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NDA II 2022 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2022 (Session II) Questions: 151 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Antonyms]

Human craving for comfort leads to anxiety. (Underlined word: comfort — select the antonym)

(a) like
(b) dislike
(c) discomfort ✓
(d) complacency

Explanation: The antonym of 'comfort' is 'discomfort'. 'Complacency' is related to comfort but is not its direct opposite.

Q.2 [Antonyms]

His writings on the subject are obscure. (Underlined word: obscure — select the antonym)

(a) murky
(b) vague
(c) obvious ✓
(d) uncertain

Explanation: 'Obscure' means unclear or not well known; its antonym is 'obvious', meaning clearly evident or plain.

Q.3 [Antonyms]

The achievements of the team have been monumental in the last ten years. (Underlined word: monumental — select the antonym)

(a) enormous
(b) memorable
(c) striking
(d) unimpressive ✓

Explanation: 'Monumental' means impressively large or significant; its antonym is 'unimpressive', meaning not worthy of admiration.

Q.4 [Antonyms]

His frail appearance was considered a merit. (Underlined word: frail — select the antonym)

(a) weak
(b) delicate
(c) sturdy ✓
(d) big

Explanation: 'Frail' means weak and delicate; its antonym is 'sturdy', meaning strong and solidly built.

Q.5 [Antonyms]

The novel depicts the hapless status of certain sections of society. (Underlined word: hapless — select the antonym)

(a) wretched
(b) miserable
(c) rural
(d) fortunate ✓

Explanation: 'Hapless' means unfortunate or unlucky; its antonym is 'fortunate', meaning having good luck or being blessed.

Q.6 [Antonyms]

Her ideas have always been eccentric. (Underlined word: eccentric — select the antonym)

(a) special
(b) strange
(c) normal ✓
(d) local

Explanation: 'Eccentric' means unconventional or odd; its antonym is 'normal', meaning conforming to a standard or usual pattern.

Q.7 [Antonyms]

The land appears to be parched. (Underlined word: parched — select the antonym)

(a) dry
(b) desiccated
(c) wet ✓
(d) scorched

Explanation: 'Parched' means extremely dry; its antonym is 'wet', meaning covered or soaked with water.

Q.8 [Antonyms]

The newly made road was smooth. (Underlined word: smooth — select the antonym)

(a) rutted ✓
(b) dangerous
(c) winding
(d) silken

Explanation: 'Smooth' means having an even surface; its antonym is 'rutted', meaning having deep tracks or grooves, i.e., uneven.

Q.9 [Antonyms]

Plenitude is one major cause for environmental degradation. (Underlined word: plenitude — select the antonym)

(a) abundance
(b) insufficiency ✓
(c) ample
(d) plethora

Explanation: 'Plenitude' means an abundance or fullness; its antonym is 'insufficiency', meaning an inadequate amount or shortage.

Q.10 [Antonyms]

The scholar quoted irrefutable evidence for her thesis. (Underlined word: irrefutable — select the antonym)

(a) overwhelming
(b) undeniable
(c) certain
(d) questionable ✓

Explanation: 'Irrefutable' means impossible to deny or disprove; its antonym is 'questionable', meaning doubtful or open to debate.

Q.11 [Synonyms]

Ravi told his friend that he had no intention to malign him. (Underlined word: malign — select the synonym)

(a) benign
(b) slander ✓
(c) praise
(d) greet

Explanation: 'Malign' means to speak about someone in a spitefully critical manner; 'slander' is the closest synonym meaning to make false and damaging statements about someone.

Q.12 [Synonyms]

Sheela appeared to be vexed. (Underlined word: vexed — select the synonym)

(a) clear
(b) calm
(c) displeased ✓
(d) uncomplicated

Explanation: 'Vexed' means annoyed, frustrated or worried; 'displeased' is the closest synonym meaning not pleased or satisfied.

Q.13 [Synonyms]

Do not hold any preconception about people. (Underlined word: preconception — select the synonym)

(a) notion ✓
(b) experiment
(c) great idea
(d) conceit

Explanation: 'Preconception' means a preconceived opinion or idea formed before having full information; 'notion' is the closest synonym meaning a belief or idea.

Q.14 [Synonyms]

All mortal elements are impermanent. (Underlined word: impermanent — select the synonym)

(a) temporal ✓
(b) immortal
(c) never-ending
(d) divinely

Explanation: 'Impermanent' means not lasting or not permanent; 'temporal' means relating to time or lasting only for a time, making it the closest synonym.

Q.15 [Synonyms]

The itinerary of the group's visit to the hills was given to everyone. (Underlined word: itinerary — select the synonym)

(a) invitation
(b) information
(c) schedule ✓
(d) names

Explanation: 'Itinerary' means a planned route or journey, or a detailed plan for a trip; 'schedule' is the closest synonym meaning a plan of activities with their timing.

Q.16 [Synonyms]

The effort was to harness the power of nature. (Underlined word: harness — select the synonym)

(a) abuse
(b) benefit
(c) apply
(d) control ✓

Explanation: 'Harness' means to control and make use of natural resources or abilities; 'control' is the closest synonym in this context.

Q.17 [Synonyms]

The fickle nature of humans is at times the cause of great innovations. (Underlined word: fickle — select the synonym)

(a) vacillating ✓
(b) consistent
(c) strong
(d) wily

Explanation: 'Fickle' means changing frequently, especially as regards one's loyalties or affections; 'vacillating' is the closest synonym meaning wavering between different opinions or actions.

Q.18 [Synonyms]

The flood situation during the monsoon this year was calamitous. (Underlined word: calamitous — select the synonym)

(a) abundance
(b) catastrophic ✓
(c) encouraging
(d) welcome

Explanation: 'Calamitous' means involving calamity; extremely distressing; 'catastrophic' is the closest synonym meaning involving or causing sudden great damage or suffering.

Q.19 [Synonyms]

He was appointed as the honorary member of the team. (Underlined word: honorary — select the synonym)

(a) paid
(b) invited
(c) accepted
(d) unpaid ✓

Explanation: 'Honorary' means conferred as an honour without the usual requirements or functions, and typically without payment; 'unpaid' is the closest synonym in this context.

Q.20 [Synonyms]

The church decided to excommunicate him for his actions. (Underlined word: excommunicate — select the synonym)

(a) admit
(b) reward
(c) expel ✓
(d) promote

Explanation: 'Excommunicate' means to officially exclude someone from participation in the sacraments and services of the Christian Church; 'expel' is the closest synonym meaning to force someone to leave.

Q.21 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: to be successful Q: what it is R: as a human being S: have you ever considered

(a) SQPR ✓
(b) RQPS
(c) QRSP
(d) PRSQ

Explanation: The correct order is SQPR: 'Have you ever considered what it is to be successful as a human being?' — S introduces the question, Q provides the object clause, P gives the goal, R qualifies the subject.

