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NDA II 2021 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2021 (Session II) Questions: 150 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Error Spotting]

Nursery classes (a) for the children (b) starts on April every year. (c) No error (d)

(a) Nursery classes
(b) for the children
(c) starts on April every year ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The subject 'Nursery classes' is plural, so the verb should be 'start' not 'starts'. Also the correct preposition is 'in April' not 'on April'. Part (c) contains both errors.

Q.2 [Error Spotting]

The pollution level is very (a) high in our city, and (b) becomes a health hazard. (c) No error (d)

(a) The pollution level is very
(b) high in our city, and
(c) becomes a health hazard ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The pronoun reference is missing — 'becomes' has no clear subject after 'and'. It should read 'and it becomes a health hazard', so part (c) contains the error.

Q.3 [Error Spotting]

India is a country of linguistic (a) and cultural diversity with (b) multiple ethnic and social groups. (c) No error (d)

(a) India is a country of linguistic
(b) and cultural diversity with
(c) multiple ethnic and social groups
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct; there is no error.

Q.4 [Error Spotting]

Why does the lapse rate (a) effect the tendency (b) of air to rise? (c) No error (d)

(a) Why does the lapse rate
(b) effect the tendency ✓
(c) of air to rise
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Effect' is a noun here but the intended word is the verb 'affect'. The correct sentence uses 'affect the tendency', so part (b) contains the error.

Q.5 [Error Spotting]

The thorax is the upper part (a) of your body from the neck down (b) to the bottom of the ribs and diaphragm. (c) No error (d)

(a) The thorax is the upper part
(b) of your body from the neck down
(c) to the bottom of the ribs and diaphragm
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct with no error.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.6 [Error Spotting]

The practical uses of astrology (a) have seldom been seriously (b) studied outside India. (c) No error (d)

(a) The practical uses of astrology
(b) have seldom been seriously
(c) studied outside India
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct; 'seldom' is correctly placed and the structure is sound.

Q.7 [Error Spotting]

She collected (a) some armful of medicines and (b) poured them down a drain. (c) No error (d)

(a) She collected
(b) some armful of medicines and ✓
(c) poured them down a drain
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Some armful' is incorrect; it should be 'an armful' (singular) or 'armfuls' (plural with some). 'Some armful' is ungrammatical, so part (b) contains the error.

Q.8 [Error Spotting]

In many countries, the United Nations (a) or other internationally organised (b) peacekeeping forces are trying to keep the peace. (c) No error (d)

(a) In many countries, the United Nations
(b) or other internationally organised ✓
(c) peacekeeping forces are trying to keep the peace
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct adverb form is 'internationally organized' but the adjective should be 'internationally-organized' or simply 'international' peacekeeping forces. More precisely, 'internationally organised' should be 'internationally-organized'; however the more standard error here is that the verb should be 'is' not 'are' when 'the United Nations' is the subject. Actually the sentence uses 'or' linking UN with other forces making 'are' correct. Part (b) should read 'or other international' rather than 'internationally organised' — 'internationally organised' is an adjective modifying forces but the phrasing is awkward. No clear grammatical error exists; answer is (d).

Q.9 [Error Spotting]

Early cities rely on food and water (a) from the surrounding countryside, (b) but today cities often depend on distant sources. (c) No error (d)

(a) Early cities rely on food and water ✓
(b) from the surrounding countryside,
(c) but today cities often depend on distant sources
(d) No error

Explanation: The sentence is describing a historical fact about early cities, so the verb should be in past tense: 'relied' not 'rely'. Part (a) contains the tense error.

Q.10 [Error Spotting]

Climate change, whether it is (a) natural or human-induced, (b) is stressful for the people. (c) No error (d)

(a) Climate change, whether it is
(b) natural or human-induced,
(c) is stressful for the people ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The use of 'the people' is incorrect here; it should simply be 'people' (without the definite article 'the') since it refers to people in general. Part (c) contains the error.

Q.11 [Idioms and Phrases]

Once-over

(a) To do something quickly ✓
(b) To do something elaborately
(c) To do something perforce
(d) To do something for others

Explanation: 'A once-over' means a quick examination or doing something quickly and superficially, e.g., 'give it a once-over'.

Q.12 [Idioms and Phrases]

A bag of bones

(a) An extremely fat person
(b) An extremely thin person ✓
(c) A wealthy person
(d) A healthy person

Explanation: 'A bag of bones' is an idiom describing someone who is extremely thin or emaciated.

Q.13 [Idioms and Phrases]

Muddy the waters

(a) To spread dirt around
(b) To make a situation easy
(c) To make one's life happy
(d) To make the situation complicated ✓

Explanation: 'Muddy the waters' means to make a situation more confused or complicated than it needs to be.

Q.14 [Idioms and Phrases]

To level with

(a) To be honest ✓
(b) To be on a plain
(c) To cheat someone
(d) To take revenge

Explanation: 'To level with someone' means to be frank and honest with them, to tell them the truth directly.

Q.15 [Idioms and Phrases]

Show your hand

(a) To tell people about the past
(b) To tell people about the future
(c) To tell people about them
(d) To tell people about your plans ✓

Explanation: 'Show your hand' (from card games) means to reveal your intentions or plans to others.

Q.16 [Idioms and Phrases]

To pull up

(a) To lift heavy weights
(b) To check oneself ✓
(c) To shorten the distance
(d) Too short of destination

Explanation: 'To pull up' means to stop or check oneself, or to reprimand someone; 'to check oneself' is the closest meaning here.

Q.17 [Idioms and Phrases]

Be out of action

(a) To get punishment
(b) To get reward
(c) To become dysfunctional ✓
(d) To become superactive

Explanation: 'Out of action' means not working or not functioning; it describes something that is dysfunctional or unable to operate.

Q.18 [Idioms and Phrases]

Learning from the school of hard knocks

(a) Learning things from experience
(b) Learning things from others
(c) Learning things from environment
(d) Learning things through difficult experiences ✓

Explanation: 'The school of hard knocks' refers to the education gained from difficult life experiences and hardships, making option (d) the most precise answer.

Q.19 [Idioms and Phrases]

Raise some hackles

(a) To annoy ✓
(b) To make someone happy
(c) To do a great task
(d) To sit idle

Explanation: 'Raise hackles' (hackles are neck feathers that rise when a dog is angry) means to irritate or annoy someone.

Q.20 [Idioms and Phrases]

A man of letters

(a) An excellent artist
(b) A scholar in literature ✓
(c) An outstanding sportsman
(d) A known novelist

Explanation: 'A man of letters' refers to a person who is a scholar or is well-versed in literature, writing, and learning.

Q.21 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: symbolic of peace, and prosperity Q: the Gupta Empire in India is R: represented through numismatic archaeological S: and literary evidences of multiple kinds

(a) QPRS ✓
(b) QSRP
(c) PSQR
(d) RSQP

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (the Gupta Empire in India is) + P (symbolic of peace and prosperity) + R (represented through numismatic archaeological) + S (and literary evidences of multiple kinds), giving QPRS.

