanation: Non-stoichiometric (interstitial) hydrides, formed mainly by transition metals, can absorb large and variable amounts of hydrogen into their crystal lattice, making them useful for hydrogen storage.

Q.79 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not a monatomic element?

(a) Copper
(b) Helium
(c) Iodine ✓
(d) Barium

Explanation: Iodine (I₂) exists as a diatomic molecule in its standard state, not as a monatomic element. Copper, helium, and barium exist as monatomic species under standard conditions.

Q.80 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following represents the correct order of electron releasing tendency of metals?

(a) Zn > Cu > Ag ✓
(b) Ag > Cu > Zn
(c) Cu > Zn > Ag
(d) Cu > Ag > Zn

Explanation: Electron releasing tendency corresponds to the reactivity/electropositive character of metals. From the electrochemical series, Zn is more reactive than Cu, which is more reactive than Ag, giving the order Zn > Cu > Ag.

Q.81 [Science - Chemistry/Biology]

Which one of the following is the major constituent of biogas?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Methane ✓
(d) Oxygen

Explanation: Biogas is produced by anaerobic decomposition of organic matter and consists primarily of methane (about 50-70%) and carbon dioxide.

Q.82 [Science - Biology]

Thyroid gland produces a hormone called "Thyroxine" which

(a) controls blood glucose levels.
(b) controls ovulation.
(c) controls metabolic rate. ✓
(d) maintains pregnancy.

Explanation: Thyroxine (T4) regulates the basal metabolic rate of the body, controlling how quickly cells use energy and produce heat.

Q.83 [Science - Biology]

Which one of the following is a bacterium that causes disease in the human body?

(a) Varicella zoster
(b) Trypanosoma gambiense
(c) Salmonella typhi ✓
(d) Plasmodium falciparum

Explanation: Salmonella typhi is a bacterium that causes typhoid fever. Varicella zoster is a virus, Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan, and Plasmodium falciparum is a protozoan causing malaria.

Q.84 [Science - Biology]

Which one of the following statements regarding viruses is not true?

(a) Viruses need living cells to reproduce.
(b) All viruses are parasites.
(c) Viruses can synthesize their food through photosynthesis. ✓
(d) Viruses are similar to chemical substances outside the host.

Explanation: Viruses are non-living entities outside a host and lack the cellular machinery (chloroplasts, etc.) needed for photosynthesis; they cannot synthesize their own food.

Q.85 [Science - Biology]

Which one of the following diseases may be caused by the deficiency of vitamin C?

(a) Rickets
(b) Rabies
(c) Hepatitis
(d) Scurvy ✓

Explanation: Scurvy is caused by deficiency of vitamin C (ascorbic acid), leading to bleeding gums and poor wound healing. Rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency.

Q.86 [Science - Physics]

Compared to audible sound waves, ultrasound waves have

(a) higher speed.
(b) higher frequency. ✓
(c) longer wavelength.
(d) both higher speed and frequency.

Explanation: Ultrasound waves have frequencies above 20,000 Hz (above the human hearing range). Speed of sound depends on the medium, not frequency, so ultrasound travels at the same speed as audible sound in the same medium but has higher frequency and thus shorter wavelength.

Q.87 [Science - Physics]

A rigid body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a stationary balloon kept at a height of 50 m from the ground. The speed of the body when it just touches the ground and the total energy when it is dropped from the balloon are respectively (acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²)

(a) 980 m.s⁻¹ and 980 J
(b) √980 m.s⁻¹ and √980 J
(c) 980 m.s⁻¹ and √980 J
(d) √980 m.s⁻¹ and 980 J ✓

Explanation: Total energy at drop = potential energy = mgh = 2 × 9.8 × 50 = 980 J. Speed at ground: v² = 2gh = 2 × 9.8 × 50 = 980, so v = √980 m/s.

Q.88 [Science - Physics]

The temperature of a place on one sunny day is 113°F. The Kelvin scale reading of this temperature will be

(a) 318 K
(b) 45 K ✓
(c) 62.8 K
(d) 335.8 K

Explanation: Wait — converting 113°F: C = (113 - 32) × 5/9 = 81 × 5/9 = 45°C; K = 45 + 273 = 318 K. The correct answer is (a) 318 K.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.89 [Science - Physics]

Radiations coming from the Sun are mostly in the form of

(a) light only.
(b) light and long wavelength infrared.
(c) light and short wavelength infrared. ✓
(d) both short and long wavelength infrared.

