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NDA I 2020 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2020 (Session I) Questions: 150 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

He nodded absently throughout the meeting. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word 'absently'.

(a) capably
(b) alertly ✓
(c) agitatedly
(d) dreamily

Explanation: 'Absently' means in an inattentive or absent-minded way. The antonym is 'alertly', meaning attentively or with full awareness.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.2 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

I fully believe that the cornerstone of good policy is an electorate that is educated on the national issues. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word 'educated'.

(a) found
(b) told
(c) distributed
(d) concealed ✓

Explanation: 'Educated' (informed/enlightened) is best contrasted by 'concealed' (kept in the dark/hidden from knowledge) in the context of information on national issues.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.3 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

For important medical decisions, even finding a doctor you trust is not significant. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word 'significant'.

(a) friendlier
(b) colder
(c) wilder
(d) vague ✓

Explanation: 'Significant' means clear and important. Its antonym in this context is 'vague', meaning unclear or indefinite.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.4 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

Planets move in their orbits. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word 'move'.

(a) push
(b) rotate
(c) stall ✓
(d) dreamily

Explanation: 'Move' implies motion or progression. The antonym here is 'stall', meaning to stop moving or come to a halt.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.5 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

Temperature is a measure of internal energy of an object and is frequently expressed by physicists in units of Kelvin. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word 'frequently'.

(a) found
(b) told
(c) distributed
(d) concealed ✓

Explanation: 'Frequently' means often or regularly. Among the given options the closest antonym in contextual usage would be 'concealed' — however, given the option set this question appears to have extraction noise; 'concealed' is the least synonymous with 'frequently', making it the intended antonym choice by elimination.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.6 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

People argue about why Venus is so much warmer than the Earth. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word 'warmer'.

(a) friendlier
(b) colder ✓
(c) wilder
(d) vague

Explanation: 'Warmer' means having a higher temperature. Its direct antonym is 'colder'.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.7 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

Scientists are concerned whether the oceans and land biosphere will take up as much carbon in the future as they presently do. Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word 'concerned'.

(a) worried ✓
(b) indifferent
(c) curious
(d) puzzled

Explanation: 'Concerned' means troubled or anxious. The closest synonym is 'worried'.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.8 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

The biggest debate among scientists today is about cloud feedback. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word 'debate'.

(a) contend
(b) moot
(c) wrangle
(d) agreement ✓

Explanation: 'Debate' involves disagreement or argument. Its antonym is 'agreement', meaning consensus or accord.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.9 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

The Earth's climate sensitivity is conventionally defined as the equilibrium temperature increase caused by a doubling of carbon dioxide. Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word 'sensitivity'.

(a) imperviousness
(b) willingness
(c) responsiveness ✓
(d) closeness

Explanation: 'Sensitivity' refers to the capacity to respond to stimuli or change. The closest synonym is 'responsiveness'.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.10 [Synonyms/Antonyms]

The oceans carry a huge amount of heat from the tropics to the high latitudes. Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word 'huge'.

(a) significant
(b) major
(c) tiny ✓
(d) dormant

Explanation: 'Huge' means very large. Its direct antonym is 'tiny', meaning very small.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.11 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. several years ago, (P) course on climate change at Texas A&M University (Q) Professor Andrew Dessler created an introductory (R) for freshmen and sophomores (S)

(a) PRQS
(b) QRPS ✓
(c) SQRP
(d) PQRS

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (Professor Andrew Dessler created an introductory) + R (for freshmen and sophomores) + P (several years ago,) + S (course on climate change at Texas A&M University) — giving QRPS, which reads: 'Professor Andrew Dessler created an introductory for freshmen and sophomores, several years ago, course on climate change at Texas A&M University.' The most coherent reading placing the introductory course description together yields QRPS.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.12 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. I realize that solving the climate change problem (P) than solving (Q) will be much harder (R) the ozone depletion problem (S)

(a) PRQS ✓
(b) QRPS
(c) SQRP
(d) PQRS

Explanation: The logical order is P (I realize that solving the climate change problem) + R (will be much harder) + Q (than solving) + S (the ozone depletion problem), forming a grammatically correct comparative sentence: PRQS.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.13 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. although the temperature of this layer of the (P) when directly comparing the satellite (Q) measurements of temperature (R) atmosphere should generally track the surface temperature, we must be careful (S)

(a) PRQS
(b) QRPS
(c) PQRS
(d) PSRQ ✓

Explanation: The logical order is P (although the temperature of this layer of the) + S (atmosphere should generally track the surface temperature, we must be careful) + R (measurements of temperature) + Q (when directly comparing the satellite) — giving PSRQ, which forms a coherent cautionary statement about comparing satellite temperature measurements. Note: options as printed are incomplete; PSRQ is the most logical reconstruction.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.14 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. the element heats up, (P) eventually reaching high temperatures (Q) glowing like a dark orange that radiates (R) the visible range, (S)

(a) PQSR ✓
(b) QPSR
(c) SQRP
(d) PRSQ

Explanation: The logical order is P (the element heats up,) + Q (eventually reaching high temperatures) + S (the visible range,) + R (glowing like a dark orange that radiates) — giving PQSR, which describes a heating process reaching high temperatures and glowing.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.15 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. two people argue about why Venus is so much warmer (P) to the Sun, so it absorbs more solar energy. The second argues (Q) that it's because Venus has a thick, greenhouse-gas rich atmosphere (R) than the Earth. The first argues that it's because Venus is closer (S)

(a) PRQS
(b) PSQR ✓
(c) PQRS
(d) PSRQ

Explanation: The logical order is P (two people argue about why Venus is so much warmer) + S (than the Earth. The first argues that it's because Venus is closer) + Q (to the Sun, so it absorbs more solar energy. The second argues) + R (that it's because Venus has a thick, greenhouse-gas rich atmosphere), giving PSQR.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.16 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. are now used by more than a thousand firms and are growing in popularity (P) in the United States and Europe (Q) gain sharing-plans (R) [missing part] (S)

(a) PRQS
(b) PRSQ
(c) PRSQ
(d) SPRQ ✓

Explanation: The logical order places S (gain sharing-plans) first as the subject, then P (are now used by more than a thousand firms and are growing in popularity) + R (in the United States and Europe) + Q, giving SPRQ: 'Gain sharing-plans are now used by more than a thousand firms and are growing in popularity in the United States and Europe.'

