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NDA I 2022 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2022 (Session I) Questions: 150 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Error Spotting]

A company of five thousand soldiers, (a) having marched tirelessly for over five days, (b) have just moved into their cantonment. (c) No error (d)

(a) A company of five thousand soldiers,
(b) having marched tirelessly for over five days,
(c) have just moved into their cantonment. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: 'A company' is a collective noun used as a singular subject, so the verb should be 'has just moved' not 'have just moved'.

Q.2 [Error Spotting]

Every person who believes in principles (a) must stand up to fight (b) for their convictions. (c) No error (d)

(a) Every person who believes in principles
(b) must stand up to fight
(c) for their convictions. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Every person' is singular, so the possessive pronoun should be 'his/her convictions' not 'their convictions' in formal/standard usage. However, singular 'their' is increasingly accepted; in the context of NDA exam standards, 'their' referring to 'every person' is considered an error — the expected answer is (c).

Q.3 [Error Spotting]

The Olympic Games reflects (a) the highest spirit of (b) human endeavour and achievement. (c) No error (d)

(a) The Olympic Games reflects ✓
(b) the highest spirit of
(c) human endeavour and achievement.
(d) No error

Explanation: 'The Olympic Games' is a plural noun and requires the plural verb 'reflect', not 'reflects'.

Q.4 [Error Spotting]

The principal of the school (a) stressed the need for discipline (b) amongst the students. (c) No error (d)

(a) The principal of the school
(b) stressed the need for discipline
(c) amongst the students.
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct; 'amongst' is a valid preposition here, and all parts are error-free.

Q.5 [Error Spotting]

Failure is the stepping stone to success; (a) however, successive failures are not (b) successive stepping stones to success. (c) No error (d)

(a) Failure is the stepping stone to success;
(b) however, successive failures are not
(c) successive stepping stones to success.
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct in all its parts; no error exists.

Q.6 [Error Spotting]

India's strengths are (a) its diversity of culture and (b) the spirit of tolerance in it's people. (c) No error (d)

(a) India's strengths are
(b) its diversity of culture and
(c) the spirit of tolerance in it's people. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: 'it's' is a contraction of 'it is' and cannot be used as a possessive pronoun; the correct form is 'its people'.

Q.7 [Error Spotting]

Once considered ninth planet of the solar system, (a) Pluto is today listed as the (b) largest dwarf planet of the solar system. (c) No error (d)

(a) Once considered ninth planet of the solar system, ✓
(b) Pluto is today listed as the
(c) largest dwarf planet of the solar system.
(d) No error

Explanation: 'ninth planet' needs the definite article: it should be 'the ninth planet of the solar system'.

Q.8 [Error Spotting]

The greatest glory in life (a) is to be able to realize ones dreams and ambitions (b) without trampling on those of others. (c) No error (d)

(a) The greatest glory in life
(b) is to be able to realize ones dreams and ambitions ✓
(c) without trampling on those of others.
(d) No error

Explanation: 'ones' should be the possessive 'one's' (with an apostrophe) as it is a possessive pronoun, not a plural noun.

Q.9 [Error Spotting]

To be able to manage one's (a) anger is a reflection of an individual's (b) psychological maturity. (c) No error (d)

(a) To be able to manage one's
(b) anger is a reflection of an individual's
(c) psychological maturity.
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct in all its parts; no error is present.

Q.10 [Error Spotting]

A honest mistake (a) is no more than that; (b) just an honest mistake. (c) No error (d)

(a) A honest mistake ✓
(b) is no more than that;
(c) just an honest mistake.
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Honest' begins with a vowel sound (silent 'h'), so the correct indefinite article is 'an', not 'a'. It should be 'An honest mistake'.

Q.11 [Idioms and Phrases]

Counting your chickens

(a) confident of success ✓
(b) greedily accumulating wealth
(c) being careful about spending money
(d) getting scared because of danger

Explanation: 'Counting your chickens (before they hatch)' means being over-confident or assuming success before it is achieved.

Q.12 [Idioms and Phrases]

The icing on the cake

(a) baked food that is delicate and delicious with a topping
(b) extra benefit over and above an already good deal ✓
(c) getting what you asked for
(d) more than what is needed

Explanation: 'The icing on the cake' refers to an extra positive element added to something already good — an additional benefit on top of a good situation.

Q.13 [Idioms and Phrases]

A stitch in time

(a) tailoring one's efforts efficiently
(b) making an effort to succeed
(c) inability to take timely decision
(d) timely action that prevents a negative outcome ✓

Explanation: 'A stitch in time (saves nine)' means that taking timely action prevents a problem from becoming worse — a timely action that prevents a negative outcome.

Q.14 [Idioms and Phrases]

At sixes and sevens

(a) on top of the situation
(b) state of denial
(c) state of total confusion ✓
(d) well-planned and prepared

Explanation: 'At sixes and sevens' is an idiom meaning in a state of total confusion or disorder.

Q.15 [Idioms and Phrases]

Talking twenty to the dozen

(a) talking hurriedly and rapidly ✓
(b) talking too much
(c) talking without making sense
(d) talking out of turn

Explanation: 'Talking nineteen/twenty to the dozen' means talking very fast and rapidly without pause.

Q.16 [Idioms and Phrases]

Under the weather

(a) walking in the rain
(b) controlled by the elements
(c) browbeaten by the heat
(d) unwell ✓

Explanation: 'Under the weather' is a common idiom meaning feeling ill or unwell.

Q.17 [Idioms and Phrases]

To sit on the fence

(a) to act promptly
(b) to be lazy
(c) to be undecided ✓
(d) to sit without doing anything

Explanation: 'To sit on the fence' means to remain neutral or undecided, not taking sides in a dispute or controversy.

Q.18 [Idioms and Phrases]

Once in a blue moon

(a) romantic moment
(b) occasionally
(c) rarely ✓
(d) often

Explanation: 'Once in a blue moon' means something that happens very rarely or infrequently; 'rarely' is the best match.

Q.19 [Idioms and Phrases]

Through thick and thin

(a) in genuine friendship
(b) through the best of everything
(c) among people both fat and slim
(d) through difficult times ✓

Explanation: 'Through thick and thin' means through all circumstances, both good and bad — especially persevering through difficult times.

Q.20 [Idioms and Phrases]

Like chalk and cheese

(a) very different from each other ✓
(b) without any blemish
(c) pure white in colour
(d) very like each other

Explanation: 'Like chalk and cheese' describes two things or people that are completely different from each other in nature or quality.

Q.21 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - but perhaps the best way is to agree / Q - there are many ways of dealing / R - with them without excessive argumentation / S - with intransigent customers. The correct sequence should be?

(a) QPRS
(b) QSPR ✓
(c) PSQR
(d) RSQP

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'There are many ways of dealing (Q) with intransigent customers (S) but perhaps the best way is to agree (P) with them without excessive argumentation (R).' — giving QSPR.

Q.22 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - in the years following / Q - India achieved remarkable economic development / R - liberalization in the year 1991 / S - the landmark reforms inaugurated via. The correct sequence should be?