Explanation: The Sun emits most of its energy as visible light and short wavelength (near) infrared radiation, since its surface temperature is about 5500°C. Long wavelength infrared is emitted by cooler bodies like Earth.

Q.90 [Science - Physics]

Which of the following are the characteristics of electromagnetic waves? 1. They are elastic waves. 2. They can also move in vacuum. 3. They have electric and magnetic components which are mutually perpendicular. 4. They move with a speed equal to 3 lakh meters per second. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Electromagnetic waves are not elastic waves (statement 1 is false); they can travel in vacuum (2 is true); they have mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields (3 is true); their speed is 3 lakh km/s (3×10⁸ m/s), not 3 lakh m/s (statement 4 is false).

Q.91 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?

(a) Iron ore
(b) Mica ✓
(c) Copper
(d) Bauxite

Explanation: Mica is a non-metallic mineral used as an insulator. Iron ore, copper, and bauxite (aluminium ore) are all metallic minerals.

Q.92 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a Rabi crop in the Northern States of India?

(a) Rice
(b) Bajra
(c) Barley ✓
(d) Ragi

Explanation: Barley is a Rabi (winter) crop sown in October-November and harvested in March-April. Rice, Bajra, and Ragi are Kharif (summer/monsoon) crops.

Q.93 [Geography]

The rivers of North-West Europe are good examples of

(a) parallel pattern of drainage.
(b) radial pattern of drainage.
(c) barbed pattern of drainage.
(d) trellis pattern of drainage. ✓

Explanation: North-West European rivers such as those in the Rhine basin exhibit trellis drainage patterns, where tributaries join the main river at roughly right angles, typical of folded mountain belts.

Q.94 [Geography]

Which one of the following ocean currents is a cold current?

(a) South Atlantic Drift ✓
(b) Mozambique Current
(c) East Australian Current
(d) Caribbean Current

Explanation: The South Atlantic Drift (also called the Falkland/Malvinas current system merging into it) flows from higher latitudes bringing cold water. The Mozambique, East Australian, and Caribbean currents are all warm currents.

Q.95 [Geography]

Paradeep Port is located on the delta of river

(a) Riband
(b) Ganga
(c) Mahanadi ✓
(d) Baitarani

Explanation: Paradeep (Paradip) Port in Odisha is located on the mouth/delta of the Mahanadi river where it meets the Bay of Bengal.

Q.96 [Science - Astronomy]

Which one of the following hypothesis/theory explains the origin of the universe?

(a) Nebular hypothesis
(b) Binary theory
(c) Big Bang theory ✓
(d) Planetesimal hypothesis

Explanation: The Big Bang theory explains the origin of the universe, describing how it originated from an extremely hot, dense singularity about 13.8 billion years ago. The other options relate to the origin of the solar system.

Q.97 [History - Modern India]

Which among the following struggles, based on Gandhi's philosophy of Satyagraha, involved the industrial working class?

(a) Champaran
(b) Kheda
(c) Ahmedabad ✓
(d) Bardoli

Explanation: The Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918 was Gandhi's first hunger strike in India and directly involved textile mill workers (industrial working class). Champaran and Kheda involved peasants, and Bardoli was a peasant satyagraha.

Q.98 [History - Medieval India]

Consider the following statements related to the Virashaiva tradition in Karnataka: 1. The Virashaiva movement was led by a Brahmana named Basavanna, a minister in the court of the Kalachuri ruler in the twelfth century. 2. The Virashaivas encouraged practices, approved by the Dharmashastras, like post-puberty marriages and remarriage of widows. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Explanation: Basavanna was not a Brahmana — he was from the Lingayat tradition and challenged Brahmanical orthodoxy. The Virashaivas actually opposed Dharmashastric norms and encouraged post-puberty marriages and widow remarriage in defiance of those texts, not 'approved by' them. Both statements as worded are incorrect.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.99 [History - Modern India]

Consider the following statements related to Wellesley's administration: 1. In the six years of Wellesley's administration, the army accounted for 42.5 percent of the Company's total expenditure. 2. Wellesley's administrative measures were restricted to the affairs of the Company and had nothing to do with the commercial and military affairs of the Indian ruling families. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — military expenditure was enormous under Wellesley's expansionist policy. Statement 2 is false — Wellesley deeply interfered in the affairs of Indian rulers through the Subsidiary Alliance system, imposing commercial and military control over them.