Q.22 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: the transportation system so that it Q: and not just the affluent section of society R: provides mobility to everyone S: there are many ways to restructure

(a) PQRS
(b) RQPS
(c) SPRQ ✓
(d) QRPS

Explanation: The logical order is: S (there are many ways to restructure) + P (the transportation system so that it) + R (provides mobility to everyone) + Q (and not just the affluent section of society), giving SPRQ.

Q.23 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: and accurately displays spatial Q: relationships between landforms and water bodies R: the globe shows Earth's spherical shape S: and comparative distance between locations

(a) PQRS
(b) RPQS ✓
(c) SPQR
(d) QRPS

Explanation: The logical order is: R (the globe shows Earth's spherical shape) + P (and accurately displays spatial) + Q (relationships between landforms and water bodies) + S (and comparative distance between locations), giving RPQS.

Q.24 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: the function of the capillaries Q: and other material to all the cells in R: is to take nutrients, oxygen S: the body and to take away their waste material

(a) PRQS ✓
(b) RPQS
(c) SPQR
(d) QRPS

Explanation: The logical order is: P (the function of the capillaries) + R (is to take nutrients, oxygen) + Q (and other material to all the cells in) + S (the body and to take away their waste material), giving PRQS.

Q.25 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: like mine Q: even to someone with R: a tin ear S: her singing sounded pretty melodious

(a) PRQS
(b) RPQS
(c) SPQR
(d) QRPS ✓

Explanation: The logical order is: S (her singing sounded pretty melodious) + Q (even to someone with) + R (a tin ear) + P (like mine), giving SQRP — closest valid option is QRPS which doesn't fit perfectly; re-examining: Q (even to someone with) + R (a tin ear) + P (like mine) + S (her singing sounded pretty melodious) gives QRPS, meaning even to someone with a tin ear like mine her singing sounded melodious.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.26 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: the sorry state of affairs in the modern factories Q: the Government of India R: under the British was pro-capitalist S: though it took some half-hearted steps to mitigate

(a) PRQS
(b) QRSP ✓
(c) SPQR
(d) QPSR

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (the Government of India) + R (under the British was pro-capitalist) + S (though it took some half-hearted steps to mitigate) + P (the sorry state of affairs in the modern factories), giving QRSP.

Q.27 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: of extreme poverty among its people Q: economic policies was the prevalence R: a major characteristic of British rule in India S: and the net result of British

(a) PRQS
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP ✓
(d) QPSR

Explanation: The logical order is: R (a major characteristic of British rule in India) + S (and the net result of British) + Q (economic policies was the prevalence) + P (of extreme poverty among its people), giving RSQP.

Q.28 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: you can't judge Q: very intelligent, but R: a book by its cover S: he doesn't look

(a) SQPR ✓
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP
(d) QPSR

Explanation: The logical order is: S (he doesn't look) + Q (very intelligent, but) + P (you can't judge) + R (a book by its cover), giving SQPR — 'he doesn't look very intelligent, but you can't judge a book by its cover'.

Q.29 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: membership and partisanship as well as Q: can be found in the decline in party R: evidence of a crisis in party politics S: in the rise of antiparty groups and movements

(a) RQPS ✓
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP
(d) QPSR

Explanation: The logical order is: R (evidence of a crisis in party politics) + Q (can be found in the decline in party) + P (membership and partisanship as well as) + S (in the rise of antiparty groups and movements), giving RQPS.

Q.30 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: government, market and voluntary organisations Q: mixture of contributions from R: the provision of public goods S: and services can be regarded as a complex

(a) RQPS
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP ✓
(d) QPSR

Explanation: The logical order is: R (the provision of public goods) + S (and services can be regarded as a complex) + Q (mixture of contributions from) + P (government, market and voluntary organisations), giving RSQP.

Q.31 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

He is essentially a lowbrow person. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'lowbrow'.

(a) coarse ✓
(b) proud
(c) passionate
(d) pathetic

Explanation: 'Lowbrow' means lacking in cultural or intellectual refinement, i.e., coarse or unsophisticated. 'Coarse' is the closest synonym among the options.

Q.32 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

His nostalgia is deep. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'nostalgia'.

(a) excitement
(b) longing ✓
(c) happiness
(d) ability

Explanation: 'Nostalgia' means a sentimental longing or wistful affection for the past; 'longing' is its closest synonym.

Q.33 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

His truancy is detrimental. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'truancy'.

(a) loyalty
(b) integrity
(c) honesty
(d) absenteeism ✓

Explanation: 'Truancy' means the practice of staying away from school or work without good reason; 'absenteeism' is the correct synonym.

Q.34 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

He is a maleficent person. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'maleficent'.

(a) generous
(b) cunning
(c) criminal ✓
(d) friendly

Explanation: 'Maleficent' means causing harm or destruction, especially by supernatural means; among the options, 'criminal' is closest in conveying harmful/evil intent.

Q.35 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

His solemnity is celebrated. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'solemnity'.

(a) greed
(b) desire
(c) trust
(d) dignity ✓

Explanation: 'Solemnity' means the state or quality of being serious and dignified; 'dignity' is the closest synonym among the choices.

Q.36 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

His bounty is limitless. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'bounty'.

(a) benevolence ✓
(b) gallantry
(c) nepotism
(d) chivalry

Explanation: 'Bounty' means generosity; 'benevolence' (goodwill and generosity) is the correct synonym.

Q.37 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

The Holocaust was experienced by millions. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'Holocaust'.

(a) celebration
(b) destruction ✓
(c) construction
(d) beautiful

Explanation: 'Holocaust' refers to massive destruction, especially by fire or genocide; 'destruction' is the correct synonym.

Q.38 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

His aversion is known to all. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'aversion'.

(a) hospitality
(b) hostility ✓
(c) humility
(d) humbleness

Explanation: 'Aversion' means a strong dislike or hostility; 'hostility' is the closest synonym among the given options.

Q.39 [Vocabulary (Synonyms)]

To be able to decipher something is wonderful. Select the word closest in meaning to the underlined word 'decipher'.

(a) decode ✓
(b) encode
(c) simulate
(d) animate

Explanation: 'Decipher' means to convert from coded form into normal language; 'decode' is the exact synonym.

Q.40 [Vocabulary (Antonyms)]

It is the opportune time to think about investment in the real estate sector. Select the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'opportune'.

(a) honorary
(b) appropriate
(c) difficult
(d) unsuitable ✓

Explanation: 'Opportune' means well-chosen or particularly favorable; its antonym is 'unsuitable' (i.e., not appropriate or favorable), which is the best opposite among the options.

Q.41 [Synonyms]

His opinion is lopsided.

(a) partial ✓
(b) crooked
(c) unequal
(d) balanced

Explanation: 'Lopsided' means leaning to one side, hence biased or partial. 'Partial' best captures the sense of a one-sided, biased opinion.

Q.42 [Synonyms]

His work is praiseworthy.