(a) PQRS
(b) PRSQ
(c) SPRQ
(d) QPSR ✓

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'India achieved remarkable economic development (Q) in the years following (P) the landmark reforms inaugurated via (S) liberalization in the year 1991 (R).' — giving QPSR.

Q.23 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - was the victory secured by the women's hockey team / Q - in the arena of sport, perhaps / R - against Australia in the Tokyo Olympics / S - the greatest moment in Indian Olympic history. The correct sequence should be?

(a) SPQR
(b) RPQS
(c) QSPR ✓
(d) QRPS

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'In the arena of sport, perhaps (Q) the greatest moment in Indian Olympic history (S) was the victory secured by the women's hockey team (P) against Australia in the Tokyo Olympics (R).' — giving QSPR.

Q.24 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - in terms of GDP and GNP, / Q - for gauging the success of a nation / R - which are the two major determinants / S - economic progress is determined. The correct sequence should be?

(a) SQRP ✓
(b) RPQS
(c) SPRQ
(d) QRPS

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'Economic progress is determined (S) in terms of GDP and GNP (P) which are the two major determinants (R) for gauging the success of a nation (Q).' — giving SQRP.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.25 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - with the aplomb of a stage artist, / Q - that they are not men of straw / R - they can twist and shake their wobbly heads / S - mesmerizing the gullible into believing. The correct sequence should be?

(a) PRQS
(b) RPSQ ✓
(c) SPQR
(d) QRPS

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'They can twist and shake their wobbly heads (R) with the aplomb of a stage artist (P) mesmerizing the gullible into believing (S) that they are not men of straw (Q).' — giving RPSQ.

Q.26 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - of its rain-soaked verdure / Q - and on the other there are / R - on the one hand there is the immense beauty / S - the artifacts of its visible modernity. The correct sequence should be?

(a) PRQS ✓
(b) QRSP
(c) SPQR
(d) RPQS

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'On the one hand there is the immense beauty (R) of its rain-soaked verdure (P) and on the other there are (Q) the artifacts of its visible modernity (S).' — giving RPQS, but checking option (a) PRQS does not fit. The best coherent sequence is RPQS, which is option (d).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.27 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - are often rooted / Q - the causes / R - of extreme poverty / S - in the inequalities of social systems. The correct sequence should be?

(a) QRPS ✓
(b) QRSP
(c) SRQP
(d) SRPQ

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'The causes (Q) of extreme poverty (R) are often rooted (P) in the inequalities of social systems (S).' — giving QRPS.

Q.28 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - a person by the way / Q - he behaves and / R - you must judge / S - not by the way he looks. The correct sequence should be?

(a) RPQS ✓
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP
(d) QPSR

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'You must judge (R) a person by the way (P) he behaves and (Q) not by the way he looks (S).' — giving RPQS.

Q.29 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - to the greatest number of people / Q - that causes the least discomfort / R - whenever in doubt / S - always opt for the option. The correct sequence should be?

(a) RQPS
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP ✓
(d) QPSR

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'Whenever in doubt (R) always opt for the option (S) that causes the least discomfort (Q) to the greatest number of people (P).' — giving RSQP.

Q.30 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange: P - brought by bad times / Q - against the despondency / R - our greatest defence / S - faith and belief are. The correct sequence should be?

(a) RQPS
(b) SRQP ✓
(c) RSQP
(d) QPRS

Explanation: The logical sentence reads: 'Faith and belief are (S) our greatest defence (R) against the despondency (Q) brought by bad times (P).' — giving SRQP.

Q.31 [Synonyms]

He is essentially a crude person.

(a) coarse ✓
(b) refined
(c) eager
(d) balanced

Explanation: 'Crude' means rough or unrefined; 'coarse' is its closest synonym meaning rough or lacking refinement.

Q.32 [Synonyms]

His confidence is high.

(a) diffidence
(b) eagerness
(c) steadfastness ✓
(d) endurance

Explanation: 'Confidence' in the sense of firm belief in oneself is best matched by 'steadfastness', meaning firmness of purpose and resolve. However, 'confidence' can also relate to self-assurance; among the options, 'steadfastness' (firm resolve) is the closest positive trait. Note: 'diffidence' is actually an antonym (shyness/lack of confidence). The synonym closest here is 'steadfastness' (c).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.33 [Synonyms]

His integrity is noticed.

(a) skilfulness
(b) ability
(c) dependability ✓
(d) dishonesty

Explanation: 'Integrity' means honesty and strong moral principles; 'dependability' (trustworthiness) is the closest synonym among the options, while 'dishonesty' is its antonym.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.34 [Synonyms]

She is a benevolent individual.

(a) clever
(b) muddled
(c) malevolent ✓
(d) ambivalent

Explanation: This is an antonym question: 'benevolent' means kind and well-meaning; its antonym is 'malevolent', meaning having or showing a wish to do evil. Option (c) is the antonym.

Q.35 [Synonyms]

His sartorial manner is judged.

(a) unstylish ✓
(b) uncompromising
(c) common
(d) crude

Explanation: 'Sartorial' relates to tailoring or clothing style; its antonym/contrasting meaning among the options would be 'unstylish'. If this is an antonym question, (a) unstylish is the answer since sartorial implies stylish dress.

Q.36 [Synonyms]

This piece of art is authentic.

(a) genuine ✓
(b) expensive
(c) rare
(d) fake

Explanation: 'Authentic' means genuine or real; 'genuine' (option a) is the direct synonym.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.37 [Synonyms]

The deluge affected the population.

(a) cloudburst ✓
(b) drought
(c) deforestation
(d) drizzle

Explanation: 'Deluge' means a severe flood or very heavy rainfall; 'cloudburst' (a sudden violent rainstorm) is the closest synonym.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.38 [Synonyms]

His dedication is known to all.

(a) clarity
(b) hostility
(c) apathy ✓
(d) anger

Explanation: This appears to be an antonym question: 'dedication' means commitment and devotion; 'apathy' (lack of interest or concern) is its antonym among the options.

Q.39 [Synonyms]

His perspicacity was remarkable.

(a) smartness ✓
(b) dullness
(c) dedication
(d) deviousness

Explanation: 'Perspicacity' means having a ready insight; being shrewd. 'Smartness' (cleverness/sharpness) is the closest synonym among the options.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.40 [Synonyms]

He has a penchant for spicy food.

(a) tendency ✓
(b) affinity
(c) fear
(d) dislike

Explanation: 'Penchant' means a strong or habitual liking for something; 'tendency' best captures this meaning among the options, though 'affinity' is also close. 'Penchant' specifically implies inclination/tendency, making (a) the best answer.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.41 [Synonyms]

After a good meal, it is important to pay a compliment to the chef.

(a) tip
(b) praise ✓
(c) admonish
(d) revile

Explanation: 'Compliment' means an expression of praise or admiration; 'praise' (option b) is the direct synonym.

Q.42 [Synonyms]

His work is laudable.

(a) praiseworthy ✓
(b) laughable
(c) bold
(d) loud

Explanation: 'Laudable' means deserving praise and commendation; 'praiseworthy' (option a) is the exact synonym.

Q.43 [Synonyms]

Raj is a competent carpenter.