Q.100 [History - World History]

Consider the following statements concerning the Russian Revolution: 1. The Bolsheviks believed that in a society like Tsarist Russia, the party should be disciplined and should control the number of its members. 2. The Mensheviks believed that the party should be opened to all (as in Germany). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Lenin's Bolsheviks favoured a tight, disciplined vanguard party with restricted membership, while the Mensheviks (like Martov) preferred a broader, open party on the model of Western European socialist parties like the German SPD.

Q.101 [History]

Which of the following was/were among the decisions taken by the First Continental Congress held in Philadelphia in September 1774? 1. It rejected a plan for a colonial union under the British authority. 2. It drew up a statement of grievances. 3. It agreed upon a scheme to stop trade between the Colonies and England. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: The First Continental Congress (1774) rejected the Galloway Plan for colonial union under British authority, adopted the Declaration of Rights and Grievances, and agreed to the Continental Association to boycott British trade. All three statements are correct.

Q.102 [Geography]

Which one of the following land territories of Indonesia is not touched by the Equator?

(a) Sumatra
(b) Sulawesi
(c) Java ✓
(d) Kalimantan

Explanation: The Equator passes through Sumatra, Kalimantan (Borneo), and Sulawesi, but Java lies entirely south of the Equator (approximately 6°–9°S latitude).

Q.103 [Geography]

Which one of the following sedimentary rocks is organically formed?

(a) Shale
(b) Chert
(c) Halite
(d) Chalk ✓

Explanation: Chalk is an organically formed sedimentary rock composed largely of the remains of tiny marine organisms (coccolithophores). Shale is clastic, halite is chemical, and chert can be both chemical and biogenic but chalk is the classic example of an organic sedimentary rock.

Q.104 [Geography]

According to the Koppen climatic classification, the letter code Cfa denotes

(a) Tropical wet climate.
(b) Humid subtropical climate. ✓
(c) Tundra climate.
(d) Tropical wet and dry climate.

Explanation: In Koppen's classification, C = temperate/mesothermal climate, f = no dry season, a = hottest month above 22°C — together Cfa denotes Humid Subtropical climate, typical of southeastern USA, eastern China, etc.

Q.105 [Geography]

In which one of the following folds is the axial plane found to be virtually horizontal?

(a) Isoclinal
(b) Anticlinal
(c) Recumbent ✓
(d) Monoclinal

Explanation: In a recumbent fold, the axial plane is tilted so far that it becomes nearly horizontal, with both limbs approximately parallel and lying one above the other.

Q.106 [Environment]

How many Ramsar conservation sites have been enlisted from India so far?

(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 27 ✓
(d) 62

Explanation: As of the time of the 2019 NDA II exam, India had 27 Ramsar wetland sites. (The number has since increased, but the answer contemporaneous with the paper is 27.)

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.107 [History / Culture]

The Munda language group belongs to which family?

(a) Austric ✓
(b) Dravidian
(c) Sino-Tibetan
(d) Indo-European

Explanation: The Munda languages (spoken by tribal communities mainly in eastern-central India) belong to the Austroasiatic (Austric) language family, specifically the Munda branch.

Q.108 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements about the Suez Canal is not correct?

(a) The Suez Canal was constructed in 1869.
(b) It links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
(c) It has a six lock system and ships cross the different levels through these locks. ✓
(d) It has given Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean.

Explanation: The Suez Canal is a sea-level canal with no locks; ships pass through at the same water level throughout. The statement about a six-lock system is incorrect — that description applies to the Panama Canal.

Q.109 [History]

Which among the following statements is not correct about the Reign of Terror?