Q.22 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: there is in all instance a single, Q: surrender to the idea that R: authoritative truth to be discovered and defended S: many people today are willing to

(a) RPSQ
(b) SPRQ
(c) RPQS
(d) SQPR ✓

Explanation: The correct order is SQPR: 'Many people today are willing to surrender to the idea that there is in all instance a single, authoritative truth to be discovered and defended.'

Q.23 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: for yourself the implications of death, Q: if you do not reflect and understand R: from one preacher to another S: you will go endlessly

(a) SRPQ
(b) QPSR ✓
(c) RSPQ
(d) QRSP

Explanation: The correct order is QPSR: 'If you do not reflect and understand for yourself the implications of death, you will go endlessly from one preacher to another.'

Q.24 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: a way of understanding the world, Q: a language represents R: and relating them to one another S: differentiating between things

(a) PSRQ
(b) SRPQ
(c) RSPQ
(d) QPSR ✓

Explanation: The correct order is QPSR: 'A language represents a way of understanding the world, differentiating between things and relating them to one another.'

Q.25 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: for India's future Q: mathematics and mathematical thinking R: will be very important S: it is recognized that

(a) QRPS
(b) RPSQ
(c) QRSP
(d) SQRP ✓

Explanation: The correct order is SQRP: 'It is recognized that mathematics and mathematical thinking will be very important for India's future.'

Q.26 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: in agriculture and veterinary sciences through Q: will be enhanced sharply R: programmes integrated with general education S: the preparation of professionals

(a) SRPQ
(b) RQPS
(c) SPRQ ✓
(d) PQRS

Explanation: The correct order is SPRQ: 'The preparation of professionals in agriculture and veterinary sciences through programmes integrated with general education will be enhanced sharply.'

Q.27 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: and should shift the way Q: are certainly very important, R: we think about politics S: the issues raised by feminists and multiculturalists

(a) RPQS
(b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR
(d) SQPR ✓

Explanation: The correct order is SQPR: 'The issues raised by feminists and multiculturalists are certainly very important, and should shift the way we think about politics.'

Q.28 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: by which the genetic material of a plant is altered, Q: pests and enhance its nutritional value R: perhaps to make it more resistant to S: genetic modification (GM) is the science

(a) QRPS
(b) SPRQ ✓
(c) RSPQ
(d) RPQS

Explanation: The correct order is SPRQ: 'Genetic modification (GM) is the science by which the genetic material of a plant is altered, perhaps to make it more resistant to pests and enhance its nutritional value.'

Q.29 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: a much wider array of perspectives Q: the editors of the present work R: the history of social reforms from S: argue the need to understand

(a) QSRP ✓
(b) QPRS
(c) RSQP
(d) SQRP

Explanation: The correct order is QSRP: 'The editors of the present work argue the need to understand the history of social reforms from a much wider array of perspectives.'

Q.30 [Sentence Ordering]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: for which she fought till the end Q: as a champion of women's rights, R: Pandita Ramabai was truly remarkable S: as a pioneer in women's education and

(a) SRQP
(b) QPRS
(c) RSQP ✓
(d) PQRS

Explanation: The correct order is RSQP: 'Pandita Ramabai was truly remarkable as a pioneer in women's education and as a champion of women's rights, for which she fought till the end.'

Q.31 [Spotting Errors]

Our greatest glory is (a) not in never falling but in (b) raising every time we fall. (c) No error (d)

(a) not in never falling but in
(b) raising every time we fall ✓
(c) No error
(d) No error

Explanation: The word 'raising' is incorrect; it should be 'rising'. 'Rise' is intransitive (to get up), while 'raise' is transitive (to lift something). The correct phrase is 'rising every time we fall'.

Q.32 [Spotting Errors]

Rahim was one of that (a) selected for (b) the award. (c) No error (d)

(a) Rahim was one of that ✓
(b) selected for
(c) the award
(d) No error

Explanation: 'One of that' is incorrect; it should be 'one of those'. 'Those' is the correct pronoun to refer to a group of people selected.

Q.33 [Spotting Errors]

Sujini has met her old friend (a) Guru before she shifted (b) to Hyderabad two years ago. (c) No error (d)

(a) Sujini has met her old friend ✓
(b) Guru before she shifted
(c) to Hyderabad two years ago
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Has met' (present perfect) is incorrect in a sentence referring to a completed past action ('two years ago'). It should be 'had met' (past perfect) since the meeting happened before another past event.

Q.34 [Spotting Errors]

This monument happens (a) to be one of the old monument (b) in the city. (c) No error (d)

(a) This monument happens
(b) to be one of the old monument ✓
(c) in the city
(d) No error

Explanation: 'One of the old monument' is incorrect; it should be 'one of the oldest monuments'. 'One of' requires a plural noun, and a superlative ('oldest') is needed when comparing within a group.

Q.35 [Spotting Errors]

Amit told to Divya (a) that he would come (b) with a reward for her. (c) No error (d)

(a) Amit told to Divya ✓
(b) that he would come
(c) with a reward for her
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Told to Divya' is incorrect; 'tell' does not take 'to' before an indirect object. The correct form is 'told Divya' (without 'to').

Q.36 [Spotting Errors]

If you have asked me (a) for the truth I would have told (b) you at that time. (c) No error (d)

(a) If you have asked me ✓
(b) for the truth I would have told
(c) you at that time
(d) No error

Explanation: 'Have asked' (present perfect) is incorrect in a third conditional (past unreal) sentence. It should be 'had asked' (past perfect) to match the structure 'If you had asked... I would have told'.

Q.37 [Spotting Errors]

If I will be the millionaire (a) I would eradicate (b) poverty from the country. (c) No error (d)

(a) If I will be the millionaire ✓
(b) I would eradicate
(c) poverty from the country
(d) No error

Explanation: 'If I will be' is incorrect; in a conditional sentence, the present tense (not future) is used in the 'if' clause. It should be 'If I were a millionaire' (second conditional for hypothetical situations).

Q.38 [Spotting Errors]

A bird in hand (a) is better than (b) two in the bush. (c) No error (d)

(a) A bird in hand ✓
(b) is better than
(c) two in the bush
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct idiom is 'A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush'. The article 'the' is missing before 'hand', making option (a) the error.

Q.39 [Spotting Errors]

The opportunity to attain foundational literacy (a) and pursue a honest livelihood (b) must be viewed as basic right of every citizen. (c) No error (d)

(a) The opportunity to attain foundational literacy
(b) and pursue a honest livelihood ✓
(c) must be viewed as basic right of every citizen
(d) No error

Explanation: 'A honest' is incorrect; since 'honest' begins with a vowel sound (silent 'h'), the correct article is 'an honest livelihood'.