(a) capable ✓
(b) exceptional
(c) inadept
(d) clumsy

Explanation: 'Competent' means having the necessary ability or skills; 'capable' (option a) is the direct synonym.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.44 [Synonyms]

He is diligent in submitting assignments.

(a) dilly-dallying
(b) procrastinating
(c) intelligent
(d) conscientious ✓

Explanation: 'Diligent' means having or showing care and conscientiousness in one's work; 'conscientious' (option d) is the closest synonym.

Q.45 [Synonyms]

He appears to be reticent.

(a) expansive
(b) jolly
(c) silent
(d) withdrawn ✓

Explanation: 'Reticent' means not revealing one's thoughts or feelings readily; 'withdrawn' (reserved, uncommunicative) is the closest synonym among the options.

Q.46 [Synonyms]

He is always jovial.

(a) cheerful ✓
(b) callous
(c) garrulous
(d) credulous

Explanation: 'Jovial' means cheerful and friendly; 'cheerful' (option a) is the direct synonym.

Q.47 [Synonyms]

Mohan remains morose these days.

(a) introspective
(b) generous
(c) chirpy
(d) sullen ✓

Explanation: 'Morose' means sullen and ill-tempered; 'sullen' (option d) is the direct synonym.

Q.48 [Synonyms]

He was a reluctant learner.

(a) enthusiastic
(b) eager
(c) unwilling ✓
(d) fearful

Explanation: 'Reluctant' means unwilling and hesitant; 'unwilling' (option c) is the direct synonym.

Q.49 [Synonyms]

Amit is optimistic about the prospects of his investments.

(a) pessimistic
(b) uncaring
(c) carefree
(d) sanguine ✓

Explanation: 'Optimistic' means hopeful and confident about the future; 'sanguine' (option d) is a direct synonym meaning optimistic, especially in a difficult situation.

Q.50 [Synonyms]

Sachin is very cooperative by nature.

(a) complaisant ✓
(b) covert
(c) complacent
(d) conniving

Explanation: 'Cooperative' means willing to be helpful; 'complaisant' (option a) means willing to please or comply, making it the closest synonym among the options.

Q.51 [Physics – Heat]

What is the mass of a material, whose specific heat capacity is 400 J/(kg °C) for a rise in temperature from 15 °C to 25 °C, when heat received is 20 kJ?

(a) 0.1 kg
(b) 1 kg
(c) 10 kg
(d) 5 kg ✓

Explanation: Using Q = mcΔT: m = Q/(cΔT) = 20000/(400×10) = 20000/4000 = 5 kg.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.52 [Physics – Heat]

The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the quantity of heat needed to change unit mass from

(a) liquid to vapour with a change of temperature
(b) liquid to vapour without a change of temperature ✓
(c) vapour to liquid without a change of temperature
(d) vapour to liquid with a change of temperature

Explanation: Latent heat of vaporization is the heat required to convert unit mass of liquid to vapour at constant temperature (no temperature change occurs during a phase transition).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.53 [Physics – Heat]

Evaporation from the surface of a given liquid takes place more rapidly when

(a) the temperature is high and the surface area of the liquid is large ✓
(b) the temperature is low and the surface area of the liquid is large
(c) the temperature is low and the surface area of the liquid is small
(d) the temperature is high and the surface area of the liquid is small

Explanation: Higher temperature gives molecules more kinetic energy to escape, and larger surface area exposes more molecules to evaporate; both factors together maximize the rate of evaporation.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.54 [Physics – Electricity]

Which of the following statements correctly explains/explain the existence of a positive (repulsive) force between two electric charges? 1. Both the charges are positive. 2. Both the charges are negative. 3. Both the charges are oppositely charged. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Like charges repel each other; so two positive charges (statement 1) and two negative charges (statement 2) both produce a repulsive (positive) force. Opposite charges attract, so statement 3 is wrong.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.55 [Physics – Electricity]

An electric wire of resistance 50 ohm is cut into five equal wires. These wires are then connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination?

(a) 2 ohm ✓
(b) 10 ohm
(c) 0.5 ohm
(d) 5 ohm

Explanation: Each piece has resistance 50/5 = 10 Ω. Five equal resistors in parallel give R_eq = 10/5 = 2 Ω.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.56 [Physics – Electricity]

The electric field lines from an isolated positively charged conducting sphere are

(a) tangential to the conducting surface
(b) at right angles to the conducting surface and towards the centre of the sphere
(c) at any angle to the conducting surface
(d) at right angles to the conducting surface and outwards from the centre of the sphere ✓

Explanation: Electric field lines from a positive charge point radially outward and must be perpendicular (at right angles) to the conducting surface; for a positive charge they point away from (outward from) the centre.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.57 [Chemistry – Mixtures and Solutions]

Which one of the following is not a solution?

(a) Alloy
(b) Milk
(c) Air
(d) Sugar ✓

Explanation: A solution is a homogeneous mixture. Alloys, milk (colloid but sometimes listed as solution in basic texts — however pure sugar by itself is a pure substance, not a mixture). Pure sugar is a pure substance (not a mixture/solution); alloy, milk, and air are all mixtures.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.58 [Chemistry – Separation Techniques]

Refining of petroleum is carried out using which one of the following techniques?

(a) Evaporation
(b) Fractional distillation ✓
(c) Separating funnel
(d) Sublimation

Explanation: Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons with different boiling points; fractional distillation separates them by exploiting these differences in boiling points.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.59 [Chemistry – Physical and Chemical Changes]

Which one of the following is a chemical change?

(a) Dissolving sugar in water
(b) Melting of ice
(c) Crystallization
(d) Milk turning sour ✓

Explanation: Milk turning sour involves fermentation by bacteria producing lactic acid — a new substance is formed, making it a chemical change. The other options are physical changes.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.60 [Chemistry – Chemical Formulae]

Which one of the following is the correct molecular formula of ammonium carbonate if the valency of ammonium ion is (+1) and carbonate anion is (–2)?

(a) (NH₄)₂CO₃ ✓
(b) NH₄(CO₃)₂
(c) (NH₃)₂CO₃
(d) NH₃CO₃

Explanation: To balance charges, two NH₄⁺ ions (valency +1 each) are needed for one CO₃²⁻ ion (valency –2), giving (NH₄)₂CO₃.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.61 [Chemistry – Chemical Bonding]

Which one of the following is a covalent compound?

(a) Calcium oxide
(b) Sodium nitride
(c) Silicon carbide ✓
(d) Zinc sulphide

Explanation: Silicon carbide (SiC) is a covalent network solid formed by covalent bonding between Si and C atoms. Calcium oxide, sodium nitride, and zinc sulphide are ionic compounds.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.62 [Chemistry – Atomic Structure]

The mass number of argon is 40. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The number of protons in argon is 22.
(b) The number of neutrons in argon is 18.
(c) The number of electrons in argon is 18. ✓
(d) The sum of numbers of protons and electrons in argon is 40.

Explanation: Argon has atomic number 18, so it has 18 protons and 18 electrons. Mass number = protons + neutrons = 40, so neutrons = 40 – 18 = 22. Statement (c) is correct: electrons = 18.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.63 [Chemistry – Periodic Table / Valency]

Which one of the following is the correct order of the valencies of elements Ne, Si, N and Mg?