(a) The Jacobins dashed out the Girondists with the help of sans-culottes.
(b) The Jacobins were in league with the French clergy. ✓
(c) The arrest for anti-revolutionary activities was by law restricted to the political class.
(d) The Reign of Terror came to an end with the execution of Robespierre by guillotine in July 1794.

Explanation: The Jacobins were staunchly anti-clerical; they suppressed the Church and dechristianized France. The statement that they were in league with the French clergy is incorrect. Options a, c, and d are broadly accurate descriptions of the Terror.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.110 [History]

Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service?

(a) Satyendranath Tagore ✓
(b) Surendranath Banerjee
(c) R.C. Dutt
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose

Explanation: Satyendranath Tagore (elder brother of Rabindranath Tagore) was the first Indian to pass the Indian Civil Service examination in 1863, becoming the first Indian ICS officer.

Q.111 [History]

Which among the following was/were among the factors for England to experience the Industrial Revolution first? 1. The scientific inventions had paved the way for Industrial Revolution. 2. It had favourable social and political structures in place. 3. Navigable rivers had made inland transport easier. 4. It had seen the ascendancy of capitalist practices. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓

Explanation: All four factors contributed to England being the birthplace of the Industrial Revolution: scientific progress, a stable constitutional government and entrepreneurial social structure, extensive navigable waterways for transport, and early development of capitalist and market-oriented practices.

Q.112 [Polity]

Article 46 of the Constitution of India refers to the promotion of educational and economic interests of

(a) religious minorities.
(b) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections. ✓
(c) displaced persons from large irrigation projects.
(d) the economically deprived.

Explanation: Article 46 (Directive Principle of State Policy) directs the State to promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections, particularly Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Q.113 [History]

Who was the Education Minister in the first Cabinet of independent India?

(a) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad ✓
(d) Acharya Narendra Dev

Explanation: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad served as India's first Minister of Education from 1947 to 1958 in Jawaharlal Nehru's Cabinet, the longest-serving education minister at independence.

Q.114 [History]

Who among the following died in exile?

(a) Rani Laxmibai
(b) Bahadur Shah Zafar ✓
(c) Tantia Tope
(d) Nana Saheb

Explanation: Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last Mughal Emperor, was exiled to Rangoon (Yangon) by the British after the 1857 revolt and died there in 1862. Rani Laxmibai died in battle, Tantia Tope was captured and executed, and Nana Saheb's fate is uncertain but he likely died in Nepal.

Q.115 [Geography]

The normal lapse rate of temperature of Earth's atmosphere drops to 0°C at the

(a) upper part of ionosphere
(b) upper boundary of the tropopause ✓
(c) lower part of mesosphere
(d) upper boundary of stratopause

Explanation: The temperature lapse rate in the troposphere (normal lapse rate ~6.5°C/km) results in temperature reaching approximately 0°C (and continuing to drop to about −56°C) at the tropopause — the upper boundary of the troposphere.

Q.116 [General Knowledge]

The headquarters of National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property (NRLC) is located at

(a) New Delhi
(b) Lucknow ✓
(c) Kolkata
(d) Bhopal

Explanation: The National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property (NRLC) is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. It functions under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

Q.117 [Geography]

Loktak lake is situated in the State of

(a) Sikkim
(b) Manipur ✓
(c) Odisha
(d) Mizoram

Explanation: Loktak Lake, the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and famous for its phumdis (floating biomass islands), is located in Manipur. It is also a Ramsar wetland site.

Q.118 [Geography]

Stalactite, stalagmite and pillars are the depositional landforms of

(a) running water
(b) wind
(c) glacier
(d) underground water ✓

Explanation: Stalactites, stalagmites, and pillars (columns) are speleothems formed by the deposition of calcium carbonate from underground (groundwater) water in karst landscapes and caves.

Q.119 [Geography]

A deep valley characterized by steep step-like slope is known as

(a) U-shaped valley
(b) Blind valley
(c) Gorge
(d) Canyon ✓

Explanation: A canyon is a deep valley with steep, step-like (often layered) sides, classically formed by river erosion through horizontal rock strata, such as the Grand Canyon. A gorge is similar but typically narrower without the stepped profile.