Q.40 [Spotting Errors]

Though there is progress (a) for different directions, (b) why is there no brotherhood? (c) No error (d)

(a) Though there is progress
(b) for different directions ✓
(c) why is there no brotherhood
(d) No error

Explanation: 'For different directions' is incorrect; the correct preposition here is 'in' — 'in different directions'. One makes progress 'in' a direction, not 'for' a direction.

Q.41 [Idioms and Phrases]

A queer fish

(a) A strange person ✓
(b) A good person
(c) An unlucky person
(d) A lucky person

Explanation: The idiom 'a queer fish' refers to a person who is considered strange or eccentric in their behaviour or character.

Q.42 [Idioms and Phrases]

Eat like a bird

(a) Eat very quickly
(b) Eat a lot
(c) Eat continuously
(d) Eat very little ✓

Explanation: The idiom 'eat like a bird' means to eat very small amounts of food, as birds are perceived to consume very little at a time.

Q.43 [Idioms and Phrases]

Lock horns

(a) Be like a bull
(b) Argue about something ✓
(c) Agree with someone
(d) Think about the horns

Explanation: The idiom 'lock horns' means to engage in a conflict or argument with someone, derived from the image of two animals fighting with their horns.

Q.44 [Idioms and Phrases]

Early bird

(a) Low flying
(b) Latest
(c) Ancient avian
(d) First arrival ✓

Explanation: An 'early bird' refers to a person who arrives or acts before others, i.e., the first to arrive or take advantage of something.

Q.45 [Idioms and Phrases]

Be in the pink

(a) To be very healthy ✓
(b) To be very colourful
(c) To be very sad
(d) To be very rich

Explanation: The idiom 'be in the pink' means to be in very good health or excellent physical condition.

Q.46 [Idioms and Phrases]

Be in the running

(a) In a very bad state to speak
(b) In a powerful position
(c) In a good position to win ✓
(d) In a losing position

Explanation: The idiom 'be in the running' means to have a good chance of winning or succeeding in a competition or contest.

Q.47 [Idioms and Phrases]

A sea change

(a) Change in the sea tides
(b) A complete change ✓
(c) Change like sea
(d) Changed sea with pollution

Explanation: The idiom 'a sea change' means a profound or complete transformation, originating from Shakespeare's The Tempest.

Q.48 [Idioms and Phrases]

A pearl of wisdom

(a) An important event in one's life
(b) An important person of wisdom
(c) An important piece of advice ✓
(d) An important thing in one's life

Explanation: The idiom 'a pearl of wisdom' refers to a valuable, wise, or important piece of advice or insight.

Q.49 [Idioms and Phrases]

Be in seventh heaven

(a) To be extremely sorry
(b) To be extremely wise
(c) To be extremely sad
(d) To be extremely happy ✓

Explanation: The idiom 'be in seventh heaven' means to be in a state of extreme happiness or bliss, derived from various religious traditions describing the highest paradise.

Q.50 [Idioms and Phrases]

Be in the red

(a) To owe money to a bank ✓
(b) To get money from one's family
(c) To be in danger of being caught
(d) To be in favour of needy people

Explanation: The idiom 'be in the red' means to be in debt or have a negative bank balance, originating from the accounting practice of recording debts in red ink.

Q.51 [History]

Which one of the following was composed by Harishena?

(a) Nashik Inscription of Gautami Balashri
(b) Prayaga Prashasti of Samudragupta ✓
(c) Deopara Prashasti of Vijayasena
(d) Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela

Explanation: Harishena was the court poet of Gupta emperor Samudragupta and composed the Prayaga Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar Inscription), which eulogizes Samudragupta's conquests and achievements.

Q.52 [Polity / Governance]

Consider the following events: 1. Establishment of the Planning Commission 2. Formation of the National Development Council (NDC) 3. Approval of the First Five-Year Plan by the NDC 4. Constitution of the National Planning Committee Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above events?

(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 4-1-2-3 ✓
(d) 1-4-2-3

Explanation: The National Planning Committee was set up in 1938 under Nehru (pre-independence). After independence, the Planning Commission was established in March 1950, the NDC in August 1952, and the First Five-Year Plan was approved by NDC in 1952 — giving the sequence 4-1-2-3.

Q.53 [History]

Which one of the following battles could be seen as laying the formal foundation of the British Raj in India?

(a) Third Battle of Panipat
(b) Battle of Plassey
(c) Battle of Buxar ✓
(d) Revolt of 1857

Explanation: The Battle of Buxar (1764) is considered to have laid the formal foundation of British political supremacy because it granted the British the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa through the Treaty of Allahabad (1765), giving them real administrative and financial control over India.

Q.54 [History]

Where in South India did the British East India Company construct a trading post in 1639?

(a) Cuddalore
(b) Madraspatam ✓
(c) Kalahasti
(d) Karwar

Explanation: In 1639, the British East India Company obtained land at Madraspatam (present-day Chennai/Madras) from the local Nayak ruler and built Fort St. George there, establishing their key trading post in South India.

Q.55 [History]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Dutch East India Company was formed after the formation of the British East India Company. 2. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut in 1498. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The British East India Company was formed in 1600 and the Dutch East India Company (VOC) in 1602, so statement 1 is correct. Vasco da Gama did reach Calicut (Kozhikode) in 1498, so statement 2 is also correct.

Q.56 [Geography]

In India, a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years is labelled as

(a) cultivable wasteland
(b) current fallow
(c) fallow other than current fallow ✓
(d) barren and wasteland

Explanation: In Indian land-use classification, land left uncultivated for more than one year but less than five years is called 'fallow other than current fallow.' Current fallow is land left uncultivated for only the current year.

Q.57 [Geography]

The major portion of the Great Artesian Basin in Australia is located in

(a) Western Australia
(b) Victoria
(c) Queensland ✓
(d) Northern Territory

Explanation: The Great Artesian Basin is the largest and deepest freshwater artesian basin in the world; the major portion of it lies beneath Queensland, though it extends into parts of New South Wales, South Australia, and the Northern Territory.

Q.58 [Geography]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India has one of the longest navigable inland water networks in the world. 2. Inland waterways presently help in transporting about 25 percent of the total cargo movement. 3. About 111 inland waterways have been declared as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: India does have one of the longest navigable inland water networks and the National Waterways Act 2016 declared 111 waterways as National Waterways — both correct. However, inland waterways carry only about 2% of total cargo, not 25%, making statement 2 incorrect.

Q.59 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Railway Zone) — List-II (Headquarters) A. East Central — 1. Gorakhpur B. North Eastern — 2. Jaipur C. Northeast Frontier — 3. Hajipur D. North Western — 4. Maligaon Code: A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2 ✓
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3

Explanation: East Central Railway HQ is at Hajipur (A-3), North Eastern Railway HQ is at Gorakhpur (B-1), Northeast Frontier Railway HQ is at Maligaon/Guwahati (C-4), and North Western Railway HQ is at Jaipur (D-2), giving the sequence 3-1-4-2.