(a) Ne < Mg < N < Si ✓
(b) Si < N < Mg < Ne
(c) Ne < N < Si < Mg
(d) Mg < Ne < N < Si

Explanation: Valencies: Ne = 0 (noble gas, inert), Mg = 2, N = 3, Si = 4. So the ascending order is Ne(0) < Mg(2) < N(3) < Si(4), which matches option (a).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.64 [Physics – Electricity (AC)]

The frequency of an alternating current is 3 Hz. It implies that

(a) there are 6 cycles/s
(b) there are 3 cycles/s ✓
(c) there are 2 cycles/s
(d) there is only 1 cycle/s

Explanation: Frequency in Hz is defined as the number of complete cycles per second. 3 Hz means 3 cycles per second.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.65 [Physics – Electricity]

Which one of the following correctly represents the SI unit of resistivity?

(a) Ω
(b) Ω/m
(c) Ωcm
(d) Ωm ✓

Explanation: Resistivity ρ = RA/L; units = Ω·m²/m = Ω·m (ohm-metre) is the SI unit of resistivity.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.66 [Physics – Electricity]

What is the current required to light a 60 W incandescent bulb in a domestic supply of 240 V?

(a) 0.5 A
(b) 0.25 A ✓
(c) 1.0 A
(d) 5.0 A

Explanation: I = P/V = 60/240 = 0.25 A.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.67 [Physics – Magnetism]

The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying straight wire at a point outside the wire depends

(a) inversely on the distance from it ✓
(b) directly on the distance from it
(c) inversely at short distances and directly at large distances from it
(d) directly on the distance (at short distances) and inversely on the distance (at large distances) from it

Explanation: By Ampere's law, the magnetic field B of an infinite straight current-carrying wire is B = μ₀I/(2πr), which varies inversely with distance r from the wire.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.68 [Physics – Gravitation]

What is the dimension of gravitational constant?

(a) ML³T⁻²
(b) M⁻¹L³T⁻² ✓
(c) M²L⁻²T⁻²
(d) M²p⁻¹T⁻²

Explanation: From F = Gm₁m₂/r², G = Fr²/(m₁m₂); dimensions = (MLT⁻²·L²)/M² = M⁻¹L³T⁻².

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.69 [Physics – Kinematics]

A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 40 m/s. The time taken by the ball to reach the maximum height would be approximately

(a) 2 s
(b) 3 s
(c) 4 s ✓
(d) 5 s

Explanation: At maximum height, v = 0. Using v = u – gt: t = u/g = 40/10 = 4 s (taking g ≈ 10 m/s²).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.70 [Physics – Oscillations]

The time period of a 1 m long pendulum approximates to

(a) 6 s
(b) 4 s
(c) 2 s ✓
(d) 1 s

Explanation: T = 2π√(L/g) = 2π√(1/9.8) ≈ 2π × 0.319 ≈ 2.006 s ≈ 2 s.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.71 [Biology]

Which of the following statements about living and non-living being is/are correct? 1. While living being can demonstrate growth and repair, non-living being cannot. 2. While living being demonstrates metabolic processes, non-living being does not. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: living organisms undergo growth, repair, and metabolism, whereas non-living things do neither.

Q.72 [Biology]

Which one of the following plant plastids stores starch, oil and protein granules?

(a) Chloroplast
(b) Leucoplast ✓
(c) Chromoplast
(d) Xanthoplast

Explanation: Leucoplasts are colourless plastids found mainly in storage tissues; they store starch (as amyloplasts), oils (as elaioplasts), and proteins (as proteinoplasts).

Q.73 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements about 'vacuoles' is not correct?

(a) In plants, there is a large central vacuole that may occupy 90% of total cell volume.
(b) In plant cells, vacuoles provide turgidity and rigidity.
(c) In Amoeba, vacuoles have role in nutrition.
(d) Vacuoles are absent in animal cells. ✓

Explanation: Animal cells do possess vacuoles, though they are small and temporary; the statement that vacuoles are entirely absent in animal cells is incorrect.

Q.74 [Biology]

In aquatic plants, large air sacs give them buoyancy effects. These sacs are surrounded by which one of the following types of tissues?

(a) Parenchyma ✓
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Complex tissue

Explanation: The air-containing spaces (aerenchyma) in aquatic plants are formed by parenchyma cells with large intercellular air spaces that provide buoyancy.

Q.75 [Biology]

Which one of the following belongs to 'Pisces'?

(a) Dogfish ✓
(b) Jellyfish
(c) Silverfish
(d) Starfish

Explanation: Dogfish is a true fish (cartilaginous fish, class Chondrichthyes under Pisces); jellyfish is a cnidarian, silverfish is an insect, and starfish is an echinoderm.

Q.76 [Biology]

Which one of the following groups is called 'amphibians of plant kingdom'?

(a) Bryophytes ✓
(b) Thallophytes
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) Gymnosperms

Explanation: Bryophytes (mosses, liverworts, hornworts) are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom because they live on land but require water for sexual reproduction (fertilisation).

Q.77 [Biology]

Which one of the following is caused by a bacterial pathogen?

(a) AIDS
(b) Dengue fever
(c) COVID-19
(d) Typhoid fever ✓

Explanation: Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi; AIDS is caused by HIV (virus), dengue by dengue virus, and COVID-19 by SARS-CoV-2 (virus).

Q.78 [Physics]

The twinkling of a star is due to the atmospheric

(a) diffraction of starlight
(b) reflection of starlight
(c) refraction of starlight ✓
(d) dispersion of starlight

Explanation: Atmospheric refraction — caused by varying densities of air layers — continuously bends starlight by different amounts, making the star appear to twinkle (scintillation).

Q.79 [Physics]

A mass M is dragged by a pulley on a horizontal plane by a force anti-parallel to its displacement. The work done in pulling the mass M is

(a) zero
(b) positive
(c) infinite
(d) negative ✓

Explanation: Work = F·d·cos θ; when force is anti-parallel to displacement θ = 180°, so cos 180° = −1, making work done negative.

Q.80 [Physics]

A 5N force is defined when a mass of 10 kg is accelerated with

(a) 5.0 cm/s²
(b) 0.5 m/s² ✓
(c) 0.5 cm/s²
(d) 5.0 m/s²

Explanation: By Newton's second law, a = F/m = 5 N / 10 kg = 0.5 m/s².

Q.81 [Physics]

A boy of mass 52 kg jumps with a horizontal velocity of 2 m/s onto a stationary cart of mass 3 kg. The cart is fixed with frictionless wheels. Which one of the following would be the speed of the cart?

(a) 2.15 m/s
(b) 1.89 m/s ✓
(c) 0.25 m/s
(d) 2.51 m/s

Explanation: By conservation of momentum: (52)(2) + (3)(0) = (52 + 3)v → v = 104/55 ≈ 1.89 m/s.

Q.82 [Physics]

The energy possessed by a body due to its change in position or shape is called

(a) thermal energy
(b) potential energy ✓
(c) kinetic energy
(d) electric energy

Explanation: Potential energy is stored energy associated with position (gravitational) or shape (elastic deformation) of a body.

Q.83 [Physics]

A sound wave has a frequency of 1 kHz and wavelength 50 cm. How long will it take to travel 1 km?