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.17 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. adversity without succumbing (P) to the clouds of doubt and jealousy (Q) between friends which is subjected to both prosperity and (R) the essay 'Of Friendship' by Francis Bacon celebrated the intimacy (S)

(a) PRQS
(b) QRPS
(c) SRPQ ✓
(d) PQRS

Explanation: The logical order is S (the essay 'Of Friendship' by Francis Bacon celebrated the intimacy) + R (between friends which is subjected to both prosperity and) + P (adversity without succumbing) + Q (to the clouds of doubt and jealousy), giving SRPQ.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.18 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. friends without which the world is (P) make friends and a person wills to want true (Q) it is miserable solitude that compels a person to (R) nothing other than a place of wilderness (S)

(a) PRQS
(b) QRPS
(c) RQPS ✓
(d) PQRS

Explanation: The logical order is R (it is miserable solitude that compels a person to) + Q (make friends and a person wills to want true) + P (friends without which the world is) + S (nothing other than a place of wilderness), giving RQPS.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.19 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. takes the longest (P) that never started (Q) the job (R) to finish (S)

(a) PRQS
(b) PQPS
(c) SQRP ✓
(d) PQRS

Explanation: The logical order is S (to finish) + Q (that never started) + R (the job) + P (takes the longest), giving SQRP: 'To finish that never started the job takes the longest' — more naturally read as 'The job that never started takes the longest to finish.' SQRP fits the idiomatic proverb structure.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.20 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a meaningful sentence. to what you can create (P) control, shift your energy (Q) instead of worrying about (R) what you cannot (S)

(a) PRQS
(b) QRPS
(c) RQPS ✓
(d) SQRP

Explanation: The logical order is R (instead of worrying about) + Q (control, shift your energy) + P (to what you can create) + S (what you cannot), giving RQPS: 'Instead of worrying about control, shift your energy to what you can create what you cannot' — the most coherent motivational sentence from the given parts.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.21 [Synonyms]

She got the divorce within no time. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'divorce')

(a) detachment
(b) meltdown
(c) annulment ✓
(d) punishment

Explanation: 'Divorce' legally means the annulment or dissolution of a marriage; 'annulment' is the closest synonym among the options.

Q.22 [Synonyms]

He was known for his gentle disposition. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'gentle')

(a) harmful
(b) amiable ✓
(c) cunning
(d) adjusting

Explanation: 'Gentle' means kind and mild in manner; 'amiable' means having a friendly, pleasant disposition, making it the best synonym.

Q.23 [Synonyms]

The harder we kick, the better the ball bounces back. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'bounces back')

(a) recoils ✓
(b) deflates
(c) inflates
(d) ascends

Explanation: 'Bounces back' means to spring or rebound; 'recoils' means to spring back, making it the closest in meaning.

Q.24 [Synonyms]

I plan and execute. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'execute')

(a) desire
(b) debate
(c) accomplish ✓
(d) discard

Explanation: 'Execute' means to carry out or put into effect; 'accomplish' means to achieve or complete something, making it the best synonym.

Q.25 [Synonyms]

He listened to me with equanimity. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'equanimity')

(a) carelessly
(b) excitedly
(c) patiently ✓
(d) half-heartedly

Explanation: 'Equanimity' means mental calmness and composure, especially in difficult situations; listening with equanimity means listening patiently and calmly.

Q.26 [Synonyms]

The whole thing was a futile exercise. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'futile')

(a) costly
(b) pointless ✓
(c) indecisive
(d) successful

Explanation: 'Futile' means incapable of producing any useful result; 'pointless' is the closest synonym.

Q.27 [Synonyms]

He was too cunning for her. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'cunning')

(a) capable
(b) fit
(c) intelligent
(d) dodgy ✓

Explanation: 'Cunning' implies craftiness and deceptive cleverness; 'dodgy' means dishonest or cunning, making it the closest match among the options.

Q.28 [Synonyms]

This decision is crucial for me. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'crucial')

(a) momentous ✓
(b) natural
(c) primitive
(d) inept

Explanation: 'Crucial' means decisive or of great importance; 'momentous' means of great importance or significance, making it the best synonym.

Q.29 [Synonyms]

The media went into a frenzy about the case. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'frenzy')

(a) silent
(b) creative
(c) berserk ✓
(d) wrong

Explanation: 'Frenzy' means a state of uncontrolled excitement or wild behaviour; 'berserk' means out of control with anger or excitement, making it the closest synonym.

Q.30 [Synonyms]

He has been yearning to go home. (Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'yearning')

(a) declining
(b) demanding
(c) begging
(d) hankering ✓

Explanation: 'Yearning' means a feeling of intense longing; 'hankering' means a strong desire or craving, making it the closest synonym.

Q.31 [Prepositions]

Simulations of the 20th century by climate models that exclude the greenhouse gases fail to simulate the increase ___ observed increase.

(a) of
(b) in ✓
(c) by
(d) to

Explanation: 'Increase in' is the correct collocation; 'in' is used to indicate what is increasing within a particular category or measure.

Q.32 [Prepositions]

In extremely poor societies, children can be put to work ___ a young age and are therefore a source of income.

(a) in
(b) on
(c) by
(d) at ✓

Explanation: The correct phrase is 'at a young age'; 'at' is the standard preposition used with ages and stages of life.

Q.33 [Prepositions]

People who are averse ___ hard work, generally do not succeed in life.

(a) to ✓
(b) about
(c) at
(d) on

Explanation: 'Averse to' is the fixed collocation; the adjective 'averse' always takes the preposition 'to'.

Q.34 [Prepositions]

I have known her ___ a long time.

(a) since
(b) for ✓
(c) at
(d) before

Explanation: 'For' is used with a duration of time (a long time); 'since' would require a specific point in time.

Q.35 [Prepositions]

I accepted the offer ___ certain conditions.

(a) on ✓
(b) in
(c) by
(d) within

Explanation: 'On certain conditions' is the correct phrase; 'on' is used to express the basis or terms under which something is done.

Q.36 [Prepositions]

She is a woman ___ humble origin.

(a) off
(b) of ✓
(c) from
(d) within

Explanation: 'Of humble origin' is the correct expression; 'of' indicates the nature or characteristic of a person's background.

Q.37 [Prepositions]

There is no cure ___ the common cold.

(a) for ✓
(b) of
(c) to
(d) on

Explanation: 'Cure for' is the standard collocation; 'for' is used to indicate the ailment that is being treated or remedied.

Q.38 [Prepositions]

I ran ___ John yesterday, and it was a pleasant surprise.

(a) by
(b) off
(c) beside
(d) into ✓

Explanation: 'Ran into' is a phrasal verb meaning to meet someone unexpectedly; it is the correct idiomatic expression here.

Q.39 [Prepositions]

My grandmother enjoyed boating ___ the lovely lake.

(a) in
(b) on ✓
(c) beside
(d) within

Explanation: 'On the lake' is correct for activities conducted on the surface of a body of water; 'on' is used for surfaces including water bodies.

Q.40 [Prepositions]

He visits the needy to relieve them ___ their sufferings and poverty.

(a) from
(b) at
(c) of ✓
(d) on

Explanation: 'Relieve someone of something' is the correct collocation; 'of' is used with 'relieve' when indicating what burden is being removed.

Q.41 [Error Spotting]

This building comprises of six houses, three parking lots and one basement. (a) This building (b) comprises of six houses, (c) three parking lots and one basement. (d) No error.

(a) This building
(b) comprises of six houses, ✓
(c) three parking lots and one basement.
(d) No error.

Explanation: The verb 'comprises' already means 'consists of', so 'of' after it is redundant and incorrect. The correct usage is 'comprises six houses' (without 'of').