(a) admirable
(b) condemnable
(c) commendable ✓
(d) creditable

Explanation: 'Praiseworthy' means deserving praise, which is most directly synonymous with 'commendable'. Both options (a) admirable and (d) creditable are close, but 'commendable' is the nearest synonym.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.43 [Synonyms]

His deeds had retrograde results.

(a) progressive
(b) negative
(c) retreating
(d) reverse ✓

Explanation: 'Retrograde' means moving backward or reverting to an earlier, worse state. 'Reverse' best captures this meaning of going backward.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.44 [Synonyms]

He always offers palatable solutions.

(a) acceptable
(b) agreeable ✓
(c) unacceptable
(d) pleasant

Explanation: 'Palatable' means pleasant or acceptable to the mind; 'agreeable' is the closest synonym, meaning pleasing or acceptable.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.45 [Synonyms]

His views on the subject are microscopic.

(a) stable
(b) minute ✓
(c) precise
(d) fine

Explanation: 'Microscopic' literally means extremely small or minute; 'minute' (meaning extremely small or detailed) is the best synonym here.

Q.46 [Synonyms]

He is always obdurate in his behaviour towards other people.

(a) flexible
(b) callous ✓
(c) insensible
(d) obnoxious

Explanation: 'Obdurate' means stubbornly refusing to change one's opinion, and also implies being hardened against feeling; 'callous' (emotionally hardened, unfeeling) is the closest synonym among the options.

Q.47 [Synonyms]

Mohan always had profound respect for Sohan.

(a) deep ✓
(b) extreme
(c) sincere
(d) superficial

Explanation: 'Profound' means very deep or intense; 'deep' is the most direct and standard synonym.

Q.48 [Synonyms]

We were living in turbulent times.

(a) destructive
(b) unstable
(c) calm
(d) stormy ✓

Explanation: 'Turbulent' means characterized by conflict, disorder, or confusion; 'stormy' is the closest and most precise synonym conveying unrest and turmoil.

Q.49 [Synonyms]

Amit is a dogmatic person.

(a) assertive
(b) amenable
(c) bold
(d) rigid ✓

Explanation: 'Dogmatic' means inclined to lay down principles as undeniably true, inflexible in opinion; 'rigid' best captures this unyielding, inflexible nature.

Q.50 [Synonyms]

Sachin is very fickle in his behaviour.

(a) stable
(b) capricious ✓
(c) mercurial
(d) vacillating

Explanation: 'Fickle' means changing frequently, especially regarding one's loyalties or affections; 'capricious' (given to sudden changes of mood or behaviour) is the most direct synonym, though 'mercurial' and 'vacillating' are also close.

Q.51 [Geography]

Which one from among the following planets is largest in size?

(a) Earth ✓
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury

Explanation: Among the four options — Earth, Venus, Mars, and Mercury — Earth is the largest. Earth has a diameter of about 12,742 km, Venus ~12,104 km, Mars ~6,779 km, and Mercury ~4,879 km.

Q.52 [Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Place) — List II (Feature) A. Mumbai — 1. Queen of the Arabian Sea B. Visakhapatnam — 2. Biggest port of India C. Chennai — 3. Land-locked harbour D. Kochi — 4. Oldest port on the Eastern Coast

(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 ✓
(c) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Explanation: Mumbai is India's biggest port (2); Visakhapatnam is known for its land-locked harbour (3); Chennai is the oldest port on the Eastern Coast (4); Kochi is called the Queen of the Arabian Sea (1).

Q.53 [Geography]

Which one of the following is a crater lake in India?

(a) Lonar Lake ✓
(b) Sambhar Lake
(c) Chilika Lake
(d) Vembanad Lake

Explanation: Lonar Lake in Maharashtra is a saline soda lake formed in a meteorite impact crater, making it the only crater lake among the options.

Q.54 [Geography]

Fine-grained bed of ephemeral lake in a desert is also known as

(a) Playa ✓
(b) Oasis
(c) Drumlin
(d) Natural levee

Explanation: A playa is the flat-floored, dry bed of an ephemeral lake in a desert basin; it is typically composed of fine-grained sediment left after the water evaporates.

Q.55 [Geography]

Which one of the following factors does not affect the distribution of groundwater?

(a) Amount of precipitation
(b) Rate of evaporation
(c) Ability of the ground surface to allow water to infiltrate into the groundwater system
(d) Distance from the sea ✓

Explanation: Distribution of groundwater is primarily controlled by precipitation, evaporation, and the permeability/infiltration capacity of surface materials. Distance from the sea does not directly govern groundwater distribution.

Q.56 [Polity]

The Constitution (35th Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to which one of the following States?

(a) Mizoram
(b) Sikkim ✓
(c) Nagaland
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: The 35th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1974 changed Sikkim's status from a protectorate to an associate state of India, paving the way for its full merger in 1975 via the 36th Amendment.

Q.57 [Polity]

Which one of the following best describes the electoral system of India?

(a) First-Past-the-Post System ✓
(b) Proportional representation
(c) Mixed System
(d) General Ticket

Explanation: India uses the First-Past-the-Post (plurality) system for Lok Sabha and state assembly elections, where the candidate with the most votes in a constituency wins.

Q.58 [Polity]

Which one of the following is a non-justiciable right?

(a) Right to adequate livelihood ✓
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right of accused
(d) Right to life and personal liberty

Explanation: The right to adequate livelihood is a Directive Principle of State Policy (Article 39), which is non-justiciable — courts cannot enforce it directly. The other three are Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable.

Q.59 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a writ?

(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Severability ✓

Explanation: The five writs under Indian constitutional law are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto. Severability is a doctrine of constitutional interpretation, not a writ.

Q.60 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a part of Fundamental Rights?

(a) Right to education
(b) Right to establish educational institutions by minorities
(c) Right to be conferred with titles ✓
(d) Right against untouchability

Explanation: Article 18 abolishes titles — it prohibits the State from conferring titles. There is no Fundamental Right 'to be conferred with titles'; in fact the Constitution does the opposite. Rights to education (Article 21A), minority educational institutions (Article 30), and against untouchability (Article 17) are all Fundamental Rights.

Q.61 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a function of the Constitution of India?

(a) To ensure participation of good people in politics ✓
(b) To guarantee a set of rights to citizens
(c) To define the power of the different organs of government
(d) To create conditions for a just society

Explanation: A Constitution defines powers of organs of government, guarantees rights, and lays down principles for a just society. Ensuring 'participation of good people in politics' is not a constitutional function — the Constitution cannot determine the moral character of political participants.

Q.62 [Biology/Environment]

Which one of the following statements about biodiversity is not correct?

(a) The term 'biodiversity' was coined by Walter G. Rosen in 1986.
(b) The term 'biodiversity hotspots' was coined by Norman Myers in 1988.
(c) The regions having richest biodiversity are called 'biodiversity hotspots'.
(d) More than 100 hotspots of biodiversity are identified in the world. ✓

Explanation: Only 36 biodiversity hotspots have been identified worldwide (as of the most recent assessments), not more than 100. The other three statements are correct.

Q.63 [Geography]

The Earth's atmosphere is mainly heated by which one of the following?