Q.60 [Geography / Earth Science]

Which one of the following statements about earthquake waves is not correct?

(a) P waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.
(b) P waves can travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
(c) Seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre can record the arrival of P waves.
(d) P waves have maximum area covered under its shadow zone. ✓

Explanation: S waves, not P waves, have the larger shadow zone (103°–180°). The P wave shadow zone exists between roughly 103° and 145°, whereas S waves cannot pass through the liquid outer core and have a shadow zone covering more than half the Earth's surface from 103° onward.

Q.61 [Physics]

The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh), which is equal to

(a) 3·6×10⁶ J ✓
(b) 3·6×10⁵ J
(c) 10³ J
(d) 1 J

Explanation: 1 kWh = 1000 W × 3600 s = 3,600,000 J = 3.6×10⁶ J.

Q.62 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements regarding a current-carrying solenoid is not correct?

(a) The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform.
(b) The current-carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet.
(c) The magnetic field inside the solenoid increases with increase in current.
(d) If a soft iron bar is inserted inside the solenoid, the magnetic field remains the same. ✓

Explanation: Inserting a soft iron core inside a solenoid greatly increases the magnetic field because the soft iron has high permeability and gets magnetized, enhancing the field — so the statement that the field 'remains the same' is incorrect.

Q.63 [Physics]

An object is made of two equal parts by volume; one part has density ρ₀ and the other part has density 2ρ₀. What is the average density of the object?

(a) 3ρ₀
(b) ρ₀
(c) ρ₀ ✓
(d) ρ₀

Explanation: Average density = total mass / total volume. If each part has volume V, total mass = Vρ₀ + V(2ρ₀) = 3Vρ₀, total volume = 2V, so average density = 3Vρ₀/2V = 1.5ρ₀ = (3/2)ρ₀.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.64 [Physics]

A pressure cooker cooks food faster by

(a) increasing the boiling point of water ✓
(b) decreasing the boiling point of water
(c) increasing the melting point of water
(d) decreasing the melting point of water

Explanation: A pressure cooker raises the pressure inside the vessel above atmospheric pressure. According to the relationship between pressure and boiling point, higher pressure raises the boiling point of water above 100°C, allowing food to cook at a higher temperature and therefore faster.

Q.65 [Physics]

Which one of the following wavelengths corresponds to the wavelength of X-rays?

(a) 500 nm
(b) 5000 nm
(c) 100 nm
(d) 1 nm ✓

Explanation: X-rays have wavelengths in the range of approximately 0.01 nm to 10 nm. Among the options, 1 nm falls within this range. 500 nm and 100 nm are in the visible/UV range, and 5000 nm is in the infrared range.

Q.66 [Physics]

An electric bulb is connected to 220 V generator. The current drawn is 600 mA. What is the power of the bulb?

(a) 132 W ✓
(b) 13.2 W
(c) 1320 W
(d) 13200 W

Explanation: Power P = V × I = 220 V × 0.6 A = 132 W.

Q.67 [Physics]

When the pitch of sound increases, which one of the following increases?

(a) Intensity
(b) Loudness
(c) Wavelength
(d) Frequency ✓

Explanation: Pitch is directly related to frequency — a higher pitch means a higher frequency. Wavelength is inversely related to frequency, so it decreases; intensity and loudness are related to amplitude, not pitch.

Q.68 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the correct reactivity series with water?

(a) Zinc > Iron > Lead > Copper ✓
(b) Copper > Lead > Zinc > Iron
(c) Copper > Zinc > Iron > Lead
(d) Zinc > Copper > Iron > Lead

Explanation: In the reactivity series, the order of reactivity with water (from most to least) among these metals is: Zinc > Iron > Lead > Copper. Zinc reacts with steam, iron reacts slowly with steam, lead barely reacts, and copper does not react with water at all.

Q.69 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following metals floats in cold water?

(a) Magnesium
(b) Calcium ✓
(c) Potassium
(d) Copper

Explanation: Calcium (density ~1.55 g/cm³) is lighter than water but heavier than some alkali metals; it does float briefly on cold water while reacting vigorously with it. Potassium also floats and reacts, but the question asks which 'floats in cold water' — calcium is the conventional answer in NCERT-level chemistry as it floats and reacts with cold water. However, potassium also floats; calcium is the standard textbook example for this specific question context.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.70 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following solutions is not capable of conducting electricity?

(a) Copper sulphate
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Sugar ✓
(d) Sodium hydroxide

Explanation: Sugar (sucrose) is a covalent compound that does not ionize in water and therefore its solution does not conduct electricity. Copper sulphate, sodium chloride, and sodium hydroxide all dissociate into ions in solution and are good electrolytes.

Q.71 [Science - Chemistry]

To help deep-sea divers breathe, they carry cylinders of oxygen mixed with

(a) chlorine
(b) helium ✓
(c) nitrogen
(d) ozone

Explanation: Deep-sea divers use a heliox mixture (oxygen + helium) because helium is an inert, low-density gas that does not cause nitrogen narcosis and reduces the risk of decompression sickness compared to nitrogen.

Q.72 [Science - Chemistry]

Which of the following compounds undergoes/undergo thermal decomposition?

(a) Zinc oxide
(b) Silver oxide and zinc oxide
(c) Silver oxide ✓
(d) Magnesium oxide

Explanation: Silver oxide (Ag₂O) decomposes on heating to give silver and oxygen. Zinc oxide and magnesium oxide are very stable and do not decompose under normal heating conditions.

Q.73 [Science - Biology]

The transfer of electrical signals by nerve cells in human body is enabled by

(a) sodium
(b) potassium
(c) iron
(d) sodium and potassium ✓

Explanation: Nerve impulse transmission relies on the sodium-potassium pump; sodium ions rush in during depolarisation and potassium ions flow out during repolarisation, together generating the action potential.

Q.74 [Science - Chemistry]

Silver artefacts get tarnished in air due to the formation of

(a) silver chloride
(b) silver oxide
(c) silver sulphide ✓
(d) silver sulphate

Explanation: Silver reacts with trace hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) present in air to form a dark layer of silver sulphide (Ag₂S), which is responsible for the tarnishing of silver artefacts.

Q.75 [Science - Physics]

Human eye can see objects at different distances with contrasting illuminations. This is due to

(a) far-sightedness
(b) near-sightedness
(c) far-sightedness and near-sightedness
(d) accommodation of eye ✓

Explanation: The ability of the eye to adjust its focal length by changing the curvature of the lens to see objects at varying distances is called accommodation; it is a normal function of a healthy eye, not a defect.

Q.76 [Science - Biology]

Which one of the following hormones increases the heartbeat in mammals?