Q.42 [Error Spotting]

I look forward to meet you. No error. (a) I look forward (b) to meet (c) you. (d) No error.

(a) I look forward
(b) to meet ✓
(c) you.
(d) No error.

Explanation: 'Look forward to' requires a gerund (noun/ing form), not an infinitive. The correct form is 'look forward to meeting you'.

Q.43 [Error Spotting]

I cannot cope up with this pressure. No error. (a) I cannot (b) cope up (c) with this pressure. (d) No error.

(a) I cannot
(b) cope up ✓
(c) with this pressure.
(d) No error.

Explanation: The correct phrasal verb is 'cope with', not 'cope up with'. The word 'up' is redundant and incorrect here.

Q.44 [Error Spotting]

I came to this place by walk. No error. (a) I came (b) to this place (c) by walk. (d) No error.

(a) I came
(b) to this place
(c) by walk. ✓
(d) No error.

Explanation: The correct expression is 'on foot', not 'by walk'. One can say 'by car/bus/train' but not 'by walk'; walking uses the preposition 'on foot'.

Q.45 [Error Spotting]

What is the time in your watch? No error. (a) What is (b) the time (c) in your watch? (d) No error.

(a) What is
(b) the time
(c) in your watch? ✓
(d) No error.

Explanation: The correct preposition with 'watch' is 'by' or 'on', not 'in'. The idiomatic expression is 'by your watch' (e.g., 'What is the time by your watch?').

Q.46 [Error Spotting]

The price of my dress is higher than that of yours. No error. (a) The price of my dress (b) is higher than that of (c) yours. (d) No error.

(a) The price of my dress
(b) is higher than that of ✓
(c) yours.
(d) No error.

Explanation: Since 'yours' already implies possession (your dress), saying 'that of yours' is redundant and incorrect. It should be 'higher than yours' or 'higher than that of your dress'.

Q.47 [Error Spotting]

My friend's daughter-in-law have come. No error. (a) My friend's daughter-in-law (b) have come. (c) No error.

(a) My friend's daughter-in-law
(b) have come. ✓
(c) No error.
(d) No error.

Explanation: 'Daughter-in-law' is a singular subject, so the verb should be 'has come', not 'have come'. Subject-verb agreement requires the singular form.

Q.48 [Error Spotting]

I prefer seafood than Mediterranean food. No error. (a) I prefer (b) seafood (c) than Mediterranean food. (d) No error.

(a) I prefer
(b) seafood
(c) than Mediterranean food. ✓
(d) No error.

Explanation: 'Prefer' is always followed by 'to', not 'than'. The correct construction is 'I prefer seafood to Mediterranean food'.

Q.49 [Error Spotting]

We were discussing about the issue. No error. (a) We were (b) discussing about (c) the issue. (d) No error.

(a) We were
(b) discussing about ✓
(c) the issue.
(d) No error.

Explanation: 'Discuss' is a transitive verb that takes a direct object without any preposition. The word 'about' is redundant; the correct form is 'discussing the issue'.

Q.50 [Error Spotting]

Dispose off the garbage from the shelves. No error. (a) Dispose off (b) the garbage (c) from the shelves. (d) No error.

(a) Dispose off ✓
(b) the garbage
(c) from the shelves.
(d) No error.

Explanation: The correct phrasal verb is 'dispose of', not 'dispose off'. 'Dispose of' means to get rid of something; 'dispose off' is incorrect.

Q.51 [Geography]

New Zealand is considered part of which one of the following island groups?

(a) Micronesia
(b) Melanesia
(c) Polynesia ✓
(d) Hawaii Island chain

Explanation: New Zealand is geographically and culturally part of Polynesia, located in the South Pacific Ocean within the Polynesian Triangle.

Q.52 [Government Schemes]

Which of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is/are correct? 1. PMKSY was launched during 2015-16 2. The basic aim of PMKSY is to enhance physical access of water on farm 3. One of the main objectives of PMKSY is to achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct: PMKSY was launched in 2015-16 with the slogan 'Har Khet Ko Pani', aims to enhance physical access of water on farm, and seeks convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level.

Q.53 [Polity]

According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, which of the following is/are described as a part of Parliament of India? 1. The House of the People 2. The Council of States 3. The President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Article 79 explicitly states that the Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the House of the People (Lok Sabha), so all three are correct.

Q.54 [Economics]

The Five Year Plan was first launched in

(a) China
(b) USSR ✓
(c) Bhutan
(d) India

Explanation: The Five Year Plan concept originated in the USSR under Stalin in 1928 (the first Soviet Five Year Plan), making it the first country to implement such a plan.

Q.55 [Economics]

The call for Garibi Hatao was incorporated in

(a) Fourth Five Year Plan
(b) Fifth Five Year Plan ✓
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Seventh Five Year Plan

Explanation: Indira Gandhi's slogan 'Garibi Hatao' (Remove Poverty) was the central theme of the Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-79), which focused on poverty alleviation and self-reliance.

Q.56 [Economics]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Major Objective) — List II (Five Year Plan) A. Faster and more inclusive growth — 1. First B. Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth — 2. Fifth C. Correction of distortions caused by Second World War — 3. Eleventh D. Attaining self-reliance — 4. Twelfth Code: A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2 ✓
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3

Explanation: A-3 (11th Plan: Faster and more inclusive growth), B-4 (12th Plan: Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth), C-1 (1st Plan: Correction of WWII distortions), D-2 (5th Plan: Self-reliance and Garibi Hatao).

Q.57 [Polity]

Which one of the following Directive Principles was inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976?

(a) The State shall minimise inequalities in income
(b) Equal justice and free legal aid ✓
(c) Promotion of co-operative societies
(d) Provision for early childhood care

Explanation: Article 39A (Equal justice and free legal aid) was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. The provision for early childhood care was added by the 86th Amendment.

Q.58 [Polity]

A common High Court for two or more States can be established by

(a) a law passed by the Parliament ✓
(b) an order of the Supreme Court of India
(c) an order of the President of India
(d) an amendment to the Constitution of India

Explanation: Under Article 231 of the Constitution, Parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union Territory.

Q.59 [History]

In the year 1928, a committee of Congress leaders drafted a Constitution for India. The Committee was headed by

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) T. B. Sapru
(c) Motilal Nehru ✓
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: The Nehru Report of 1928 was drafted by an all-parties committee headed by Motilal Nehru; it was the first major attempt by Indians to draft a constitutional framework for India.

Q.60 [History]

Which one of the following statements about Jaipal Singh is NOT correct?

(a) He was a member of the Constituent Assembly
(b) He founded the Adivasi Maha Sabha
(c) He was the captain of the first Indian national hockey team
(d) He campaigned for a separate state of Chhattisgarh ✓

Explanation: Jaipal Singh Munda campaigned for a separate state of Jharkhand (not Chhattisgarh) for the tribal people; he was indeed a Constituent Assembly member, founded the Adivasi Maha Sabha, and captained the 1928 Olympic gold medal-winning Indian hockey team.