(a) Short wave solar radiation
(b) Reflected solar radiation
(c) Long wave terrestrial radiation ✓
(d) Scattered solar radiation

Explanation: The atmosphere is largely transparent to incoming short-wave solar radiation but absorbs long-wave terrestrial (infrared) radiation re-emitted by the Earth's surface, which is the primary mechanism by which the atmosphere is heated.

Q.64 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of layers as we move from the Earth's surface upwards?

(a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere
(b) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere ✓
(c) Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere

Explanation: The correct order from Earth's surface upward is: Troposphere (0–12 km), Stratosphere (12–50 km), Mesosphere (50–80 km), Thermosphere (80–700 km).

Q.65 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a soil forming factor?

(a) Parent material
(b) Topography
(c) Climate
(d) Human habitation ✓

Explanation: The classical soil-forming factors (Jenny's factors) are parent material, topography, climate, organisms, and time. Human habitation is not one of the natural pedogenic factors.

Q.66 [Geography]

Which one of the following best describes the Lithosphere?

(a) Upper and lower mantle
(b) Crust and core
(c) Crust and upper mantle ✓
(d) Lower mantle and core

Explanation: The lithosphere comprises the Earth's crust and the uppermost solid part of the mantle, extending to about 100 km depth. It is the rigid outer shell of the Earth.

Q.67 [Geography]

Which one of the following countries has the maximum time difference from Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)?

(a) India
(b) Nepal ✓
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bhutan

Explanation: Nepal has a time offset of UTC+5:45, which is the largest among the four options. India is UTC+5:30, Sri Lanka is UTC+5:30, and Bhutan is UTC+6:00. However, Bhutan at UTC+6:00 is actually a larger absolute difference than Nepal's UTC+5:45. Among the given choices, Bhutan (+6:00) has the maximum difference, but the standard textbook answer for South Asian countries with an unusual offset is Nepal. Re-evaluating: Bhutan (+6h) > Nepal (+5h 45m) > India/Sri Lanka (+5h 30m). So the correct answer is d (Bhutan).

Q.68 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India?

(a) It provides a set of basic rules.
(b) It specifies the sole power of the Government.
(c) It is the supreme law of the land.
(d) It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary. ✓

Explanation: The Indian Constitution does not confer absolute supremacy on the judiciary; it establishes a balance of power with parliamentary sovereignty in many matters. The Constitution is supreme, not the judiciary per se. Options a, b, and c reflect actual constitutional features.

Q.69 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is not correct?

(a) He has the right of audience only in the Supreme Court of India. ✓
(b) He shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.
(c) He shall be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
(d) He shall give advice to the Government of India on all legal matters.

Explanation: Under Article 76, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts throughout the territory of India, not only the Supreme Court. Statement (a) is therefore incorrect.

Q.70 [Polity]

Who among the following described the Directive Principles of State Policy as the novel feature of the Constitution of India?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) S.N. Mukherjee
(d) B.R. Ambedkar ✓

Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles of State Policy as a 'novel feature' of the Indian Constitution in the Constituent Assembly debates, distinguishing them from the justiciable Fundamental Rights.

Q.71 [History]

Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1861 is/are correct? 1. It enlarged the Governor General's Council for the purpose of making laws. 2. The Governor General was not authorised to increase the number of members. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Indian Councils Act of 1861 did enlarge the Viceroy's/Governor-General's Executive Council for legislative purposes by adding 6–12 additional members. However, Statement 2 is incorrect because the Governor-General was indeed authorised to increase the number of members (up to 12).

Q.72 [History]

Which one of the following statements about Tattvabodhini Patrika is correct?

(a) It promoted a systematic study of India's past in the Bengali language. ✓
(b) It promoted a systematic study of India's past through Sanskrit sources.
(c) It promoted a systematic study of India's past through Persian sources.
(d) It promoted a systematic study of India's past through Western sources.

Explanation: Tattvabodhini Patrika, founded in 1843 by Debendranath Tagore and associated with the Brahmo movement, promoted the systematic study of India's past and Hindu scriptures in the Bengali language, making Indian knowledge accessible to a Bengali-reading audience.

Q.73 [History]

In which one of the following years did the British demarcate a large area of land as Damin-i-koh for settling the Santhals?

(a) 1810
(b) 1793
(c) 1885
(d) 1832 ✓

Explanation: In 1832, the British demarcated a large tract of land in the Rajmahal Hills region and called it Damin-i-koh, intending to settle the Santhals there as a buffer community and to bring the forest land under cultivation.

Q.74 [Geography]

The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which one of the following States?

(a) Manipur ✓
(b) West Bengal
(c) Gujarat
(d) Jharkhand

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) passes through Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Manipur lies further north-east and the Tropic of Cancer does not pass through it.

Q.75 [Geography]

Which of the following pairs of crop and product is/are correctly matched? 1. Food crop – Ragi 2. Cash crop – Jute 3. Plantation crop – Coconut Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 3 only

Explanation: All three pairs are correctly matched: Ragi is indeed a food (cereal) crop; Jute is a cash crop grown primarily for commercial fibre; Coconut is a plantation crop cultivated in large estates. Hence all three are correct.

Q.76 [Geography]

Which one of the following coalfields is not located in Jharkhand?

(a) Jharia
(b) Ramgarh
(c) Deogarh
(d) Umaria ✓

Explanation: Jharia, Ramgarh, and Deogarh coalfields are located in Jharkhand. Umaria is a coalfield located in Madhya Pradesh, not in Jharkhand.

Q.77 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the longest parallel of latitude?

(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Equator ✓

Explanation: The Equator (0° latitude) is the largest circle of latitude on Earth, with a circumference of approximately 40,075 km. All other parallels of latitude are smaller circles as they move away from the equator towards the poles.

Q.78 [Geography]

The periodic rise and fall of ocean water in response to gravitational forces is called

(a) Current
(b) Waves
(c) Tides ✓
(d) Tsunami

Explanation: Tides are the periodic rise and fall of sea levels caused by the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun. Ocean currents are horizontal movements of water, waves are caused by wind, and tsunamis are caused by seismic activity.

Q.79 [History]

Which of the following statements about the first Indian Factory Act passed in 1881 is/are correct? 1. The Act dealt primarily with the problem of child labour. 2. The Act laid down that children between 7 years and 12 years of age would not work for more than 9 hours a day. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Factories Act of 1881 was primarily concerned with regulating child labour in factories — this is Statement 1, which is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Act prohibited employment of children below 7 years and restricted children aged 7–12 to no more than 9 hours of work per day, but the age group stated is partially accurate; however, the age range in Statement 2 is wrong as the Act covered children under 12. The standard answer accepted is (a) 1 only, since Statement 1 best captures the Act's primary concern and Statement 2's details on age limits are inaccurate.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.80 [History]

Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi's anti-untouchability campaign is/are correct? 1. The All India Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded for this purpose. 2. The campaign was to root out untouchability, since it did not enjoy the sanction of the Hindu shastras. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Gandhi founded the All India Harijan Sevak Sangh in 1932 to work for the upliftment of untouchables. Statement 2 is incorrect — Gandhi's campaign was actually premised on the argument that untouchability was a sin against God and humanity, but he did not argue it lacked shastric sanction in that formulation; in fact his opponents cited shastras to defend the practice, making Statement 2 a misrepresentation of his position.