(a) Insulin
(b) Melatonin
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Adrenaline ✓

Explanation: Adrenaline (epinephrine), secreted by the adrenal medulla during stress, binds to receptors in the heart and increases heart rate and cardiac output as part of the fight-or-flight response.

Q.77 [Science - Biology]

The digestion of fat in human intestine is performed by

(a) trypsin
(b) bile and lipase ✓
(c) bile and amylase
(d) bile and pepsin

Explanation: Bile salts emulsify fat globules into smaller droplets, greatly increasing the surface area, while pancreatic lipase then hydrolyses the triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.

Q.78 [Science - Biology]

Which one of the following statements about animal cells and plant cells is correct?

(a) Animal cells have only cell membrane not cell wall, whereas plant cells have only cell wall not cell membrane.
(b) Animal cells have only cell membrane not cell wall, but plant cells have both. ✓
(c) Both animal and plant cells have cell membrane and cell wall.
(d) Only some cells of animals have cell wall and all plant cells have cell membrane.

Explanation: Animal cells possess only a plasma (cell) membrane, whereas plant cells have both a plasma membrane and an outer rigid cell wall made of cellulose.

Q.79 [Science - Biology]

Lymph is a tissue fluid present in intercellular spaces. It resembles to

(a) digestive juice
(b) cytoplasmic fluid
(c) urine
(d) plasma ✓

Explanation: Lymph is derived from blood plasma that has filtered out of capillaries into intercellular spaces; it has a similar composition to plasma but lacks large plasma proteins and red blood cells.

Q.80 [Science - Biology]

The breakdown of glucose in cytoplasm results in the formation of

(a) pyruvate and energy ✓
(b) pyruvate and carbon dioxide
(c) pyruvate and oxygen
(d) pyruvate and nitrogen

Explanation: Glycolysis, which occurs in the cytoplasm, converts one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate and releases a net gain of 2 ATP (energy), without producing carbon dioxide at this stage.

Q.81 [Current Affairs - Sports]

Rafael Nadal defeated whom among the following to win the French Open Tennis Tournament, 2022?

(a) Austin Krajicek
(b) Ivan Dodig
(c) Casper Ruud ✓
(d) Joran Vliegen

Explanation: Rafael Nadal won the 2022 French Open (Roland Garros) by defeating Casper Ruud of Norway 6-3, 6-3, 6-0 in the final to claim his 14th French Open title.

Q.82 [Current Affairs - Government Schemes]

eSanjeevani, the free telemedicine service of the Government of India, was recently integrated with the

(a) Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission ✓
(b) Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana
(c) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
(d) Universal Health Insurance Scheme

Explanation: The Government of India integrated eSanjeevani with the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to create a unified digital health ecosystem and enable seamless telemedicine services under the national digital health framework.

Q.83 [Current Affairs - Government Schemes]

Which of the following statements about 'SHRESHTA' scheme, launched recently by the Government of India, is/are correct? 1. This scheme is for residential education for students in high school in targeted areas. 2. It provides for high quality education for meritorious but poor Scheduled Caste students. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: SHRESHTA (Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas) was launched to provide quality residential education to meritorious SC students from economically weaker sections; both statements are correct.

Q.84 [Current Affairs - Environment]

In a recent judgement, the Supreme Court of India directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country should have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum of

(a) 1 km starting from their demarcated boundaries ✓
(b) 2 km starting from their demarcated boundaries
(c) 3 km starting from their demarcated boundaries
(d) 5 km starting from their demarcated boundaries

Explanation: In June 2022, the Supreme Court of India ruled that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary must have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone of at least 1 km from their demarcated boundaries.

Q.85 [Current Affairs - Literature]

Who among the following is the author of the book, Tomb of Sand?

(a) Arundhati Roy
(b) Geetanjali Shree ✓
(c) Chetan Bhagat
(d) Jhumpa Lahiri

Explanation: 'Tomb of Sand' (originally 'Ret Samadhi' in Hindi) was written by Geetanjali Shree; it won the International Booker Prize 2022, becoming the first Hindi-language novel to win that award.

Q.86 [History - Industrial Revolution]

Who among the following invented the flying shuttle?

(a) James Hargreaves
(b) John Kay ✓
(c) Richard Arkwright
(d) Humphry Davy

Explanation: John Kay invented the flying shuttle in 1733, a device that greatly increased weaving speed and is considered one of the key inventions that triggered the Industrial Revolution in textiles.

Q.87 [History - Indian Freedom Struggle]

Where did Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose announce the formation of the Government of Free India in 1943?

(a) Singapore ✓
(b) Shanghai
(c) Berlin
(d) Mandalay

Explanation: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose announced the formation of the Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind Government) on 21 October 1943 in Singapore (then under Japanese occupation).

Q.88 [Polity - Constituent Assembly]

Who among the following introduced the 'Objective Resolution' in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December, 1946?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru ✓
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) B. R. Ambedkar
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyar

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly on 13 December 1946, which outlined the objectives and values that would guide the framing of the Indian Constitution and later became the Preamble.

Q.89 [History - Indian Freedom Struggle]

Consider the following historical events: 1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact 2. Second Round Table Conference 3. Peasant Movement in Bardoli 4. Peasant Movement in Kheda Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting from the earliest) of the above events?

(a) 4-1-3-2
(b) 4-3-1-2 ✓
(c) 3-1-2-4
(d) 1-2-4-3

Explanation: Kheda Satyagraha (4) was in 1918, Bardoli Satyagraha (3) was in 1928, Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1) was in March 1931, and Second Round Table Conference (2) was in September–December 1931; correct order is 4-3-1-2.

Q.90 [History - Indian Freedom Struggle]

Which of the following statements about the Unionist Party is/are correct? 1. It was a political party representing the interests of landholders in Punjab. 2. It was opposed to the idea of the partition of India as India and Pakistan. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Unionist Party (Punjab Unionist Party) was formed to represent the interests of landed classes in Punjab regardless of religion, and it strongly opposed partition, preferring a united Punjab within a united India.

Q.91 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements about metamorphic rocks is not correct?

(a) Due to segregation of minerals into wavy bands or platy surfaces, some metamorphic rocks develop foliations.
(b) Where the foliations develop into broad mineral bands, the metamorphic rock is extremely hard.
(c) Where the foliations are moderately thin, the metamorphic rock tends to flake apart.
(d) Rocks that originally were composed of one dominant mineral are often foliated by metamorphism. ✓

Explanation: Monomineralic rocks (composed of one dominant mineral) such as marble (from limestone/calcite) and quartzite (from quartz sandstone) typically do NOT develop foliation because foliation requires contrasting minerals that can segregate into bands. The statement in option (d) is therefore not correct.

Q.92 [Geography]

Which one of the following 'discontinuities' separates the Earth's crust from the mantle?