Q.61 [Current Affairs / Health]

What is 'Tikki Mausi' in the context of malnutrition?

(a) A specially packaged food item
(b) A mascot ✓
(c) Name of a scheme
(d) Name given to the healthcare providers

Explanation: 'Tikki Mausi' is the mascot character used in India's campaigns against malnutrition, used to educate communities — particularly in Uttar Pradesh — about child nutrition.

Q.62 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following was the theme of the World Tourism Day, 2019?

(a) Sustainable tourism
(b) Tourism and the digital transformation ✓
(c) Tourism: responding to the challenge of climate change
(d) Tourism and jobs: a better future for all

Explanation: The theme of World Tourism Day 2019 (celebrated on 27 September) was 'Tourism and the Digital Transformation', highlighting the role of technology in reshaping the tourism sector.

Q.63 [Current Affairs / Defence]

Which one of the following countries has hosted the Army Exercise TSENTR, 2019?

(a) Russia ✓
(b) China
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Kyrgyzstan

Explanation: TSENTR-2019 was a multilateral strategic military exercise hosted by Russia in September 2019; India also participated in this exercise alongside SCO member states.

Q.64 [Geography]

Which one of the following countries is called the 'country of winds'?

(a) India
(b) China
(c) Denmark ✓
(d) Germany

Explanation: Denmark is known as the 'country of winds' due to its extensive use of wind energy and its flat landscape that makes it highly suitable for wind power generation.

Q.65 [Science & Technology]

Which one of the following is the oldest scientific department of Government of India?

(a) Department of Biotechnology
(b) Survey of India ✓
(c) India Meteorological Department
(d) DRDO

Explanation: The Survey of India, established in 1767, is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India, set up primarily for topographical surveys.

Q.66 [Current Affairs / Defence]

'Naseem-Al-Bahr' is a bilateral naval exercise between India and

(a) United Arab Emirates
(b) Iran
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Oman ✓

Explanation: 'Naseem-Al-Bahr' (meaning 'Sea Breeze' in Arabic) is a bilateral naval exercise conducted between India and Oman, reflecting the close maritime ties between the two countries.

Q.67 [Sports]

Koneru Humpy excels in which one of the following sports?

(a) Boxing
(b) Table Tennis
(c) Chess ✓
(d) Billiards

Explanation: Koneru Humpy is an Indian chess grandmaster who won the 2019 FIDE Women's World Rapid Chess Championship, making her one of India's top chess players.

Q.68 [Sports]

Which one of the following was the official mascot of Khelo India Youth Games, 2020?

(a) Vijaya
(b) Yaya
(c) Rongmon ✓
(d) Ammu

Explanation: 'Rongmon' was the official mascot of the Khelo India Youth Games 2020, held in Guwahati, Assam; the name reflects the cultural heritage of Assam.

Q.69 [Current Affairs]

In January 2020, a passenger aircraft crashed in Iran soon after taking off from Tehran's Imam Khomeini airport killing about 170 people onboard. The airplane belongs to

(a) Qatar Airways
(b) Ukraine International Airlines ✓
(c) Singapore Airlines
(d) Cathay Pacific

Explanation: Ukraine International Airlines Flight PS752 was shot down by Iranian forces on 8 January 2020 shortly after takeoff from Tehran's Imam Khomeini International Airport, killing all 176 people on board.

Q.70 [Current Affairs / Defence]

MILAN, a multilateral naval exercise, 2020 was hosted by which one of the following cities?

(a) Port Blair
(b) Kochi
(c) Visakhapatnam ✓
(d) Panaji

Explanation: MILAN 2020, the multilateral naval exercise involving navies from multiple countries, was hosted at Visakhapatnam (Vizag) in February 2020.

Q.71 [Chemistry]

Chalk and marble are different forms of

(a) Calcium hydrogen carbonate
(b) Calcium carbonate ✓
(c) Calcium acetate
(d) Sodium carbonate

Explanation: Both chalk (CaCO3) and marble (CaCO3) are different physical/crystalline forms of calcium carbonate; chalk is amorphous/microcrystalline while marble is metamorphic crystalline.

Q.72 [Chemistry]

The number of maximum electrons in N Shell is

(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 18
(d) 32 ✓

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons in the nth shell is given by 2n². For N shell (n=4), it is 2×16 = 32.

Q.73 [Chemistry]

Vinegar is also known as

(a) ethanoic acid ✓
(b) nitric acid
(c) sulphuric acid
(d) tartaric acid

Explanation: Vinegar is a dilute solution of ethanoic acid (acetic acid, CH3COOH), typically 5–8% concentration.

Q.74 [Physics]

A liquid is kept in a glass beaker. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the pressure exerted by the liquid column at the base of the beaker?

(a) The pressure depends on the area of the base of the beaker
(b) The pressure depends on the height of liquid column ✓
(c) The pressure does not depend on the density of the liquid
(d) The pressure neither depends on the area of the base of the beaker nor on the height of liquid column

Explanation: Hydrostatic pressure P = ρgh depends on the density of the liquid (ρ) and the height of the liquid column (h), not on the area of the base.

Q.75 [Physics]

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the travel of sound waves?

(a) Sound waves can travel through water
(b) Sound waves can travel through air
(c) Sound waves can travel through steel
(d) Sound waves can travel through vacuum ✓

Explanation: Sound is a mechanical wave and requires a material medium to propagate; it cannot travel through vacuum, unlike electromagnetic waves.

Q.76 [Geography]

Deendayal Port is located at

(a) Kerala
(b) Gujarat ✓
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Goa

Explanation: Deendayal Port (formerly Kandla Port) is located in Kutch district of Gujarat; it was renamed in honour of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya.

Q.77 [Environment & Ecology]

Which one of the following cities is associated with Biosafety Protocol to the Convention on Biological Diversity (2000)?

(a) Geneva
(b) Nairobi
(c) Cartagena ✓
(d) Rio de Janeiro

Explanation: The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (2000) is named after Cartagena, Colombia, where negotiations were concluded; it is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity.

Q.78 [Geography]

Krishna Raja Sagara Dam/Reservoir is developed on

(a) river Krishna
(b) river Tungabhadra
(c) river Godavari
(d) river Kavery ✓

Explanation: The Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) Dam is built across the river Kaveri (Cauvery) near Mysuru, Karnataka.

Q.79 [Geography]

Which one of the following Indian states does NOT share international border with two or more countries?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Mizoram
(d) Tripura ✓

Explanation: Tripura shares its international border only with Bangladesh (on three sides), hence it borders only one foreign country, whereas Arunachal Pradesh (China, Bhutan, Myanmar), Assam (Bhutan, Bangladesh), and Mizoram (Bangladesh, Myanmar) each border two or more countries.

Q.80 [Geography]

According to Census of India, 2011, which one among the following is the least populated state in India?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) Punjab ✓

Explanation: Among the given options, Punjab had the lowest population (approximately 2.77 crore) as per Census 2011, compared to Maharashtra (~11.2 crore), Madhya Pradesh (~7.26 crore), and Odisha (~4.19 crore).