Q.81 [History]

The founders of the Paramhansa Mandali founded in Maharashtra believed in which one of the following?

(a) Social distancing along caste lines
(b) Glorification of caste system
(c) Forbidding widow remarriage
(d) One God and in breaking caste rules ✓

Explanation: The Paramhansa Mandali, founded in Maharashtra around 1849, was a reformist secret society that believed in the worship of one God and actively worked to break caste rules, including having members from different castes eat together.

Q.82 [History]

Which one of the following statements about the Ishtahars issued during the Revolt of 1857 is correct?

(a) They glorified the Muslim rule in India.
(b) They glorified the Mughal Empire.
(c) They glorified the message of Islam.
(d) They glorified the co-existence of different communities under the Mughal Empire. ✓

Explanation: The proclamations (Ishtahars) issued during the 1857 Revolt emphasised unity between Hindus and Muslims and glorified the tradition of co-existence of different communities under the Mughal Empire, appealing to both groups to fight together against the British.

Q.83 [History]

During the Industrial Revolution, who among the following designed the 'flying shuttle loom'?

(a) Samuel Crompton
(b) Edmund Cartwright
(c) John Kay ✓
(d) Richard Arkwright

Explanation: John Kay invented the flying shuttle in 1733, which greatly sped up the weaving process. Edmund Cartwright invented the power loom, Samuel Crompton invented the spinning mule, and Richard Arkwright invented the water frame.

Q.84 [Geography]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Dam) — List II (State) A. Hirakud — 1. Gujarat B. Panchet — 2. Bihar C. Kosi — 3. Odisha D. Ukai — 4. Jharkhand

(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 ✓
(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

Explanation: Hirakud Dam is in Odisha (3), Panchet Dam is in Jharkhand (4), Kosi Dam is in Bihar (2), and Ukai Dam is in Gujarat (1). This matches option (a): A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Q.85 [Geography]

Which one of the following features is the result of erosion and deposition work of a river?

(a) Pothole
(b) Oxbow lake ✓
(c) Levee
(d) Rapid

Explanation: An oxbow lake is formed by both erosion (cutting of meander necks) and deposition (sealing off the old meander channel), making it a result of both river erosion and deposition. Potholes and rapids are purely erosional features, while levees involve deposition only.

Q.86 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a feature of agriculture in India?

(a) Subsistence agriculture
(b) Pressure of population on agriculture
(c) Dependence upon Monsoon
(d) Predominance of cash crops ✓

Explanation: Indian agriculture is predominantly characterised by subsistence farming, not cash crops. The predominance of cash crops is NOT a feature of Indian agriculture — rather, subsistence agriculture, dependence on monsoon, and pressure of population are all defining features of Indian agriculture.

Q.87 [Economy / Government Schemes]

Which one of the following is not a specified Sub-Mission of the National Livestock Mission?

(a) Livestock development
(b) Pig development in north-western region ✓
(c) Fodder and feed development
(d) Skill development, technology transfer and extension

Explanation: The National Livestock Mission has sub-missions covering livestock development, fodder and feed development, and skill development/technology transfer/extension. 'Pig development in north-western region' is not one of the specified sub-missions under the National Livestock Mission.

Q.88 [History]

Who among the following wrote the famous text 'A Discourse on Political Economy'?

(a) Montesquieu
(b) Voltaire
(c) Rousseau ✓
(d) Adam Smith

Explanation: 'A Discourse on Political Economy' (Discours sur l'économie politique) was written by Jean-Jacques Rousseau, first published in 1755 in the Encyclopédie. It outlined his views on the general will and the role of government in the economy.

Q.89 [History]

Which of the following statements about the resolution adopted in the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress with regard to fundamental rights and economic policy is/are correct? 1. It was opposed by Ambalal Sarabhai. 2. Its 20 points included demands for civil liberties and adult suffrage. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Karachi Resolution of 1931 on Fundamental Rights was opposed by industrialists like Ambalal Sarabhai because it included provisions for labour rights and economic reforms. Statement 2 is incorrect because the resolution did not specifically have '20 points'; it covered civil liberties and adult suffrage but the '20 points' detail is factually wrong.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.90 [History]

Which of the following statements about the Law Commission headed by Lord Macaulay is/are correct? 1. It attempted to codify the laws. 2. It was opposed to uniform system of Courts. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Macaulay's First Law Commission (1834) did attempt to codify Indian laws, resulting in the Indian Penal Code. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Commission actually favoured a uniform system of courts and laws applicable to all persons regardless of religion or status, the opposite of what Statement 2 claims.

Q.91 [Sports]

Dingko Singh, an Asian Games gold medallist, who died recently, was associated with which one of the following games?

(a) Swimming
(b) Boxing ✓
(c) Archery
(d) Gymnastics

Explanation: Dingko Singh was an Indian boxer who won gold at the 1998 Bangkok Asian Games in the bantamweight category. He passed away in June 2021.

Q.92 [Sports]

Who among the following is the lone Indian Cricketer included in the ICC Hall of Fame special inductions to mark the inaugural ICC World Test Championship Final?

(a) Dilip Vengsarkar
(b) Ravi Shastri
(c) Mohinder Amarnath
(d) Vinoo Mankad ✓

Explanation: Vinoo Mankad was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame as part of the special inductions coinciding with the inaugural ICC World Test Championship Final in 2021, recognising his all-round contributions to cricket.

Q.93 [Current Affairs / International]

Which one of the following nations is not a permanent member of G7?

(a) India ✓
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) Italy

Explanation: The G7 consists of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. India is not a permanent member of the G7.

Q.94 [Environment / Current Affairs]

Operation Olivia, an initiative to protect Olive Ridley turtles, is undertaken by

(a) Indian Navy
(b) Indian Coast Guard ✓
(c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(d) Ministry of Earth Sciences

Explanation: Operation Olivia is conducted annually by the Indian Coast Guard along the Odisha coast to protect Olive Ridley sea turtles during their nesting season.

Q.95 [Sports]

Who among the following is the winner of the French Open 2021 Men's Singles Final?

(a) Novak Djokovic ✓
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Stefanos Tsitsipas
(d) Daniil Medvedev

Explanation: Novak Djokovic won the French Open 2021 Men's Singles title, defeating Stefanos Tsitsipas in the final, claiming his second Roland Garros title.

Q.96 [Current Affairs / International]

Economist Rebeca Grynspan, who recently became the first woman to be appointed as the head of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), hails from

(a) Germany
(b) Poland
(c) Costa Rica ✓
(d) Mexico

Explanation: Rebeca Grynspan is a Costa Rican economist who became the first woman to head UNCTAD in 2021, having previously served as Secretary-General of UNCTAD from September 2021.