(a) Gutenberg
(b) Mohorovicic ✓
(c) Conrad
(d) Repetti

Explanation: The Mohorovicic discontinuity (Moho) separates Earth's crust from the mantle. The Gutenberg discontinuity separates the mantle from the outer core.

Q.93 [Geography]

Which one of the following cities of the world would represent the greatest linear velocity of rotation of the Earth?

(a) Kampala, Uganda ✓
(b) St. Petersburg, Russia
(c) Madrid, Spain
(d) Stockholm, Sweden

Explanation: Linear velocity of Earth's rotation is greatest at the equator and decreases towards the poles. Kampala, Uganda is closest to the equator (approximately 0.3°N), giving it the highest linear rotational velocity among the options.

Q.94 [Geography]

What will happen if you are flying east across the International Date Line?

(a) You will lose 12 hours
(b) You will gain 12 hours
(c) You will gain 24 hours
(d) You will lose 24 hours ✓

Explanation: When crossing the International Date Line travelling eastward, you move back one full calendar day — effectively losing 24 hours (the calendar date goes back by one day).

Q.95 [Geography]

The Prime Meridian does not pass through which one of the following African countries?

(a) Morocco ✓
(b) Algeria
(c) Mali
(d) Ghana

Explanation: The Prime Meridian (0° longitude) passes through Algeria, Mali, and Ghana in Africa. It does not pass through Morocco; Morocco lies to the west of Algeria but the meridian runs through eastern Algeria, not Morocco.

Q.96 [Geography]

Piecing together the puzzle of geologic time to create and analyze historical maps of the Earth is known as

(a) paleoclimatology
(b) paleogeomorphology
(c) paleolithology
(d) paleogeography ✓

Explanation: Paleogeography is the study that reconstructs the geographical features of the Earth at various points in geologic time by creating historical maps. Paleoclimatology deals with ancient climates, not maps of landmasses.

Q.97 [Physics]

What is the nature of velocity-time graph for a car moving with uniform acceleration?

(a) Parabola
(b) Logarithmic
(c) Straight line ✓
(d) Exponential

Explanation: For uniform (constant) acceleration, velocity changes at a constant rate with time (v = u + at), which is a linear relationship — represented by a straight line on a velocity-time graph.

Q.98 [Physics]

The amplitude of sound waves is measured in the units of

(a) pressure ✓
(b) distance
(c) time
(d) speed

Explanation: The amplitude of a sound wave is typically expressed as a variation in pressure (pascals), since sound is a pressure wave. While displacement amplitude can be measured in distance, the standard physical measure for sound amplitude is pressure.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.99 [Physics]

A current of 0.6 A is drawn by an electric bulb for 10 minutes. Which one of the following is the amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit?

(a) 6 C
(b) 0.6 C
(c) 360 C ✓
(d) 36 C

Explanation: Charge Q = I × t = 0.6 A × (10 × 60 s) = 0.6 × 600 = 360 C.

Q.100 [Physics]

A DC generator works on the principle of

(a) Ohm's law
(b) Joule's law of heating
(c) Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction ✓
(d) None of the above

Explanation: A DC generator converts mechanical energy to electrical energy based on Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction — a conductor moving in a magnetic field has an EMF induced in it.

Q.101 [Physics]

The presence of magnetic field can be determined using which one of the following instruments?

(a) Ammeter
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Magnetic needle ✓
(d) Motor

Explanation: A magnetic needle (compass) deflects in the presence of a magnetic field, making it the standard instrument used to detect and determine the presence of a magnetic field.

Q.102 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements about speed and velocity is correct?

(a) Speed and velocity both are vector quantities.
(b) Speed and velocity both are scalar quantities.
(c) Speed is vector quantity and velocity is scalar quantity.
(d) Speed is scalar quantity and velocity is vector quantity. ✓

Explanation: Speed is a scalar quantity (magnitude only), whereas velocity is a vector quantity (magnitude with direction). This is a fundamental distinction in kinematics.

Q.103 [Chemistry]

Bronze is an alloy of

(a) Cu and Zn
(b) Cu and Sn ✓
(c) Zn and Mg
(d) Fe and Cu

Explanation: Bronze is an alloy of copper (Cu) and tin (Sn). Brass is the alloy of copper and zinc; option (a) describes brass, not bronze.

Q.104 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following salts does not possess water of crystallization?

(a) Potassium permanganate ✓
(b) Blue vitriol
(c) Washing soda
(d) Mohr's salt

Explanation: Potassium permanganate (KMnO4) does not have water of crystallization. Blue vitriol (CuSO4·5H2O), washing soda (Na2CO3·10H2O), and Mohr's salt (FeSO4·(NH4)2SO4·6H2O) all contain water of crystallization.

Q.105 [Chemistry]

Bee sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The acid released is

(a) tartaric acid
(b) citric acid
(c) ethanoic acid
(d) methanoic acid ✓

Explanation: Bee venom contains methanoic acid (formic acid, HCOOH), which is responsible for the pain and irritation caused by a bee sting.

Q.106 [Chemistry]

Liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid margarine by the use of

(a) hydrogen gas ✓
(b) chlorine gas
(c) carbon dioxide gas
(d) oxygen gas

Explanation: Liquid vegetable oils are hydrogenated (hydrogen gas is passed through them in the presence of a nickel catalyst) to convert unsaturated fats to saturated fats, producing solid margarine — a process called hydrogenation.

Q.107 [Chemistry]

The number of structural isomers of pentane is

(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 3 ✓

Explanation: Pentane (C5H12) has three structural isomers: n-pentane (straight chain), isopentane (2-methylbutane), and neopentane (2,2-dimethylpropane).

Q.108 [Chemistry]

Vapours of sulphur escaping from a volcano often form a crust on the rocks. The process involved is an example of

(a) condensation
(b) precipitation
(c) deposition ✓
(d) evaporation

Explanation: Deposition is the process by which a gas transforms directly into a solid without passing through the liquid phase. Sulphur vapour solidifying directly onto cool rocks is an example of deposition (reverse of sublimation).

Q.109 [Chemistry]

Dry ice is used on a performing stage to produce mist in air. The process involved is an example of

(a) sublimation ✓
(b) evaporation
(c) condensation
(d) precipitation

Explanation: Dry ice (solid CO2) undergoes sublimation — it converts directly from solid to gas without passing through a liquid phase. The cold CO2 gas then causes water vapour in the air to condense, producing the visible mist effect.

Q.110 [Chemistry]

C4H8 belongs to the homologous series of

(a) alkanes
(b) alkenes ✓
(c) alkynes
(d) cycloalkanes

Explanation: The general formula for alkenes is CnH2n. For n=4: C4H8 fits CnH2n (4×2=8), confirming it belongs to the alkene series (e.g., but-1-ene). Note cycloalkanes also have the same formula CnH2n, but among the given options alkenes is the primary answer expected.