Q.81 [Culture & Language]

The speakers of major Indian languages belong to how many language families?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four ✓
(d) Six

Explanation: Major Indian languages belong to four language families: Indo-European (Indo-Aryan), Dravidian, Austroasiatic (Austric), and Sino-Tibetan (Tibeto-Burman).

Q.82 [History]

Where did Gandhiji initially forge the techniques of Satyagraha?

(a) England
(b) South Africa ✓
(c) North Africa
(d) India

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi first developed and practiced the technique of Satyagraha (non-violent resistance) in South Africa (1906–1914) while fighting for the rights of Indians there.

Q.83 [History]

Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of Gandhiji's Dandi march?

(a) Lord Irwin ✓
(b) Lord Linlithgow
(c) Lord Reading
(d) Lord Willingdon

Explanation: Lord Irwin (Edward Wood) was the Viceroy of India during the Dandi March (Salt March) of March–April 1930.

Q.84 [History]

Which one among the following American newsmagazines was highly sceptical of Gandhiji's Dandi march initially but within a week completely changed its opinion and saluted him as a Saint and Statesman?

(a) Saturday Evening Post
(b) Readers Digest
(c) Time ✓
(d) Life

Explanation: Time magazine initially expressed scepticism about the Dandi March but quickly reversed its position, covering Gandhi extensively and eventually naming him a significant world figure, saluting him as a Saint and Statesman.

Q.85 [History]

In which of the following years were passenger trains introduced in England?

(a) 1823
(b) 1825 ✓
(c) 1848
(d) 1861

Explanation: The Stockton and Darlington Railway, the first public passenger steam railway, was inaugurated on 27 September 1825 in England by George Stephenson.

Q.86 [Physics]

The correct relation between the radius of curvature R and focal length f of a spherical mirror is

(a) R = f
(b) R = 2f ✓
(c) R = 3f
(d) R = 4f

Explanation: For a spherical mirror, the focal length f is half the radius of curvature R, i.e., f = R/2, which gives R = 2f.

Q.87 [Physics]

A lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appears to be larger than its actual size. It is because of

(a) reflection of light
(b) scattering of light
(c) refraction of light ✓
(d) polarization of light

Explanation: The lemon appears larger due to refraction of light at the water-glass-air interfaces; the glass tumbler filled with water acts like a convex lens, bending light rays and making the object appear magnified.

Q.88 [Biology]

Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called

(a) retina
(b) cornea ✓
(c) pupil
(d) iris

Explanation: Light first enters the eye through the cornea, the transparent curved membrane at the front of the eye, which also does most of the focusing of incoming light.

Q.89 [Physics]

Name the scientist who first used a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.

(a) C. V. Raman
(b) Lord Rayleigh
(c) Isaac Newton ✓
(d) S. Chandrasekhar

Explanation: Isaac Newton was the first scientist to use a glass prism to disperse sunlight into its constituent colours (spectrum) around 1666, demonstrating that white light is composed of multiple colours.

Q.90 [Physics]

The cost of energy to operate an industrial refrigerator that consumes 5 kW power working 10 hours per day for 30 days will be (Given that the charge per kWh of energy = ₹4)

(a) ₹600
(b) ₹6,000 ✓
(c) ₹1,200
(d) ₹1,500

Explanation: Energy consumed = 5 kW × 10 h/day × 30 days = 1500 kWh. Cost = 1500 × ₹4 = ₹6,000.

Q.91 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements regarding magnetic field is NOT correct?

(a) Magnetic field is a quantity that has direction and magnitude
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
(c) Magnetic field lines are open curves ✓
(d) No two magnetic field lines are found to cross each other

Explanation: Magnetic field lines are always closed curves — they form continuous loops from the north pole to the south pole outside the magnet and continue inside. Option (c) states they are open curves, which is incorrect.

Q.92 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) Buckminsterfullerene is an allotrope of carbon
(b) Diamond is a good conductor of electricity ✓
(c) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
(d) In graphite, each carbon atom is linked to three other carbon atoms

Explanation: Diamond is a very poor conductor of electricity because all four valence electrons of each carbon atom are involved in covalent bonding, leaving no free electrons for conduction. Options (a), (c), and (d) are all correct facts.

Q.93 [Chemistry]

How many covalent bonds are present in a Chloropropane molecule having molecular formula, C₃H₇Cl?

(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10 ✓

Explanation: In C₃H₇Cl: there are 2 C–C bonds, 7 C–H bonds, and 1 C–Cl bond, giving a total of 2+7+1 = 10 covalent bonds.

Q.94 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the most fundamental characteristic of an element?

(a) Melting point
(b) Atomic number ✓
(c) Colour
(d) Atomic weight

Explanation: The atomic number (number of protons) uniquely identifies an element and determines its chemical properties. Melting point, colour, and atomic weight are secondary characteristics that can vary with isotopes or physical state.

Q.95 [Physics]

Neutrons were discovered by

(a) James Chadwick ✓
(b) Ernest Rutherford
(c) J. J. Thomson
(d) John Dalton

Explanation: James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932 by bombarding beryllium with alpha particles and observing neutral radiation. This discovery earned him the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935.

Q.96 [Physics]

Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of number of

(a) electrons and protons only
(b) protons and neutrons only ✓
(c) electrons and neutrons only
(d) electrons, protons and neutrons

Explanation: Atomic mass (mass number) is the sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. Electrons have negligible mass and are not counted in the atomic mass calculation.

Q.97 [Chemistry / Biology]

Which one of the following element's isotope is used in the treatment of cancer?

(a) Uranium
(b) Cobalt ✓
(c) Sodium
(d) Iodine

Explanation: Cobalt-60 (Co-60) is a radioactive isotope widely used in radiotherapy (radiation therapy) for cancer treatment. It emits gamma rays that can destroy cancerous cells.

Q.98 [Biology]

Which one of the following cell organelles may play a role in expelling excess water and wastes in unicellular organisms?

(a) Lysosome
(b) Vacuole ✓
(c) Golgi body
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: The contractile vacuole in unicellular organisms like Amoeba and Paramecium plays a key role in osmoregulation by collecting and expelling excess water and metabolic wastes from the cell.

Q.99 [Biology / Agriculture]

Which one of the following terms describes the practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land?

(a) Crop rotation
(b) Mixed cropping ✓
(c) Intercropping
(d) Mixed farming

Explanation: Mixed cropping refers to growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land. Intercropping involves a specific spatial arrangement; mixed farming combines crop cultivation with livestock rearing; crop rotation involves growing different crops in succession.

Q.100 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements is correct about effects of antibiotics on viruses?

(a) Viruses are "non-living" entities but it can interact with antibiotics
(b) Taking antibiotics cures viral infections
(c) Viruses do not possess metabolic pathways on which antibiotics can function, whereas bacteria have such pathways ✓
(d) Viruses are resistant to all antibiotics

Explanation: Antibiotics target specific bacterial metabolic processes such as cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, and DNA replication. Viruses lack these metabolic pathways as they depend entirely on host cell machinery, making antibiotics ineffective against viral infections.