Q.120 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a major plate?

(a) Pacific Plate ✓
(b) Cocos Plate
(c) Arabian Plate
(d) Philippine Plate

Explanation: The Pacific Plate is one of the seven major tectonic plates of the Earth. The Cocos, Arabian, and Philippine plates are minor (or intermediate) plates by standard classification.

Q.121 [Geography]

Lithosphere consists of

(a) upper and lower mantle
(b) crust and core
(c) crust and uppermost solid mantle ✓
(d) mantle and core

Explanation: The lithosphere is defined as the rigid outer layer of the Earth comprising the crust and the uppermost solid part of the mantle (down to about 100 km depth). It does not include the core.

Q.122 [Economics]

The principal component(s) of Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of economic development was/were 1. Restructuring economic dependency on metropolitan capitalism into independent economic development. 2. Transition from semi-feudal agriculture to capitalist farming. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy emphasized both breaking dependence on colonial/metropolitan capitalism through self-reliant heavy industrialization and transforming semi-feudal agriculture toward more productive farming through land reforms and cooperative/capitalist farming.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.123 [Polity]

The provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India shall not apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in 1. Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha 2. Assam and Tripura 3. Meghalaya and Mizoram Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Fifth Schedule does not apply to the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram — these states fall under the Sixth Schedule instead. Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha are covered by the Fifth Schedule.

Q.124 [History]

Consider the following statements related to Dayanand's idea of social reform: 1. Dayanand's reform envisaged a social order, where different castes performed functions suitable to their status determined by merit. 2. Dayanand's 'robust Vedic counterpart' challenged the masculine West that had enslaved the Aryavarta. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Dayananda Saraswati advocated a merit-based varna system rather than birth-based caste, and his Arya Samaj ideology promoted a strong, self-reliant Vedic identity as a challenge to Western colonial dominance over India (Aryavarta).

Q.125 [History]

Consider the following statements concerning the American War of Independence: 1. The Americans raised the slogan, 'No taxation without representation.' 2. The American merchants resorted to the boycott of British products. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are historically correct. The slogan 'No taxation without representation' was a central grievance of American colonists, and American merchants did boycott British goods as a form of economic protest leading up to and during the War of Independence.

Q.126 [Current Affairs]

The first UDAY (Utkrisht Double Decker Air-Conditioned Yatri) Express train runs between

(a) Delhi and Kalka
(b) Bengaluru and Coimbatore ✓
(c) Chennai and Visakhapatnam
(d) Chennai and Bengaluru

Explanation: The first UDAY Express was launched in February 2019 on the Bengaluru–Coimbatore route, covering the ~500 km distance in about 7.5 hours.

Q.127 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following were selected for the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019?

(a) Vijay Kumar and Yogeshwar Dutt
(b) Sakshi Malik and Jitu Rai
(c) Virat Kohli and Mirabai Chanu
(d) Bajrang Punia and Deepa Malik ✓

Explanation: The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna) for 2019 was awarded to wrestler Bajrang Punia and para-athlete Deepa Malik.

Q.128 [Current Affairs]

Betel leaf of which one of the following States has been accorded a GI tag recently?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Mizoram ✓

Explanation: The Mizoram betel leaf (locally known as 'Paan') was accorded a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, recognizing its unique qualities specific to the Mizoram region.

Q.129 [Current Affairs]

SAMARTH is a flagship skill development scheme of which one of the following Ministries?

(a) Ministry of Textiles ✓
(b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development

Explanation: SAMARTH (Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector) is a flagship skill development scheme launched by the Ministry of Textiles to provide demand-driven, placement-oriented skilling in the textile sector.

Q.130 [Current Affairs]

CORAS is a separate Commando Unit of

(a) National Security Guard
(b) Central Industrial Security Force
(c) Railway Protection Force ✓
(d) Central Reserve Police Force

Explanation: CORAS (Commando for Railway Security) is the commando unit of the Railway Protection Force (RPF), specifically trained to deal with security threats to the Indian Railways.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.131 [History]

Which one of the following statements is not true about Ijarah system?