(a) 5 s
(b) 4 s
(c) 3 s
(d) 2 s ✓

Explanation: Speed = frequency × wavelength = 1000 Hz × 0.5 m = 500 m/s. Time = distance/speed = 1000/500 = 2 s.

Q.84 [Chemistry]

For an element with atomic number 35, which one of the following will be the correct number of electrons in its valence shell based on Bohr's model of an atom?

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7 ✓

Explanation: Atomic number 35 is Bromine. Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 18, 7 — giving 7 electrons in its outermost (valence) shell.

Q.85 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not an example of a redox reaction? (a) AlCl₃ + 3H₂O → Al(OH)₃ + 3HCl (b) 2NaH → 2Na + H₂ (c) 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃ (d) CuSO₄ + Zn → Cu + ZnSO₄

(a) AlCl₃ + 3H₂O → Al(OH)₃ + 3HCl ✓
(b) 2NaH → 2Na + H₂
(c) 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃
(d) CuSO₄ + Zn → Cu + ZnSO₄

Explanation: The reaction of AlCl₃ with water is a double-displacement (hydrolysis) reaction with no change in oxidation states, so it is not a redox reaction.

Q.86 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following allotropes of carbon is isomorphous with crystalline silicon?

(a) Coke
(b) Diamond ✓
(c) Graphite
(d) Coal

Explanation: Diamond has the same tetrahedral crystal structure as crystalline silicon (both adopt the diamond cubic structure), making them isomorphous.

Q.87 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the colour of hydrogen gas?

(a) Light yellow
(b) Orange
(c) Black
(d) Colourless ✓

Explanation: Hydrogen is a colourless, odourless, and tasteless gas under normal conditions.

Q.88 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not a pigment?

(a) Zinc oxide
(b) Chalk
(c) White lead
(d) Silica ✓

Explanation: Zinc oxide, chalk (calcium carbonate), and white lead (basic lead carbonate) are all used as white pigments; silica (silicon dioxide) is not a pigment but is used as a filler/extender.

Q.89 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements about fertilizers is not correct?

(a) Urea is a phosphorus-containing fertilizer. ✓
(b) Application of fertilizer to the soil increases fertility of the soil.
(c) Urea can be prepared by action of ammonia and carbon dioxide under high pressure and at high temperature.
(d) Urea contains more nitrogen than other fertilizers.

Explanation: Urea [CO(NH₂)₂] is a nitrogenous fertilizer, not a phosphorus-containing one; it contains about 46% nitrogen with no phosphorus.

Q.90 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Most carbon compounds are good conductors of electricity. ✓
(b) Bonding in organic compounds is covalent.
(c) Graphite is used as a lubricant.
(d) Diamond is an allotrope of carbon.

Explanation: Most carbon (organic) compounds are poor conductors of electricity because they have covalent bonds and lack free ions or electrons; graphite is an exception but it is not representative of most carbon compounds.

Q.91 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following reactions is an example of decomposition reaction?

(a) CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g)
(b) 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl₂(g) ✓
(c) CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O
(d) Fe(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → FeSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)

Explanation: A decomposition reaction is one where a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances. 2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl₂ is a classic photodecomposition reaction. Option (a) is combustion, (c) is a redox/displacement, and (d) is a displacement reaction.

Q.92 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills?

(a) They kill the egg.
(b) They kill the sperm.
(c) They kill the zygote.
(d) They inhibit the release of egg. ✓

Explanation: Oral contraceptive pills contain synthetic hormones (estrogen and/or progesterone) that inhibit ovulation — i.e., they prevent the release of the egg from the ovary, thus preventing fertilization.

Q.93 [Biology]

Which one of the following plants has unisexual flowers?

(a) Papaya ✓
(b) Hibiscus
(c) Mustard
(d) Sunflower

Explanation: Papaya (Carica papaya) bears unisexual flowers — separate male and female flowers, making it dioecious. Hibiscus, mustard, and sunflower have bisexual (hermaphrodite) flowers.

Q.94 [Biology]

A cell is unable to synthesize lipids. Which of its cell organelles might be defective?

(a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ✓
(b) Golgi bodies
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Mitochondria

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is the primary site of lipid (and steroid) synthesis in the cell. Defects in SER would therefore impair lipid synthesis.

Q.95 [Physics]

All objects experience a buoyancy when they are immersed in a fluid. Buoyancy is

(a) a downward force
(b) a downward pressure
(c) an upward force ✓
(d) an upward pressure

Explanation: Buoyancy (or buoyant force) is the upward force exerted by a fluid on an object immersed in it, as stated by Archimedes' principle. It is a force, not merely a pressure.

Q.96 [Physics]

According to Fleming's right-hand rule, if the forefinger indicates the direction of magnetic field and thumb shows the direction of motion of conductor, then the stretched middle finger will predict the direction of

(a) force acting on the conductor
(b) electric field
(c) induced current ✓
(d) current

Explanation: Fleming's right-hand rule (used for generators/dynamos) gives the direction of induced EMF/current: thumb = motion of conductor, forefinger = magnetic field, middle finger = direction of induced current.

Q.97 [Physics]

Two resistors R₁ and R₂ arranged in parallel combination in an electrical closed circuit are made of the same material and of same thickness. If the length of R₁ is twice the length of R₂, then the total resistance R satisfies

(a) 3R = 2R₁
(b) 3R = 2R₂ ✓
(c) 2R = 3R₁
(d) 2R = 3R₂

Explanation: Since resistance is proportional to length (same material and thickness), R₁ = 2R₂. Parallel combination: 1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂ = 1/(2R₂) + 1/R₂ = 3/(2R₂), so R = 2R₂/3, giving 3R = 2R₂.

Q.98 [Physics]

What is the magnification produced by a concave lens of focal length 10 cm, when an image is formed at a distance of 5 cm from the lens?

(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5 ✓
(d) 0.33

Explanation: For a concave lens, image distance v = -5 cm (virtual, same side as object), f = -10 cm. Using lens formula: 1/v - 1/u = 1/f → 1/(-5) - 1/u = 1/(-10) → 1/u = -1/5 + 1/10 = -1/10, so u = -10 cm. Magnification m = v/u = (-5)/(-10) = 0.5.

Q.99 [Physics]

A wooden box of mass 2 kg and dimensions (30 cm × 15 cm × 10 cm) is placed on a table with sides 30 cm and 10 cm touching the tabletop. Which one of the following is the approximate pressure exerted on the table?

(a) 111.1 N/m²
(b) 222.2 N/m²
(c) 333.3 N/m²
(d) 666.6 N/m² ✓

Explanation: Force = mg = 2 × 10 = 20 N. Area = 30 cm × 10 cm = 0.30 m × 0.10 m = 0.03 m². Pressure = F/A = 20/0.03 ≈ 666.7 N/m².