Q.111 [Biology]

The protein-digesting enzyme secreted by the stomach wall in case of mammals is called

(a) chitinase
(b) amylase
(c) pepsin ✓
(d) trypsin

Explanation: Pepsin is the proteolytic (protein-digesting) enzyme secreted by the chief cells of the stomach wall as its inactive precursor pepsinogen, which is then activated by hydrochloric acid in the stomach.

Q.112 [Biology]

Which one of the following will be resulted when an animal cell is surrounded by a medium with lower concentration of water?

(a) Cell will lose water ✓
(b) No change in movement of water
(c) Cell will gain water
(d) Cell will swell up

Explanation: A medium with lower concentration of water means a hypertonic solution (higher solute concentration outside). Water moves out of the cell by osmosis, causing the cell to shrink (crenation).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.113 [Biology]

The digestive enzymes are present in

(a) mitochondria
(b) vacuoles
(c) lysosomes ✓
(d) ribosomes

Explanation: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes such as proteases, lipases, and nucleases, earning them the name 'suicide bags' of the cell.

Q.114 [Biology]

After fertilization, the fruit and the seed are produced by

(a) ovule and ovary, respectively
(b) ovary and ovule, respectively ✓
(c) ovary, no ovule required
(d) ovule, no ovary required

Explanation: After fertilization, the ovary develops into the fruit while the ovule develops into the seed; this is a fundamental concept in plant reproduction.

Q.115 [Current Affairs]

Which among the following has initiated a nationwide flagship campaign 'Puneet Sagar Abhiyan' to clean seashores/beaches and other water bodies of plastic and other waste materials?

(a) Indian Coast Guard
(b) National Cadet Corps (NCC) ✓
(c) Indian Navy
(d) Swachh Bharat Mission

Explanation: The National Cadet Corps (NCC) launched 'Puneet Sagar Abhiyan' in November 2021 as a flagship cleanliness campaign to clean beaches, rivers, and other water bodies of plastic waste across India.

Q.116 [Current Affairs]

Which among the following was the host country of the United Nations World Environment Day, 2022?

(a) Canada
(b) Sweden ✓
(c) South Africa
(d) Brazil

Explanation: Sweden hosted the United Nations World Environment Day on 5 June 2022, which also coincided with the 50th anniversary of the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm+50).

Q.117 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following Indian Naval Ships were decommissioned in June 2022?

(a) INS Ganga and INS Nipat
(b) INS Nishank and INS Akshay ✓
(c) INS Khukri and INS Sandhayak
(d) INS Gomati and INS Ranjit

Explanation: INS Nishank (missile vessel) and INS Akshay (patrol vessel) were decommissioned from the Indian Navy in June 2022 after decades of service.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.118 [Current Affairs]

India signed a deal with which one of the following countries to supply MH-60R helicopters to the Indian Navy?

(a) Israel
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) USA ✓

Explanation: India signed a government-to-government deal with the USA for 24 MH-60R Seahawk multi-role helicopters manufactured by Lockheed Martin/Sikorsky for the Indian Navy under the Foreign Military Sales programme.

Q.119 [Current Affairs]

With reference to India's defence, the terms 'Surat' and 'Udaygiri' refer to

(a) coast guard patrol boats
(b) cargo helicopters
(c) maritime patrol aircrafts
(d) warships ✓

Explanation: 'Surat' and 'Udaygiri' are names of Project 15B guided-missile destroyers (warships) of the Indian Navy; INS Surat and INS Udaygiri were launched in 2022 as part of this destroyer programme.

Q.120 [History]

Who among the following laid the foundation of the Vijayanagara Empire?

(a) Harihara and Bukka ✓
(b) Krishnadeva Raya
(c) Rama Raya
(d) Virupaksha Raya

Explanation: The Vijayanagara Empire was founded around 1336 CE by brothers Harihara I (Hakka) and Bukka Raya I, who established the Sangama dynasty with Vijayanagara (near modern Hampi) as the capital.

Q.121 [History]

The book, Kalila wa Dimna is an Arabic translation of the

(a) Hitopadesha
(b) Panchatantra ✓
(c) Suryasiddhanta
(d) Kathasaritsagar

Explanation: Kalila wa Dimna is the Arabic translation (by Ibn al-Muqaffa, 8th century CE) of the ancient Indian fable collection Panchatantra, which had earlier been translated into Middle Persian as Kelileh o Demneh.

Q.122 [History]

Who among the following initiated the Bhoodan Movement?

(a) Ram Prasad Bismil
(b) Vinoba Bhave ✓
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Kanhu Murmu

Explanation: Vinoba Bhave initiated the Bhoodan (land-gift) Movement in 1951 at Pochampalli village in Telangana, requesting wealthy landowners to voluntarily donate land to landless poor peasants.

Q.123 [History]

Which one of the following rivers in India was not crossed by Alexander and his army?

(a) Hyphasis ✓
(b) Acesines
(c) Hydraotes
(d) Hydaspes

Explanation: Hyphasis (modern Beas) was the river at which Alexander's army refused to march further east (326 BCE); Alexander reached its banks but did not cross it, making it the easternmost limit of his campaign.

Q.124 [History]

Who among the following has described the medieval Indian postal system as of two kinds—the horse-post called Uluq and the foot-post called Dawa?

(a) Al-Biruni
(b) Duarte Barbosa
(c) Ibn Battuta ✓
(d) Seydi Ali Reis

Explanation: Ibn Battuta, the 14th-century Moroccan traveller who visited the Delhi Sultanate under Muhammad bin Tughluq, described the postal relay system in his travelogue Rihla, distinguishing between the horse-post (Uluq) and foot-post (Dawa).

Q.125 [History]

At which among the following Harappan sites are fire altars found?

(a) Kalibangan ✓
(b) Harappa
(c) Mohenjo-daro
(d) Rakhi Garhi

Explanation: Kalibangan (in present-day Rajasthan) is the Harappan site where evidence of fire altars (ritual fire pits) has been found, suggesting fire worship or ritual practices; it is unique among Harappan sites for this feature.

Q.126 [Geography]

Consider the following statements on computation of density: • Physiological density can be computed by dividing the total population by the net cultivable area. • Agricultural density can be computed by dividing the total agricultural population by the net cultivable area. • Population density can be computed by dividing the total population by the total area. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3 ✓
(d) None

Explanation: All three statements are correct: physiological density = total population / net cultivable area; agricultural density = agricultural population / net cultivable area; population (arithmetic) density = total population / total area.

Q.127 [Geography]

The formation of 'tors' on small rocky hills is associated with which among the following?

(a) Granite ✓
(b) Limestone
(c) Alluvial
(d) Dolomite

Explanation: Tors are isolated rock formations (stacks of rounded boulders) that form through deep chemical weathering (spheroidal weathering) along joint planes in granite rocks, leaving resistant core-stones exposed after the surrounding regolith is stripped away.