Q.101 [Geography]

The Panama Canal opened in 1914, links

(a) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(b) Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean ✓
(c) Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean
(d) Adriatic Sea and Black Sea

Explanation: The Panama Canal, opened in 1914, connects the Atlantic Ocean (via the Caribbean Sea) to the Pacific Ocean across the Isthmus of Panama, greatly shortening maritime routes between the two oceans.

Q.102 [History / International Relations]

The United Nations Charter was signed by 51 original members of the United Nations in 1945 at the

(a) Hague Conference
(b) London Conference
(c) San Francisco Conference ✓
(d) Berlin Conference

Explanation: The United Nations Charter was signed on 26 June 1945 at the United Nations Conference on International Organization held in San Francisco, California, by representatives of 50 nations (with Poland signing later as the 51st member).

Q.103 [Geography / Agriculture]

Land Revenue Records maintained in India have categorized land-use into

(a) 6 categories
(b) 9 categories ✓
(c) 15 categories
(d) 21 categories

Explanation: Land Revenue Records (Jamabandi/Khasra) in India categorize land-use into 9 categories, which include forest land, land put to non-agricultural use, barren land, permanent pastures, miscellaneous tree crops, culturable wasteland, fallow land other than current fallow, current fallow, and net sown area.

Q.104 [Geography / Agriculture]

Dry land farming in India is largely confined to areas with rainfall less than

(a) 100 cm
(b) 85 cm
(c) 80 cm
(d) 75 cm ✓

Explanation: Dry land farming in India is predominantly practised in areas receiving less than 75 cm of annual rainfall. These regions cannot support irrigated agriculture and rely entirely on rainwater for crop production.

Q.105 [Geography / Agriculture]

For an area to be excluded from the drought-prone category, what percentage of its gross cropped area should be under irrigation?

(a) 10 per cent or more
(b) 20 per cent or more
(c) 25 per cent or more
(d) 30 per cent or more ✓

Explanation: According to Indian drought classification criteria, an area is excluded from the drought-prone category if 30 per cent or more of its gross cropped area is under irrigation, as sufficient irrigation reduces vulnerability to rainfall deficiency.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.106 [Geography]

Which one of the following is NOT a current of Pacific Ocean?

(a) Oyashio current
(b) Alaska current
(c) Agulhas current ✓
(d) California current

Explanation: The Agulhas current flows along the eastern coast of Africa in the Indian Ocean and is not associated with the Pacific Ocean. Oyashio, Alaska, and California currents are all Pacific Ocean currents.

Q.107 [Geography]

The duration of monsoon in India extends for an average period of

(a) 80–140 days
(b) 100–120 days
(c) 90–130 days ✓
(d) 100–140 days

Explanation: The Indian monsoon (southwest monsoon) generally lasts from June to September, spanning approximately 90 to 130 days across different parts of the country. The onset begins in Kerala around June 1 and withdrawal is complete by September end/early October.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.108 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the climax vegetation of South east Asia?

(a) Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forest
(b) Tropical broadleaf evergreen forest ✓
(c) Tropical deciduous forest
(d) Temperate evergreen forest

Explanation: The climax vegetation of Southeast Asia, given its hot and humid tropical climate with high rainfall year-round, is the tropical broadleaf evergreen forest (tropical rainforest), which represents the most complex and stable ecological community in that region.

Q.109 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a cold local wind?

(a) Santa Ana
(b) Chinook
(c) Mistral ✓
(d) Loo

Explanation: The Mistral is a cold, dry northerly wind that blows from the Alps region towards the Mediterranean coast of France. Santa Ana and Chinook are warm/hot winds, and Loo is a hot dry summer wind of the Indo-Gangetic plains.

Q.110 [History]

What was the consequence of Permanent Settlement on rural society in Bengal?

(a) The zamindars invested capital and enterprise to improve agriculture along lines of British yeoman farmers
(b) A group of rich peasants known as jotedars succeeded in consolidating their position in the villages ✓
(c) The ryots prospered as a result of fixed revenue imposed on them
(d) The system of Collectorate introduced by the Company for exercising supervisory control on zamindars failed to take off

Explanation: The Permanent Settlement of 1793 actually weakened many zamindars who failed to pay fixed revenue and lost their estates. A consequence was that rich peasants (jotedars) who had accumulated land and capital consolidated their economic and social power in the villages, emerging as an influential rural class.

Q.111 [History]

What was Damin-i-Koh in Rajmahal area?

(a) A large area of land demarcated and declared to be the land of the Santhals ✓
(b) The land of the Paharias cultivated exclusively for paddy
(c) The British territory marked for their military camp
(d) The land earmarked for locating settled agriculturists

Explanation: Damin-i-Koh ('skirt of the hills') was a large tract of land in the Rajmahal Hills demarcated by the British in 1832 and declared as the homeland of the Santhals, who were brought in to clear forests and cultivate the area.

Q.112 [History]

Which one of the following statements about the Revolt of 1857 is correct?

(a) It was a Revolt carefully organised and planned by the Rajas, Nawabs and Taluqdars
(b) Rumours and prophecies did not play any role in its outbreak and spread
(c) The rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly appealed to all sections of the population irrespective of their caste and creed ✓
(d) The British succeeded in quickly and easily controlling the rebels

Explanation: The rebel proclamations of 1857 broadly appealed to all sections of Indian society regardless of caste or creed, seeking to unite the population against British rule. The revolt was not centrally planned, rumours played a significant role, and suppression took over a year.

Q.113 [Polity/IR]

Which one among the following was NOT a Panchsheel principle?

(a) Peaceful Co-existence
(b) Mutual respect for territorial integrity
(c) Nuclear deterrence ✓
(d) Non-interference in internal affairs

Explanation: Panchsheel (1954) comprises five principles: mutual respect for sovereignty and territorial integrity, mutual non-aggression, non-interference in internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful co-existence. Nuclear deterrence was never part of it.

Q.114 [History]

Who among the following had organised, in 1904, a secret society of revolutionaries named Abhinav Bharat?

(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(c) Har Dayal
(d) V. D. Savarkar ✓

Explanation: V. D. Savarkar founded the secret revolutionary society Abhinav Bharat (Young India Society) in 1904 at Nasik, inspired by the Italian nationalist organisation Young Italy.

Q.115 [History]

The principle that the framing of the new Constitution for independent India should be primarily (though not solely) the responsibility of Indians themselves, was for the first time conceded in the

(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow
(c) Cripps Proposals ✓
(d) Cabinet Mission

Explanation: The Cripps Proposals of 1942 were the first British offer that explicitly conceded that Indians themselves would frame their own Constitution after the war, although with certain safeguards for minorities and provinces.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.116 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a major environmental issue of investment in Canada?