Q.100 [Physics]

Why are the tyres of aircrafts made of conducting rubber? • Statement 1: So that the charge accumulated on the aircraft in flight, by rubbing the air, can easily be transferred to ground on landing. • Statement 2: So that the charge accumulated due to the operation of various electronic equipment in the aircraft in flight can easily be transferred to ground on landing. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Aircraft tyres are made of conducting rubber primarily to dissipate the static charge built up by friction with air during flight. The charge from electronic equipment is handled by the aircraft's own electrical grounding systems, not the tyres. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Q.101 [History]

Arthashastra, the classical work of Indian political thought, focuses primarily on

(a) economy
(b) culture
(c) statecraft ✓
(d) monarchy

Explanation: Kautilya's Arthashastra is a treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy. Its primary focus is on the art of governance and statecraft (rajaniti), covering administration, diplomacy, war, and law.

Q.102 [History]

When did Charaka Samhita originate?

(a) 6th Century BCE
(b) 3rd to 2nd Century BCE ✓
(c) 4th Century BCE
(d) 5th Century BCE

Explanation: The Charaka Samhita, one of the foundational texts of Ayurveda, is generally dated to approximately the 3rd to 2nd century BCE, though its content may be older. Option (b) is the most widely accepted scholarly estimate.

Q.103 [History]

Early Buddhist sculptors did not show Buddha in human form. Through which of the following symbols was Buddha's presence shown by the early sculptors?

(a) Empty Seat and Stupa only
(b) Wheel and Tree only
(c) Wheel, Tree and Stupa only
(d) Empty Seat, Wheel, Tree and Stupa ✓

Explanation: In early Buddhist art (aniconic phase), the Buddha was represented symbolically through the Empty Seat (representing meditation/enlightenment), the Wheel (Dharmachakra, representing his first sermon), the Tree (Bodhi tree, representing his enlightenment), and the Stupa (representing his parinirvana). All four symbols were used.

Q.104 [Polity]

The Parliament of India is primarily based on the model of

(a) German Parliament
(b) British Parliament ✓
(c) American Congress
(d) French Parliament

Explanation: India's Parliament is primarily modelled on the British Westminster system of parliamentary democracy. The concepts of responsible government, Cabinet system, Prime Minister, and bicameral legislature are all drawn from Britain.

Q.105 [Polity]

Who among the following had the shortest span in office as the Prime Minister of India?

(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Chaudhary Charan Singh ✓
(c) Chandra Shekhar
(d) H. D. Deve Gowda

Explanation: Chaudhary Charan Singh served as Prime Minister from 28 July 1979 to 14 January 1980 — approximately 170 days — and never faced Parliament. This is the shortest tenure among the options listed (Chandra Shekhar served ~223 days, Deve Gowda ~324 days, Shastri ~587 days).

Q.106 [Polity]

Which one of the following does not fall under the jurisdiction of the apex court of India?

(a) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) Collegiate Jurisdiction ✓
(d) Advisory Jurisdiction

Explanation: The Supreme Court of India exercises Original, Appellate, and Advisory jurisdictions under Articles 131, 132-136, and 143 of the Constitution respectively. 'Collegiate Jurisdiction' is not a recognised constitutional jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.

Q.107 [Geography]

According to the Indian Meteorological Department, which of the following is/are the feature/features of cloudburst? • Statement 1: Heavy precipitation in short period of time in a limited geographical area • Statement 2: It occurs generally during monsoon period and triggers flash flood and landslides Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: IMD defines a cloudburst as rainfall exceeding 100 mm/hour over a limited area (roughly 20-30 sq km). Both statements are correct — cloudbursts occur predominantly during the monsoon season and are a major cause of flash floods and landslides in hilly terrain.

Q.108 [Geography]

In a group discussion on shape and size of the Earth, three students stated the following points: • Student 1: The shape of the Earth is basically an oblate spheroid. • Student 2: The polar diameter of the Earth is more than the equatorial diameter. • Student 3: Bulge along the equatorial region is due to revolution of the Earth. Who among the above students is/are correct?

(a) Student 1 only ✓
(b) Student 1 and Student 2 only
(c) Student 2 and Student 3 only
(d) Student 1, Student 2 and Student 3

Explanation: Earth is an oblate spheroid (Student 1 is correct). However, Earth's equatorial diameter (~12,756 km) is greater than the polar diameter (~12,714 km), so Student 2 is wrong. The equatorial bulge is due to Earth's rotation (spin), not revolution around the Sun, so Student 3 is also wrong.

Q.109 [Geography]

While watching news, you hear about a place, of which you had never heard earlier. You want to know more about the place and you want to locate it on the map. Which of the following is/are required for you to be able to locate the place on the map?

(a) Only latitude of the place
(b) Only longitude of the place
(c) Both longitude and latitude of the place ✓
(d) Latitude, longitude and altitude of the place

Explanation: To uniquely locate any point on a two-dimensional map, both latitude (north-south position) and longitude (east-west position) are required. Altitude is needed for 3D positioning but not for locating a place on a flat map.

Q.110 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements with respect to Global Positioning System (GPS) is not correct?

(a) It is based on network of satellites orbiting above the Earth.
(b) It is based on the system of triangulation.
(c) GPS receivers provide location in terms of latitude, longitude and altitude.
(d) It provides information exclusively for military operations. ✓

Explanation: GPS was originally developed for military use by the US Department of Defense, but civilian use has been freely available since the 1980s (and SA was switched off in 2000). GPS is not exclusively for military operations — it is widely used by civilians worldwide. Hence statement (d) is incorrect.

Q.111 [Polity]

Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Commission of India?

(a) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(b) The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(c) The National Commission for Backward Classes
(d) The National Commission for Women ✓

Explanation: The National Commission for Women is a statutory body established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, not a Constitutional body. The commissions for Scheduled Castes (Art. 338), Scheduled Tribes (Art. 338A), and Backward Classes (Art. 338B after 102nd Amendment) are Constitutional bodies.

Q.112 [History]

Which Chinese traveller visited India and wrote the diary called 'Records of the Travels to Middle India'?

(a) Wang Xuance
(b) Xuanzang
(c) Yijing ✓
(d) Li Yibiao

Explanation: Yijing (I-Tsing), the 7th-century Chinese Buddhist monk, visited India and wrote 'Records of Buddhist Practices Sent Home from the Southern Sea' and accounts often identified as records of travels to Middle India; Xuanzang wrote 'Great Tang Records on the Western Regions'. The specific title 'Records of the Travels to Middle India' is attributed to Yijing.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.113 [Polity]

The elections to the Lower House of the Parliament of India, held in 2019, constituted the

(a) 14th Lok Sabha
(b) 15th Lok Sabha
(c) 16th Lok Sabha
(d) 17th Lok Sabha ✓

Explanation: The general elections held in April-May 2019 resulted in the formation of the 17th Lok Sabha, which was constituted on 17 June 2019.

Q.114 [Polity]

Panchayati Raj Institutions are primarily the institutions of

(a) Popular Government
(b) Self-Government ✓
(c) Good-Government
(d) Quasi-Government

Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) institutionalised Panchayati Raj as units of self-government at the grassroots level, enabling local communities to govern their own affairs.

Q.115 [History]

Which of the following is/are the rights mentioned in the 'American Declaration of Independence'? 1. Life 2. Liberty 3. Pursuit of Happiness 4. Fraternity Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The American Declaration of Independence (1776) states that all men are endowed with unalienable rights including 'Life, Liberty, and the pursuit of Happiness.' Fraternity is associated with the French Revolution, not the American Declaration.