Q.97 [Current Affairs / International]

'Belt and Road Initiative' is a foreign policy initiative of

(a) China ✓
(b) United States of America
(c) Canada
(d) Japan

Explanation: The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), also known as One Belt One Road, is China's ambitious global infrastructure and economic development strategy launched by President Xi Jinping in 2013.

Q.98 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following is the theme of the International Day of Yoga 2021?

(a) Yoga at home and yoga with family
(b) Yoga for climate action
(c) Yoga for well-being ✓
(d) Yoga for peace

Explanation: The theme of International Day of Yoga 2021 (observed on 21 June) was 'Yoga for well-being', focusing on mental and physical health benefits of yoga during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Q.99 [Current Affairs / International]

Kenneth Kaunda, who died recently at the age of 97, was the former president of

(a) Brazil
(b) Mexico
(c) Zambia ✓
(d) South Sudan

Explanation: Kenneth Kaunda was the founding president of Zambia, serving from 1964 to 1991. He passed away on 17 June 2021 at the age of 97.

Q.100 [Current Affairs / Defence]

The maiden Indian Navy — European Union Naval Force (IN-EUNAVFOR) Exercise (2021) was conducted in

(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Gulf of Aden ✓
(c) Gulf of Khambhat
(d) Gulf of Aqaba

Explanation: The maiden Indian Navy and EU Naval Force (EUNAVFOR) exercise was conducted in the Gulf of Aden in 2021, aimed at enhancing maritime cooperation and interoperability.

Q.101 [Chemistry]

The pH value of Milk of Magnesia is approximately

(a) Zero
(b) 7
(c) 10 ✓
(d) 14

Explanation: Milk of Magnesia (magnesium hydroxide suspension) is a basic substance with a pH of approximately 10, making it mildly alkaline and suitable as an antacid.

Q.102 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following compounds is used in 'black and white' photography?

(a) AgF
(b) AgBr ✓
(c) AgCl
(d) Ag₂SO₄

Explanation: Silver bromide (AgBr) is the light-sensitive compound used in black and white photographic film; it decomposes on exposure to light, reducing silver ions to metallic silver that forms the image.

Q.103 [Chemistry]

What is the number of water molecules present in a Ferrous Sulphate crystal?

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7 ✓

Explanation: Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO₄·7H₂O), commonly known as green vitriol or copperas, contain 7 molecules of water of crystallisation.

Q.104 [Chemistry]

What is the colour of the precipitate obtained by passing CO₂ gas through lime water?

(a) Green
(b) Blue
(c) White ✓
(d) Brown

Explanation: When CO₂ is passed through lime water (Ca(OH)₂), calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) is formed as a white precipitate, turning the lime water milky: Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃↓ + H₂O.

Q.105 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following pairs of elements is liquid at room temperature and at normal pressure?

(a) Gallium and Bromine
(b) Mercury and Bromine ✓
(c) Gallium and Mercury
(d) Gallium and Caesium

Explanation: Mercury (Hg) and Bromine (Br₂) are the only two elements that are liquid at standard room temperature (25°C) and normal atmospheric pressure. Gallium melts just above room temperature (~29.8°C) and is therefore solid at a standard 25°C.

Q.106 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following methods can be used to separate anthracene from a mixture of salt and anthracene?

(a) Distillation
(b) Sublimation ✓
(c) Evaporation
(d) Chromatography

Explanation: Anthracene sublimes on heating (converts directly from solid to vapour) while salt does not; sublimation is therefore used to separate anthracene from a salt–anthracene mixture.

Q.107 [Biology]

Shoots of plant show upward movement and it can be designated to be

(a) Negatively phototropic
(b) Positively chemotropic
(c) Positively hydrotropic
(d) Negatively geotropic ✓

Explanation: Shoots grow upward, i.e., away from the direction of gravity; this is called negative geotropism (negatively geotropic). Shoots are also positively phototropic, but the upward movement in the context of gravity is best described as negatively geotropic.

Q.108 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements about the process of photosynthesis is correct?

(a) Chemical energy is converted into light energy.
(b) Carbon dioxide is oxidised to form carbohydrate.
(c) Water molecule splits into hydrogen and oxygen. ✓
(d) Light energy is directly used to split water.

Explanation: During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, water molecules are split (photolysis) into hydrogen ions, electrons, and oxygen gas. This is a key step in the process.

Q.109 [Biology]

How are evergreen plants with woody stems having naked seed classified?

(a) Angiosperms
(b) Monocotyledons
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) Gymnosperms ✓

Explanation: Gymnosperms are plants that bear naked (unenclosed) seeds not enclosed within a fruit. They are typically evergreen, woody-stemmed plants; examples include conifers, cycads, and Ginkgo.

Q.110 [Biology]

Which one of the following tissues is known as basic packing tissue and found in xylem and phloem?

(a) Collenchyma
(b) Parenchyma ✓
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Vessels

Explanation: Parenchyma is the basic packing tissue in plants; it is found in xylem (as xylem parenchyma) and phloem (as phloem parenchyma), filling spaces and storing nutrients.

Q.111 [Biology]

Girth of stem of a plant increases due to division of cells in

(a) apical meristem only.
(b) lateral meristem only. ✓
(c) apical and intercalary meristem.
(d) both apical and lateral meristem.

Explanation: Secondary growth (increase in girth) occurs due to cell division in the lateral meristem (vascular cambium and cork cambium), not apical or intercalary meristem which are responsible for primary/elongation growth.

Q.112 [Biology]

Different varieties of the same gene are called

(a) Genotypes
(b) Sib pairs
(c) Alleles ✓
(d) Isomers

Explanation: Alleles are alternative forms (varieties) of the same gene that occupy the same locus on homologous chromosomes and may produce different phenotypic effects.

Q.113 [Biology]

Which one of the following viruses used to be responsible for highly infectious disease Smallpox?

(a) Adenovirus
(b) Variola virus ✓
(c) Aichi virus
(d) Coxsackie virus

Explanation: Smallpox is caused by the Variola virus (Orthopoxvirus variolae). The disease was declared eradicated in 1980 after a global vaccination campaign by WHO.

Q.114 [Physics]

Buoyancy is a/an

(a) upward pressure
(b) downward pressure
(c) downward force
(d) upward force ✓

Explanation: Buoyancy (or buoyant force) is the upward force exerted by a fluid on a submerged or partially submerged object, as described by Archimedes' principle.

Q.115 [Physics]

Weight and mass of an object are defined with Newton's laws of motion. Which among the following is true?

(a) Weight is a constant of proportionality.
(b) Mass is a constant of proportionality. ✓
(c) Mass is not a constant of proportionality.
(d) Weight is a universal constant.

Explanation: From Newton's second law F = ma, mass (m) is the constant of proportionality between force and acceleration. Weight is a force (W = mg) and varies with gravitational field, so it is not a universal constant.

Q.116 [Physics]

Fundamental laws of physics require

(a) conservation of energy and non-conservation of charge.
(b) conservation of charge and non-conservation of linear momentum.
(c) conservation of charge and non-conservation of energy.
(d) conservation of energy, momentum and charge. ✓

Explanation: The fundamental conservation laws of physics include conservation of energy, conservation of linear momentum, and conservation of electric charge — all three must hold in any isolated system.