(a) Acid precipitation ✓
(b) Groundwater depletion
(c) Land degradation
(d) Desertification

Explanation: Acid precipitation (acid rain) is a well-documented major environmental problem in Canada, largely caused by industrial emissions from both Canadian and US sources, damaging lakes, forests, and ecosystems.

Q.117 [Geography]

Which one of the following mountains lies in between Caspian Sea and Black Sea?

(a) Caucasus ✓
(b) Carpathians
(c) Apennine
(d) Elburz

Explanation: The Caucasus mountain range runs between the Caspian Sea (to the east) and the Black Sea (to the west), spanning parts of Russia, Georgia, Armenia, and Azerbaijan.

Q.118 [Geography]

Baglihar, Dulhasti and Salal hydro power projects have been developed on which of the following rivers?

(a) Chenab and Jhelum
(b) Chenab and Indus
(c) Ravi
(d) Chenab only ✓

Explanation: All three hydroelectric projects — Baglihar, Dulhasti, and Salal — are located on the Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir.

Q.119 [Environment]

Which of the following statements with regard to Biosphere Reserve is/are correct? 1. The idea of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1973–74 2. There are 18 designated Biosphere Reserves in India 3. All Biosphere Reserves in India have been included in world network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: UNESCO launched the Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 1971, with Biosphere Reserves formally designated from 1973–74, making statement 1 correct. India has 18 Biosphere Reserves (statement 2 correct). However, not all 18 have been included in UNESCO's World Network — only 12 had been included as of 2020 — making statement 3 incorrect.

Q.120 [Geography]

Which one of the following countries does NOT have direct access to the sea/ocean?

(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Azerbaijan
(d) Armenia ✓

Explanation: Armenia is a landlocked country with no coastline. Syria has a Mediterranean coast, Jordan has a short Red Sea (Gulf of Aqaba) coast, and Azerbaijan borders the Caspian Sea (though it is a landlocked lake, Azerbaijan is generally considered to have Caspian access).

Q.121 [Physics]

In an incandescent electric bulb, the filament of the bulb is made up of which metal?

(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Tungsten ✓
(d) Silver

Explanation: Tungsten is used for the filament of incandescent bulbs because of its very high melting point (~3422°C) and high resistivity, which allows it to glow white-hot without melting.

Q.122 [Physics]

Two equal resistors R are connected in parallel, and a battery of 12 V is connected across this combination. A current of 100 mA flows through the circuit. Find R.

(a) 120 Ω
(b) 240 Ω ✓
(c) 60 Ω
(d) 100 Ω

Explanation: Parallel combination of two equal R gives R_eq = R/2. Using Ohm's law: R/2 = V/I = 12/0.1 = 120 Ω, so R = 240 Ω.

Q.123 [Physics]

Which one of the following is NOT the unit of energy?

(a) Joule
(b) Watt-hr
(c) Newton-metre
(d) kg-metre/sec² ✓

Explanation: Joule, Watt-hour, and Newton-metre (= Joule) are all valid units of energy. kg-metre/sec² equals Newton (unit of force), not energy; the unit of energy would be kg-m²/sec².

Q.124 [Science/Environment]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) Biomass is a renewable source of energy
(b) Gobar gas is produced when cow-dung, crop residues, vegetable waste and sewage are allowed to decompose in the absence of oxygen
(c) Biogas generation reduces soil and water pollution
(d) Storage capacity of biogas is very high ✓

Explanation: Biogas (mainly methane) is difficult and expensive to store and compress; it has low energy density and poor storability compared to conventional fuels, so the claim that its storage capacity is 'very high' is incorrect.

Q.125 [Biology]

In prokaryotic organisms, nuclear region is not surrounded by a membrane. This undefined nuclear region is known as

(a) Nucleic acid
(b) Nucleoid ✓
(c) Nucleolus
(d) Nucleosome

Explanation: The undefined, membrane-less nuclear region in prokaryotes where the genetic material (DNA) is located is called the nucleoid. The nucleolus and nucleosome are eukaryotic structures.

Q.126 [Biology]

Which one of the following plant tissues has dead cells?

(a) Epidermis
(b) Parenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Sclerenchyma ✓

Explanation: Sclerenchyma is a supporting plant tissue composed of dead cells with thick, lignified cell walls. Parenchyma and collenchyma have living cells, and epidermis is generally living.

Q.127 [Biology]

Cartilage is NOT found in

(a) Larynx
(b) Nose
(c) Ear
(d) urinary bladder ✓

Explanation: Cartilage is found in the larynx, nose (nasal septum), and ear (pinna). The urinary bladder is made of smooth muscle (detrusor muscle) and transitional epithelium — it contains no cartilage.

Q.128 [Physics]

Two planets orbit the Sun in circular orbits, with their radius of orbit as R₁ = R and R₂ = 4R. Ratio of their periods (T₁ / T₂) around the Sun will be

(a) 1/16
(b) 1/8 ✓
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2

Explanation: By Kepler's third law, T² ∝ R³, so T ∝ R^(3/2). T₁/T₂ = (R₁/R₂)^(3/2) = (R/4R)^(3/2) = (1/4)^(3/2) = 1/8.

Q.129 [Physics]

A metallic wire having resistance of 20 Ω is cut into two equal parts in length. These parts are then connected in parallel. The resistance of this parallel combination is equal to

(a) 20 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω ✓
(d) 15 Ω

Explanation: Each half has resistance 10 Ω. Two 10 Ω resistors in parallel give R_eq = (10×10)/(10+10) = 100/20 = 5 Ω.

Q.130 [Physics]

Light of uniform intensity impinges perpendicularly on a totally reflecting surface. If area of the surface is halved, the radiation force on it will

(a) double
(b) half ✓
(c) four times
(d) one fourth

Explanation: Radiation pressure force F = 2IA/c for a totally reflecting surface, where I is intensity and A is area. If area is halved and intensity remains the same, the force is halved.

Q.131 [Physics / Optics]

The part of the human eye on which the image is formed is

(a) Pupil
(b) Cornea
(c) Lens
(d) Retina ✓

Explanation: The retina is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye where images are focused and converted to nerve signals sent to the brain.

Q.132 [Physics / Electromagnetism]

A proton enters a magnetic field at right angles to it. The direction of force acting on the proton will be

(a) To the right
(b) To the left
(c) Out of the page ✓
(d) Into the page

Explanation: Without a specified diagram, the standard textbook answer for a proton moving to the right in a magnetic field directed into the page uses the right-hand rule (F = qv × B), giving a force out of the page. The answer depends on relative directions; the conventional answer for this standard NDA question is out of the page.

Q.133 [Physics / Sound]

Which one of the following statements about sound is NOT correct?

(a) Sound travels at a speed slower than the speed of light
(b) Sound waves are transverse waves ✓
(c) Sound waves are longitudinal waves
(d) Sound travels faster in moist air than in dry air

Explanation: Sound waves are longitudinal (compression) waves, not transverse waves; option (b) is the incorrect statement. Options (a), (c), and (d) are all correct facts about sound.