Q.116 [History]

Who among the following American Presidents described democracy as 'Government of the People, for the People and by the People'?

(a) Abraham Lincoln ✓
(b) Thomas Jefferson
(c) George Washington
(d) John F. Kennedy

Explanation: Abraham Lincoln used this famous phrase in his Gettysburg Address delivered on November 19, 1863, during the dedication of the Soldiers' National Cemetery during the American Civil War.

Q.117 [Geography]

Inhabitants are unaware of the speed of rotation of the planet Earth because 1. the angular velocity is constant for each place on the Earth's surface 2. the atmosphere rotates with the Earth 3. there are no nearby objects, either stationary or moving at a rate different from that of the Earth Which of the above is/are the correct explanation(s)?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three reasons together explain why inhabitants cannot perceive Earth's rotation: constant angular velocity means no felt acceleration, the atmosphere co-rotates so there is no wind from rotation, and there are no fixed reference points nearby to detect relative motion.

Q.118 [Geography]

While travelling to a hilly region, you notice a massive boulder, which was loosened by heavy rains and moved downhill. This has resulted due to which of the following processes? 1. Mass wasting 2. Erosion 3. Weathering Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: A boulder moving downhill under gravity is mass wasting (mass movement). Weathering loosens material but does not move it, and erosion involves a transporting agent (water, wind, ice); the direct downhill movement of a boulder is classified as mass wasting.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.119 [Geography]

Which of the following statements in respect of landslides are correct? 1. These occur only on gentle slopes during rain. 2. They generally occur in clay-rich soil. 3. Earthquakes trigger landslides. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — landslides occur on steep slopes, not only gentle slopes. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: clay-rich soils become unstable when saturated, and earthquakes are a well-known trigger for landslides.

Q.120 [Geography]

Consider the following features about a geographical phenomenon: 1. Torrents of snow and ice roaring down a steep mountain side 2. It is hazardous to skiers and mountaineers 3. It involves a mix of falling, rolling, sliding and flowing of materials Which of the following phenomena can be identified with the above features?

(a) Slump and earthflow
(b) Avalanche ✓
(c) Landslide
(d) Rockslide

Explanation: An avalanche is a rapid flow of snow and ice down a mountainside, posing serious hazards to skiers and mountaineers. It involves a combination of falling, rolling, sliding and flowing of snow/ice, matching all three given features.

Q.121 [History]

The real beginning of western education in India can be dated from

(a) the Charter Act of 1813
(b) the Charter Act of 1793
(c) the Sarda Act of 1929
(d) the Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education, 1835 ✓

Explanation: Macaulay's Minute of 1835 marked the real beginning of Western education in India by directing funds toward English-medium education and Western knowledge, leading to the English Education Act of 1835 under Governor-General Bentinck.

Q.122 [History]

The term 'Industrial Revolution' was first used by

(a) J. A. Blanqui ✓
(b) T. S. Ashton
(c) Arnold Toynbee
(d) R. H. Tawney

Explanation: The French economist Jerome-Adolphe Blanqui (J. A. Blanqui) is credited with first using the term 'Industrial Revolution' in 1837, though it was later popularised by Arnold Toynbee through his 1884 lectures.

Q.123 [History]

The Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of the God) was organized by

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan ✓
(c) M. A. Jinnah
(d) M. M. Malaviya

Explanation: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as 'Frontier Gandhi', founded the Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of God) movement in 1929 on the North-West Frontier, which became a non-violent resistance organisation allied with the Indian National Congress.

Q.124 [History]

The Mahad Satyagraha of 1927 was organized by

(a) B. R. Ambedkar ✓
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) S. C. Bose
(d) Lokmanya Tilak

Explanation: B. R. Ambedkar organised the Mahad Satyagraha on 20 March 1927 in Mahad, Maharashtra, to assert the right of untouchables to use the public Chavdar tank, marking a landmark event in the Dalit rights movement.

Q.125 [History]

The Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seeking Society) was set up by

(a) Vinoba Bhave
(b) Jyotiba Phule ✓
(c) B. R. Ambedkar
(d) C. Rajagopalachari

Explanation: Jyotiba (Jyotirao) Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth-Seekers) in Pune on 24 September 1873 to promote social equality and challenge caste discrimination and Brahmanical dominance.

Q.126 [History]

The 13th Century text Lekhapaddhati gives us information on which one of the following topics?

(a) Art of writing
(b) Essay writing
(c) Legal document ✓
(d) Epigraphic style

Explanation: Lekhapaddhati is a 13th-century Sanskrit compilation of model letters and documents that provides valuable information on the forms and conventions of legal and official documents (such as land grants, loans, and agreements) used in medieval India.

Q.127 [History]

Nkrumah was one of the five leaders, who comprised the core of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). He was the leader of which country in Africa?

(a) Nigeria
(b) Kenya
(c) Uganda
(d) Ghana ✓

Explanation: Kwame Nkrumah was the first President and Prime Minister of Ghana. He was one of the founding figures of NAM along with Nehru, Nasser, Tito, and Sukarno, and played a key role at the 1955 Bandung Conference.

Q.128 [History]

The idea of Planning in Independent India was drawn from

(a) the Bombay Plan ✓
(b) the demand made by peasants
(c) the demand made by workers' unions
(d) the Gandhian vision of India's future

Explanation: The Bombay Plan (1944), formally 'A Plan of Economic Development for India', drafted by prominent Indian industrialists including J. R. D. Tata and G. D. Birla, provided the intellectual framework for planned economic development that influenced independent India's planning approach.

Q.129 [Current Affairs]

Nisarga, Gati, Nivar, Tauktae and Yaas are names of

(a) new fighter aircrafts
(b) tourist places
(c) weather stations
(d) cyclones ✓

Explanation: Nisarga (2020), Gati (2020), Nivar (2020), Tauktae (2021), and Yaas (2021) are all names of tropical cyclones that formed in the Indian Ocean region and affected India.

Q.130 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following States/UTs was connected with the Indian Railways network in the year 2021?

(a) Mizoram
(b) Ladakh
(c) Manipur ✓
(d) Sikkim

Explanation: Manipur was connected to the Indian Railways network in 2021 when the Jiribam–Imphal rail project progressed significantly; specifically, the inauguration of a key stretch brought rail connectivity to the state. Sikkim got its first railway station (Rangpo) only in 2024, while Ladakh still lacks rail connectivity.

Q.131 [Current Affairs / Environment]

The forests of Uttarakhand, Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh and Dzukou Valley in Nagaland and Manipur were in the news on account of which one of the following reasons?

(a) Deforestation
(b) Forest fire ✓
(c) Poaching of wild animals
(d) Illegal mining

Explanation: In 2021, massive forest fires broke out in Uttarakhand, Kullu Valley (Himachal Pradesh), and the famous Dzukou Valley in Nagaland/Manipur, drawing widespread national attention and media coverage.

Q.132 [Polity / General Knowledge]

Which one of the following is correct in respect of total number of States and Union Territories in India?