(a) It was a system of revenue farming.
(b) It encouraged the role of middlemen.
(c) Under this system, land revenue was fixed for the peasant. ✓
(d) The ijaradar paid a fixed amount to the State treasury.

Explanation: The Ijarah system was a revenue-farming arrangement where the ijaradar (revenue farmer/middleman) paid a fixed sum to the state and then extracted as much revenue as possible from the peasants — thus the revenue was NOT fixed for the peasant; the peasant bore the burden of the ijaradar's profit motive.

Q.132 [History]

During the Swadeshi movement, a National College was started in Calcutta under the principalship of

(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh ✓
(c) Rajani Kant Sen
(d) Syed Abu Mohammad

Explanation: The National College in Calcutta was founded in 1906 during the Swadeshi movement as an alternative to the colonial education system, with Aurobindo Ghosh serving as its first principal.

Q.133 [History]

The ruins of Vijayanagara (Hampi) were brought to public light in the year 1800 by the following British surveyor and engineer:

(a) James Prinsep
(b) Colin Mackenzie ✓
(c) James Rennell
(d) Charles Metcalfe

Explanation: Colin Mackenzie, a Scottish engineer and surveyor who later became India's first Surveyor General, first surveyed and brought the ruins of Vijayanagara (Hampi) to public notice around 1800.

Q.134 [History]

Which country among the following was not a part of the Third Coalition against Napoleon?

(a) Russia
(b) Prussia
(c) Sweden
(d) France ✓

Explanation: France under Napoleon was the power that the Third Coalition (1805) was formed against — the coalition included Britain, Austria, Russia, Sweden, and Naples. Prussia did not join until later (Fourth Coalition, 1806), but among the given options France is definitively not part of the coalition against Napoleon as it was the opposing power.

Q.135 [History]

Which one of the following pairs of travellers and their nationality is not correctly matched?

(a) Ibn Battuta — Moroccan
(b) Duarte Barbosa — Portuguese
(c) Jean Baptiste Tavernier — Dutch ✓
(d) Niccolao Manucci — Venetian

Explanation: Jean Baptiste Tavernier was French, not Dutch. He was a 17th-century French jewel merchant and traveller who visited India multiple times and wrote accounts of the Mughal Empire.

Q.136 [Current Affairs]

World Humanitarian Day is celebrated on

(a) 26th June
(b) 17th July
(c) 19th August ✓
(d) 27th September

Explanation: World Humanitarian Day is observed on 19 August each year, commemorating the 2003 Baghdad bombing that killed UN humanitarian chief Sergio Vieira de Mello and 21 other aid workers.

Q.137 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following is the name given to the lander of Chandrayaan-2?

(a) Vigyan
(b) Anusandhan
(c) Pragyan
(d) Vikram ✓

Explanation: The lander of Chandrayaan-2 was named Vikram, in honour of Vikram Sarabhai, the father of the Indian space programme. Pragyan was the name of the rover carried within the Vikram lander.

Q.138 [Current Affairs]

Along with Pranab Mukherjee, how many more persons were conferred the Bharat Ratna Award in the year 2019?

(a) One
(b) Two ✓
(c) Three
(d) Four

Explanation: In 2019, the Bharat Ratna was awarded to three persons: Pranab Mukherjee, Bhupen Hazarika (posthumously), and Nanaji Deshmukh (posthumously). So two more persons besides Pranab Mukherjee received the award.

Q.139 [Current Affairs]

Aishwarya Pissay excels in which one of the following sports?

(a) Badminton
(b) Boxing
(c) Motorsports ✓
(d) Chess

Explanation: Aishwarya Pissay is an Indian motorsports athlete, specifically a rally and off-road motorcycle racer, who became the first Indian to win a FIM World Cup in motorsports in 2019.

Q.140 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following films was adjudged as the Best Feature Film in the 66th National Film Awards?

(a) Bulbul Can Sing
(b) Hellaro ✓
(c) Badhaai Ho
(d) Uri

Explanation: Hellaro, a Gujarati film directed by Abhishek Shah, won the Best Feature Film award at the 66th National Film Awards (2019), making it the first Gujarati film to win this honour.