Q.134 [Physics / Electricity]

When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit

(a) becomes zero
(b) remains constant
(c) increases substantially ✓
(d) keeps on changing randomly

Explanation: In a short circuit, resistance drops to nearly zero; by Ohm's law (I = V/R), the current increases substantially, often causing overheating or fires.

Q.135 [Biology / Reproductive System]

Which one of the following is NOT a component of human male reproductive system?

(a) Cervix ✓
(b) Urethra
(c) Seminal vesicle
(d) Vas deferens

Explanation: The cervix is part of the female reproductive system (the lower portion of the uterus); urethra, seminal vesicle, and vas deferens are all male reproductive components.

Q.136 [Biology / Biodiversity]

Which one of the following is NOT a reason of decrease in biodiversity?

(a) Large scale deforestation
(b) Exploitation of forest produce
(c) Maintaining sacred groves ✓
(d) Encroachment in forest areas

Explanation: Sacred groves are traditionally protected forest patches that conserve biodiversity; maintaining them helps preserve species, not decrease biodiversity.

Q.137 [Geography / Environment]

Which one of the following is NOT a cause of depletion in groundwater?

(a) Afforestation ✓
(b) Loss of forests
(c) Excessive pumping of groundwater
(d) Construction of large scale concrete buildings

Explanation: Afforestation (planting trees) increases water infiltration and recharges groundwater; it replenishes rather than depletes groundwater reserves.

Q.138 [Physics / Electromagnetic Spectrum]

Which one of the following types of radiations has the smallest wavelength?

(a) Microwaves
(b) Infra-red
(c) Visible light
(d) X-rays ✓

Explanation: In the electromagnetic spectrum, X-rays have wavelengths in the range of 0.01–10 nm, which is far smaller than microwaves (~mm), infrared (~μm), or visible light (~400–700 nm).

Q.139 [Physics / Electricity]

The instrument used for detecting the presence of electric current in a circuit is

(a) Refractometer
(b) Galvanometer ✓
(c) Viscometer
(d) Diffractometer

Explanation: A galvanometer is a sensitive instrument used to detect and measure small electric currents in a circuit.

Q.140 [Chemistry / Biogas]

Which one of the following is the largest composition in biogas?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane ✓
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Hydrogen sulphide

Explanation: Biogas consists primarily of methane (approximately 55–70%) along with carbon dioxide and trace gases; methane is the dominant component and gives biogas its combustible property.

Q.141 [Physics / Optics]

The Sun appears reddish during sunrise and sunset. The phenomenon in optics which is responsible for this appearance of the Sun is

(a) Reflection
(b) Total internal reflection
(c) Scattering ✓
(d) Interference

Explanation: At sunrise and sunset sunlight travels through a thicker atmospheric layer; shorter blue wavelengths are scattered away more (Rayleigh scattering), leaving predominantly the longer red and orange wavelengths to reach the observer.

Q.142 [Physics / Optics]

A lens has a power of +2.0 Dioptre. Which one of the following statements about the lens is true?

(a) The lens is concave and has a focal length of 0.5 metre
(b) The lens is convex and has a focal length of 2.0 metre
(c) The lens is convex and has a focal length of 0.5 metre ✓
(d) The lens is concave and has a focal length of 2.0 metre

Explanation: Power P = 1/f, so f = 1/2.0 = 0.5 m. A positive power indicates a converging (convex) lens, so the lens is convex with focal length 0.5 metre.

Q.143 [Chemistry / General]

At nearly 70°C, sodium bicarbonate shows the property of gradually decomposing, which makes it usable in bakery products. The product of decomposition responsible for this use is

(a) Carbon dioxide ✓
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Water vapour
(d) Oxygen

Explanation: Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) decomposes on heating to release CO₂ gas: 2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂. The released carbon dioxide causes dough to rise, making it useful as a leavening agent in baking.

Q.144 [Chemistry / Compounds]

Number of molecules of water of crystallization in copper sulphate, sodium carbonate and Gypsum are

(a) 5, 10 and 2 respectively ✓
(b) 10, 2 and 5 respectively
(c) 5, 2 and 10 respectively
(d) 2, 5 and 10 respectively

Explanation: Copper sulphate (CuSO₄·5H₂O) has 5, sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃·10H₂O) has 10, and gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O) has 2 water molecules of crystallization.

Q.145 [Chemistry / Indicators]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of change in colours when a turmeric stain on white clothes is scrubbed by soap and then washed with water?

(a) Yellow → pink → blue
(b) Yellow → reddish brown → yellow ✓
(c) Yellow → reddish brown → blue
(d) Yellow → blue → pink

Explanation: Turmeric is yellow in neutral/acidic conditions; soap is alkaline and turns turmeric reddish-brown. When washed with water the alkalinity is diluted and the stain reverts to yellow, giving the sequence yellow → reddish brown → yellow.

Q.146 [Chemistry / Compounds]

Which one of the following statements regarding Bleaching powder and D.D.T. is correct?

(a) Both are inorganic compounds
(b) Both are organic
(c) Both contain chlorine ✓
(d) Both contain calcium

Explanation: Bleaching powder (Ca(OCl)Cl) contains chlorine, and DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) also contains chlorine; both compounds share chlorine as a common element.

Q.147 [Chemistry / General]

Which one of the following is the best example of desiccant?

(a) Silica gel ✓
(b) Polystyrene
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Sodium carbonate

Explanation: Silica gel (SiO₂·nH₂O) is a highly porous desiccant widely used to absorb moisture and maintain dry conditions; it is the classic example of a desiccant.

Q.148 [Chemistry / History]

Which one of the following was the first mineral acid discovered?

(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Nitric acid ✓
(d) Phosphoric acid

Explanation: Nitric acid is generally considered the first mineral acid to be discovered, reportedly by the Arab alchemist Jabir ibn Hayyan (Geber) around the 8th century AD.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.149 [Physics / Optics]

The refractive index of fused quartz is 1.46 and that of sapphire is 1.77. If $v_q$ is the speed of light in quartz and $v_s$ is the speed of light in sapphire, then which one of the following relations is correct?

(a) $v_q > v_s$ ✓
(b) $v_s > v_q$
(c) $v_s = v_q$
(d) $v_s = \frac{1}{v_q}$

Explanation: Refractive index n = c/v, so a higher refractive index means a lower speed of light. Since sapphire (n = 1.77) has a higher refractive index than quartz (n = 1.46), light travels slower in sapphire, giving v_q > v_s.

Q.150 [Physics / Optics]

In case of a concave mirror, if an object is kept between principal focus F and pole P of the mirror, then which one of the following statements about the image is NOT correct?

(a) The image will be virtual
(b) The image will be enlarged or magnified
(c) The image will be formed at infinity ✓
(d) The image will be erect

Explanation: When an object is placed between F and P of a concave mirror, the image formed is virtual, erect, and magnified (behind the mirror); the image is NOT formed at infinity — it is formed behind the mirror at a distance greater than the object distance.