(a) 28 States and 8 Union Territories ✓
(b) 27 States and 9 Union Territories
(c) 30 States and 6 Union Territories
(d) 29 States and 7 Union Territories

Explanation: After the reorganisation of Jammu & Kashmir into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh) in 2019, India has 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

Q.133 [Geography / Physical Geography]

Snow, sleet and hail are the forms of

(a) precipitation ✓
(b) condensation
(c) transpiration
(d) evaporation

Explanation: Snow, sleet, and hail are all forms of precipitation — water that falls from the atmosphere to the Earth's surface in solid or liquid form.

Q.134 [Geography / Geomorphology]

Which one of the following is likely to be the most prevalent form of weathering in hot-tropical desert areas?

(a) Mechanical ✓
(b) Chemical
(c) Biological
(d) Leaching

Explanation: In hot deserts, extreme diurnal temperature variations cause repeated expansion and contraction of rocks, making mechanical (physical) weathering — especially exfoliation and block disintegration — the dominant process; water scarcity limits chemical and biological weathering.

Q.135 [Geography / Urban Geography]

Which one of the following cities was the first to attain the status of a 'megacity'?

(a) London ✓
(b) Paris
(c) New York
(d) Washington

Explanation: London was the world's first megacity, reaching a population of over 1 million in the early 19th century (around 1810), making it the first city to cross the megacity threshold historically.

Q.136 [Geography / Indian Physical Features]

In India, rigid and stable elevated lands, denuded rocks and series of scarps are the features of which of the following?

(a) Northern mountains
(b) Peninsular plateau ✓
(c) Northern plains
(d) Coastal plains

Explanation: The Peninsular Plateau is one of the oldest and most stable landmasses in the world, characterised by rigid elevated terrain, highly denuded rocks, and a series of scarps formed by long geological processes.

Q.137 [Geography / Vegetation / Ecology]

A person had visited a region in India and found trees, such as Khair, Neem, Khejri and Palas. Which one of the following regions is she/he expected to have visited?

(a) Malabar Coast
(b) Garo Hills
(c) Sunderban Delta
(d) Desert Region ✓

Explanation: Khair, Neem, Khejri (Prosopis cineraria), and Palas are drought-resistant trees characteristic of arid and semi-arid desert regions of India such as Rajasthan; Khejri is especially known as the state tree of Rajasthan.

Q.138 [Geography / Geomorphology]

Consider the following statements: 1. Rocks do not remain in their original form for long and undergo transformation. 2. Transformation of rocks is caused by weathering, erosion and metamorphic action. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: rocks are continuously transformed through the rock cycle, and the agents of transformation include weathering, erosion, and metamorphic action (heat and pressure).

Q.139 [Geography / Geomorphology]

Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and transportation are indicators of which one of the following processes?

(a) Denudation ✓
(b) Endogenetic process
(c) Diastrophism
(d) Mountain building

Explanation: Denudation refers to all the processes — weathering, mass wasting, erosion, and transportation — that result in the wearing away of the Earth's surface; these are all exogenetic (external) processes collectively termed denudation.

Q.140 [Geography / Glacial Landforms]

If you want to observe moraines, eskers and outwash plains, which one of the following Union Territories you may have to visit?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Puducherry
(d) Ladakh ✓

Explanation: Moraines, eskers, and outwash plains are glacial landforms. Ladakh, located in the high Himalayas, has active and ancient glaciers that have produced such landforms; the other UTs are tropical coastal/island territories with no glacial activity.

Q.141 [Culture / Classical Dance]

Legendary Kathak dancer Pandit Birju Maharaj died recently. He was the doyen of which one of the following Gharanas of Kathak?

(a) Jaipur
(b) Raigarh
(c) Lucknow ✓
(d) Banaras

Explanation: Pandit Birju Maharaj, who passed away in January 2022, was the foremost exponent of the Lucknow Gharana of Kathak, known for its lyrical grace and expressiveness (abhinaya).

Q.142 [Current Affairs / Defence]

In a first, India is to export BrahMos missile to

(a) Bhutan
(b) Philippines ✓
(c) Maldives
(d) Nepal

Explanation: In January 2022, India signed a landmark deal to export the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile to the Philippines, marking the first-ever export of this missile system.

Q.143 [Current Affairs / Polity]

Who among the following is the Head of the Committee appointed by the Supreme Court of India to enquire into the circumstances that led to the Prime Minister of India's convoy being stuck for several minutes on a flyover in Punjab recently?

(a) Justice Indu Malhotra ✓
(b) Justice Ashok Bhushan
(c) Justice Navin Sinha
(d) Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman

Explanation: The Supreme Court of India constituted a committee headed by retired Justice Indu Malhotra to probe the security lapse in Prime Minister Narendra Modi's convoy in Punjab in January 2022.

Q.144 [Current Affairs / Sports]

Who among the following retired from Test cricket by bagging a wicket on the last ball of his career?

(a) AB de Villiers
(b) Michael Hussey
(c) Quinton de Kock
(d) Ross Taylor ✓

Explanation: New Zealand's Ross Taylor took a wicket with the last ball of his final Test match in 2022, making his retirement memorable; he also scored a half-century in his farewell Test against Bangladesh.

Q.145 [Current Affairs / Science & Technology]

Who among the following is appointed as the tenth Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) recently?

(a) A. S. Kiran Kumar
(b) K. Sivan
(c) K. Radhakrishnan
(d) S. Somanath ✓

Explanation: S. Somanath was appointed as the tenth Chairman of ISRO in January 2022, succeeding K. Sivan; he later led the successful Chandrayaan-3 mission.

Q.146 [Environment / Forestry]

According to the Forest Survey Report, 2021, area-wise which one of the following States has the largest forest cover in India?

(a) Odisha
(b) Madhya Pradesh ✓
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Chhattisgarh

Explanation: According to the India State of Forest Report 2021, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in India in terms of total area, followed by Arunachal Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

Q.147 [Polity / Economy]

Who among the following is the Chairperson of the Goods and Services Tax Council?

(a) The Prime Minister of India
(b) The Union Finance Minister ✓
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The President of India

Explanation: As per Article 279A of the Constitution, the Union Finance Minister is the ex-officio Chairperson of the GST Council.

Q.148 [Environment / Biodiversity]

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has recently categorized the Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) into

(a) deficient category
(b) endangered category
(c) near-threatened category ✓
(d) critically endangered category

Explanation: The IUCN updated the Red List status of Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) to 'Near Threatened' in its recent assessment, reflecting that it faces pressure from illegal logging but is not yet at the endangered threshold.

Q.149 [Current Affairs / Governance]

The Government of India has decided to observe 'Veer Baal Diwas' on

(a) 6th October
(b) 26th November
(c) 6th December
(d) 26th December ✓

Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that 'Veer Baal Diwas' would be observed on 26th December every year to commemorate the martyrdom of the Sahibzadas (sons) of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

Q.150 [Current Affairs / Governance]

On 14th January, 2022, which one of the following ministries has organized a global Surya Namaskar Demonstration programme?

(a) The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) The Ministry of Culture
(c) The Ministry of AYUSH ✓
(d) The Ministry of Tourism

Explanation: The Ministry of AYUSH organised the global Surya Namaskar Demonstration programme on 14th January 2022 (Makar Sankranti), as part of its mandate to promote traditional Indian wellness practices.