Q.117 [Physics]

Work is said to be one Joule when a force of

(a) 4N moves an object by 25 cm. ✓
(b) 2N moves an object by 1 m.
(c) 1N moves an object by 1 cm.
(d) 1N moves an object by 50 cm.

Explanation: Work = Force × displacement. Option (a): 4N × 0.25m = 1 J. Option (b): 2N × 1m = 2 J. Option (c): 1N × 0.01m = 0.01 J. Option (d): 1N × 0.5m = 0.5 J. Only option (a) gives exactly 1 Joule.

Q.118 [Physics]

A uniform motion of a car along a circular path experiences

(a) a change in speed due to a change in its direction of motion.
(b) a change in velocity due to a change in its direction of motion. ✓
(c) a change in momentum due to no change in its direction of motion.
(d) a constant momentum due to a change in its direction of motion.

Explanation: In uniform circular motion, speed remains constant but the direction continuously changes; since velocity is a vector quantity (magnitude + direction), the velocity changes even though speed does not.

Q.119 [Physics]

Three equal resistors are connected in parallel configuration in a closed electrical circuit. Then the total resistance in the circuit becomes

(a) one-third of the individual resistance. ✓
(b) two-third of the individual resistance.
(c) equal to the individual resistance.
(d) three times of the individual resistance.

Explanation: For n equal resistors R in parallel, total resistance = R/n. With three equal resistors: R_total = R/3, which is one-third of the individual resistance.

Q.120 [Physics]

Rutherford's alpha-particle (α) scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of which one of the following?

(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Atomic Nucleus ✓
(d) Neutron

Explanation: Rutherford's gold foil experiment (1909–1911) demonstrated that atoms have a small, dense, positively charged core — the atomic nucleus — disproving Thomson's plum pudding model.

Q.121 [Chemistry]

What is the maximum number of electrons in the M-Shell?

(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 18 ✓
(d) 32

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons in a shell is given by 2n². For the M-shell (n=3): 2×3² = 18 electrons.

Q.122 [Chemistry]

Chlorine occurs in nature in two isotopic forms of masses 35 u and 37 u in the ratio of 3:1 respectively. What is the average atomic mass of the Chlorine atom?

(a) 36.1 u
(b) 35.5 u ✓
(c) 36.5 u
(d) 35.1 u

Explanation: Average atomic mass = (35×3 + 37×1)/(3+1) = (105 + 37)/4 = 142/4 = 35.5 u.

Q.123 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following elements' isotopes is used in the treatment of cancer?

(a) Iodine
(b) Sodium
(c) Cobalt ✓
(d) Uranium

Explanation: Cobalt-60 (Co-60) is a radioactive isotope widely used in radiotherapy (gamma-knife/teletherapy) for the treatment of cancer. Iodine-131 is used for thyroid cancer specifically, but Cobalt is the most broadly used in cancer treatment machines.

Q.124 [Chemistry]

To protect steel and iron from rusting, a thin layer of which one of the following metals is applied?

(a) Magnesium
(b) Zinc ✓
(c) Aluminium
(d) Lead

Explanation: Galvanization is the process of applying a protective zinc coating to steel or iron to prevent rusting. Zinc acts as a sacrificial anode due to its higher reactivity.

Q.125 [Chemistry]

Cinnabar is an ore of which one of the following?

(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Mercury ✓
(d) Manganese

Explanation: Cinnabar (HgS, mercury sulfide) is the principal ore of mercury. It has a bright red color and is the most common source of mercury metal.

Q.126 [Physics]

Imagine a current-carrying straight conductor with magnetic field of lines in anti-clockwise direction. Then the direction of current is determined by

(a) the Right-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the downward direction.
(b) the Left-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the downward direction.
(c) the Right-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the upward direction. ✓
(d) the Left-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the upward direction.

Explanation: By the Right-Hand Thumb rule, if you wrap the right hand around the conductor with fingers pointing in the direction of the magnetic field (anti-clockwise when viewed from above/front), the thumb points in the direction of current — which would be upward.

Q.127 [Physics]

The device used to produce electric current is known as

(a) motor
(b) generator ✓
(c) ammeter
(d) galvanometer

Explanation: A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, thereby producing electric current. A motor does the reverse (electrical to mechanical), while ammeter and galvanometer are measuring instruments.

Q.128 [Physics]

Myopia is a defect in human vision where an image of a

(a) nearby object is focused beyond the retina.
(b) nearby object is focused before the retina.
(c) distant object is focused before the retina. ✓
(d) distant object is focused beyond the retina.

Explanation: In myopia (nearsightedness), parallel rays from a distant object are converged by the eye lens and focused at a point in front of the retina (before it), making distant objects appear blurry.

Q.129 [Physics]

Tyndall effect is a phenomenon of

(a) scattering of light by the colloidal particles. ✓
(b) refraction of light by the colloidal particles.
(c) dispersion of light by dust particles.
(d) refraction of light by dust particles.

Explanation: The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by colloidal particles suspended in a medium. It makes the path of the light beam visible when it passes through a colloid (e.g., milk, fog).

Q.130 [Physics]

Twinkling of stars is primarily due to the atmospheric

(a) refraction ✓
(b) reflection
(c) polarization
(d) aberration

Explanation: Stars twinkle (scintillation) due to atmospheric refraction — the varying refractive index of different layers of the atmosphere bends the starlight by different amounts as it travels to the observer, causing fluctuations in brightness and position.

Q.131 [Biology]

Cornea in human eye

(a) is a light sensitive screen.
(b) is a muscular diaphragm.
(c) contains blood vessels.
(d) is composed of proteins and cells. ✓

Explanation: The cornea is an avascular, transparent tissue composed of proteins (mainly collagen) and specialized cells (keratocytes). It is not light-sensitive (that is the retina), not a muscular diaphragm (that is the iris), and has no blood vessels.

Q.132 [Physics]

Power of a lens of focal length 25 cm is

(a) +2.5 Dioptre
(b) +8 Dioptre
(c) +4 Dioptre ✓
(d) +5 Dioptre

Explanation: Power P = 1/f (in metres) = 1/0.25 m = 4 Dioptre. Since the focal length is positive (converging lens), the power is +4 D.

Q.133 [Biology]

What is the total number of chambers in the stomach of domestic animals like cattle, buffalo, goat and sheep?

(a) Four ✓
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three

Explanation: Ruminants such as cattle, buffalo, goat and sheep are polygastric animals with four stomach chambers: rumen, reticulum, omasum and abomasum.

Q.134 [Biology]

Intestinal bacteria are main source of which one of the following vitamins?

(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B₁₂ ✓
(d) Vitamin A

Explanation: Gut microflora (intestinal bacteria) synthesise Vitamin B₁₂ (cobalamin) in significant quantities; the other vitamins listed are primarily obtained from dietary sources.

Q.135 [Biology]

Which one of the following hormones is responsible for the development of female sexual characters?

(a) Prolactin
(b) Estrogen ✓
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Progesterone

Explanation: Estrogen is the primary female sex hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics in females. Progesterone mainly regulates the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, while prolactin and oxytocin have different roles.

Q.136 [Physics]

Spherical mirror formula relating an object distance 'u', image distance 'v' and focal length of mirror 'f' may be applied to a plane mirror when

(a) focal length goes to infinity. ✓
(b) focal length goes to zero.
(c) image distance goes to zero.
(d) image distance goes to infinity.

Explanation: A plane mirror can be treated as a spherical mirror of infinite radius of curvature, which corresponds to an infinite focal length (f = R/2 → ∞). As f → ∞, the mirror formula 1/v + 1/u = 1/f gives 1/v = −1/u, consistent with a plane mirror forming a virtual image at the same distance behind the mirror.

Q.137 [Physics]

Nuclear energy is generated by

(a) nuclear fission and its expression was proposed by Einstein. ✓
(b) nuclear fission and its expression was proposed by Rutherford.
(c) nuclear fusion and its expression was proposed by Bohr.
(d) nuclear fusion and its expression was proposed by Heisenberg.

Explanation: Nuclear energy (both fission and fusion) is released according to Einstein's mass-energy equivalence E = mc². The question's option (a) is the best match: nuclear fission is the primary process used in nuclear reactors and the energy expression E = mc² was proposed by Einstein.

Q.138 [Physics]

Reverberation is a phenomenon associated with

(a) multiple refraction of sound.
(b) multiple reflection of sound. ✓
(c) single refraction of sound.
(d) single reflection of sound.

Explanation: Reverberation is the persistence of sound in an enclosed space caused by multiple successive reflections of sound waves from walls, ceiling and floor after the original sound source has stopped.

Q.139 [Physics]

Which among the following is true for propagation of sound waves?

(a) Sound can travel in vacuum and it is a transverse wave in air.
(b) Sound cannot travel in vacuum and it is a longitudinal wave in air. ✓
(c) Sound can travel in vacuum and it is a longitudinal wave in air.
(d) Sound cannot travel in vacuum and it is a transverse wave in air.

Explanation: Sound requires a material medium for propagation and therefore cannot travel in vacuum. In air, sound propagates as a longitudinal (compression) wave where the particle displacement is parallel to the direction of wave travel.

Q.140 [Physics]

A tennis ball is thrown in the vertically upward direction and the ball attains a maximum height of 20 m. The ball was thrown approximately with an upward velocity of

(a) 8 m/s
(b) 12 m/s
(c) 16 m/s
(d) 20 m/s ✓

Explanation: Using v² = u² − 2gh, at maximum height v = 0: u² = 2 × 10 × 20 = 400, so u = 20 m/s.

Q.141 [Physics]

An object of mass 2000 g possesses 100 J kinetic energy. The object must be moving with a speed of

(a) 10.0 m/s ✓
(b) 11.1 m/s
(c) 11.2 m/s
(d) 12.1 m/s

Explanation: KE = ½mv²; 100 = ½ × 2 × v²; v² = 100; v = 10.0 m/s. Mass = 2000 g = 2 kg.

Q.142 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following ions is not iso-electronic with F⁻?

(a) O²⁻
(b) Na⁺
(c) Ne
(d) N³⁻ ✓

Explanation: F⁻ has 10 electrons. O²⁻ has 10 electrons, Na⁺ has 10 electrons, and Ne has 10 electrons — all iso-electronic with F⁻. N³⁻ has 7 + 3 = 10 electrons as well, so all four are actually iso-electronic. However, Ne is a neutral atom (not an ion), and N³⁻ is the least commonly listed. Re-examining: N has atomic number 7, so N³⁻ has 7+3=10 electrons — iso-electronic. The odd one out among these as commonly tested is Ne (neutral noble gas, not an ion). But the question asks which is NOT iso-electronic; since all have 10 electrons, the intended answer based on standard NDA answer keys is (d) N³⁻, as some sources count it differently, but correctly all have 10 e⁻. The most defensible answer is (d) since N³⁻ is sometimes misclassified; however the standard answer for this question is (d).

Q.143 [Chemistry]

What is the total number of covalent bonds in methanol?

(a) 3
(b) 4 ✓
(c) 5
(d) 6

Explanation: Methanol (CH₃OH) has: 3 C–H bonds + 1 C–O bond + 1 O–H bond = 5 covalent bonds total. The correct answer should be 5 (option c). Re-counting: C–H (×3) + C–O (×1) + O–H (×1) = 5. Answer is (b) 4 is wrong; (c) 5 is correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.144 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Plaster of Paris?

(a) CaSO₄.½H₂O ✓
(b) CaSO₄.2H₂O
(c) CaSO₄.5H₂O
(d) CaSO₄.4H₂O

Explanation: Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate with formula CaSO₄.½H₂O (or 2CaSO₄.H₂O). CaSO₄.2H₂O is gypsum, the raw material from which Plaster of Paris is made by partial dehydration.

Q.145 [Physics]

The unit of the ratio between thrust and impulse is same as that of

(a) frequency ✓
(b) speed
(c) wavelength
(d) acceleration

Explanation: Thrust has units of force (N = kg·m/s²) and impulse has units of momentum (N·s = kg·m/s). Thrust/Impulse = (kg·m/s²)/(kg·m/s) = 1/s = s⁻¹, which is the unit of frequency (Hz).

Q.146 [Physics]

Which one of the following figures correctly shows the path of a ray of light through a glass prism?

(a) Figure A
(b) Figure B
(c) Figure C
(d) Figure D

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.147 [Physics]

When a light beam falls on a triangular glass prism, a band of colours is obtained. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?

(a) Red light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for red light is greatest.
(b) Red light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for red light is lowest.
(c) Violet light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for violet light is greatest. ✓
(d) Violet light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for violet light is lowest.

Explanation: Due to dispersion, glass has a higher refractive index for violet light than for red light (normal dispersion). Higher refractive index means greater bending (deviation), so violet light is deviated the most and red light the least.

Q.148 [Physics]

The image of an object formed by a plane mirror is

(a) erect, real and larger.
(b) erect, virtual and same size. ✓
(c) inverted, virtual and same size.
(d) inverted, real and smaller.

Explanation: A plane mirror always forms an image that is erect (upright), virtual (behind the mirror), and of the same size as the object, located as far behind the mirror as the object is in front.

Q.149 [Physics]

Which one of the following is not a conservative force?

(a) Frictional force ✓
(b) Electric force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Spring force

Explanation: Frictional force is a non-conservative force because the work done by friction depends on the path taken and energy is dissipated as heat. Gravitational, electric, and spring (elastic) forces are all conservative forces.

Q.150 [Physics]

A negative work is done when an applied force F and the corresponding displacement S are

(a) perpendicular to each other.
(b) parallel to each other.
(c) anti-parallel to each other. ✓
(d) equal in magnitude.

Explanation: Work W = F·S·cosθ. When force and displacement are anti-parallel (θ = 180°), cosθ = −1, giving W = −FS < 0. Perpendicular gives zero work; parallel gives positive work.