Q.128 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about anticyclones: • Anticyclones are high pressure systems. • Air in the centre of the system must be subsiding. • Anticyclones are characterized by converging winds. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: anticyclones are high-pressure systems with subsiding air at the centre. Statement 3 is wrong — anticyclones are characterised by diverging (outward-flowing) winds, not converging winds (which describe cyclones).

Q.129 [Geography]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? • The Earth's crust is brittle in nature. • The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is 15 km, whereas that of the continental crust is around 30 km. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — the Earth's crust is indeed brittle. Statement 2 is incorrect — the oceanic crust is thinner (about 5–10 km on average), while the continental crust averages about 30–50 km; the figures given in statement 2 are reversed/inaccurate.

Q.130 [Polity]

In January 2020, the administration of which of the following Union Territories has been merged together?

(a) Daman and Diu and Puducherry
(b) Puducherry and Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Puducherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu ✓

Explanation: The Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019 merged the two Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu into a single UT effective 26 January 2020.

Q.131 [Physics - Optics]

Two convex lenses have focal lengths of 50 cm and 25 cm, respectively. If these two lenses are placed in contact, then the net power of this combination will be equal to

(a) +2 dioptre
(b) +6 dioptre ✓
(c) -6 dioptre
(d) +3 dioptre

Explanation: Power of a lens P = 100/f(cm). P1 = 100/50 = 2 D, P2 = 100/25 = 4 D. Combined power = P1 + P2 = 2 + 4 = +6 dioptre.

Q.132 [Physics - Electricity]

Which one of the following terms cannot represent electrical power in a circuit?

(a) VI
(b) I²/R ✓
(c) I²R
(d) V²/R

Explanation: Electrical power is P = VI = I²R = V²/R. The term I²/R has units of A²/Ω = A²·(V/A) / (V/A)² which simplifies incorrectly; since R = V/I, I²/R = I²/(V/I) = I³/V, which is not power. Hence I²/R cannot represent power.

Q.133 [Physics - Optics]

The refractive index of crown glass is close to 3/2. If the speed of light in air is c, then the speed of light in the crown glass will be close to

(a) (3/2)c
(b) (4/9)c
(c) (2/3)c ✓
(d) (9/4)c

Explanation: Refractive index n = c/v, so v = c/n = c/(3/2) = (2/3)c.

Q.134 [Physics - Fluid Mechanics]

The volume of a sealed packet is 1 litre and its mass is 800 g. The packet is first put inside water with density 1 g cm⁻³ and then in another liquid B with density 1.5 g cm⁻³. Then which one of the following statements holds true?

(a) The packet will float in both water and liquid B.
(b) The packet will sink in both water and liquid B.
(c) The packet will sink in water but will float in liquid B. ✓
(d) The packet will float in water and sink in liquid B.

Explanation: Density of packet = 800 g / 1000 cm³ = 0.8 g/cm³. Since 0.8 < 1 (water density), the packet floats in water — wait, that means it floats in water. Actually density of packet (0.8 g/cm³) < density of water (1 g/cm³), so it floats in water. Density of packet (0.8 g/cm³) < density of liquid B (1.5 g/cm³), so it also floats in liquid B. Answer is (a). Re-checking: 1 litre = 1000 cm³, mass = 800 g, so density = 0.8 g/cm³ which is less than both 1 and 1.5 g/cm³, so it floats in both.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.135 [Physics - Fluid Mechanics]

(a) The packet will float in both water and liquid B. ✓
(b) The packet will sink in both water and liquid B.
(c) The packet will sink in water but will float in liquid B.
(d) The packet will float in water and sink in liquid B.

Explanation: Density of packet = 800 g / 1000 cm³ = 0.8 g/cm³. Since 0.8 < 1 g/cm³ (water) and 0.8 < 1.5 g/cm³ (liquid B), the packet floats in both liquids.

Q.136 [Physics - Oscillations]

A simple pendulum having bob of mass m and length of string l has time period T. If the mass of the bob is doubled and the length of the string is halved, then the time period of this pendulum will be

(a) T
(b) T/√2 ✓
(c) 2T
(d) √2T

Explanation: Time period T = 2π√(l/g); it is independent of mass. If length becomes l/2, new T' = 2π√(l/2g) = T/√2.

Q.137 [Physics - Electronics]

In which one of the following devices, the light energy is converted into the electrical energy?

(a) Light-emitting diode
(b) Laser diode
(c) Solar cell ✓
(d) Transistor

Explanation: A solar cell (photovoltaic cell) converts light energy directly into electrical energy via the photovoltaic effect. LEDs and laser diodes do the reverse (electrical to light).

Q.138 [Polity - Panchayati Raj]

Which one of the following is not a power of Panchayats under Article 243G?

(a) Land improvement
(b) Implementation of land reforms
(c) Land consolidation and soil conservation
(d) Regulation of land revenue ✓

Explanation: Article 243G of the Indian Constitution empowers Panchayats with functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule, which includes land improvement, land consolidation, soil conservation, and implementation of land reforms, but regulation of land revenue is a State subject and not listed under Panchayat powers in the Eleventh Schedule.

Q.139 [History - Mauryan Administration]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Mahamattas): A. Anta-mahamatta, B. Ithijhakha-mahamatta, C. Dhamma-mahamatta, D. Nagalaviyohalaka-mahamatta List-II (Function): 1. Women's welfare, 2. Spread of Dhamma, 3. Associated with city administration, 4. In-charge of frontier areas

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-2
(d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 ✓

Explanation: Anta-mahamattas were in-charge of frontier areas (4), Ithijhakha-mahamattas looked after women's welfare (1) — wait, Dhamma-mahamattas spread Dhamma (2), and Nagalaviyohalaka-mahamattas were associated with city administration (3). So A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3, which is option (d).

Q.140 [History - Ancient Indian Literature]

Who among the following is the author of Ashtanga Hridaya?

(a) Palakapya
(b) Vagbhata ✓
(c) Sushruta
(d) Charaka

Explanation: Ashtanga Hridaya is a classical Sanskrit text on Ayurveda composed by Vagbhata, one of the most influential classical writers of Ayurveda.

Q.141 [History - British India]

Which one of the following areas was acquired by the British under the Treaty of Deogaon, 1803?

(a) Cuttack ✓
(b) Murshidabad
(c) Surat
(d) Calicut

Explanation: The Treaty of Deogaon (Deogaon, 1803) was signed between the British East India Company and the Bhonsle ruler of Nagpur after the Second Anglo-Maratha War, by which Cuttack (Orissa) was ceded to the British.

Q.142 [Geography - Transport]

Consider the following statements: 1. Maharashtra State has the maximum share of national highways (length in kilometres). 2. The nature of terrain and the level of economic development is one of the reasons for the maximum share of national highways in Maharashtra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh, not Maharashtra, has the maximum length of national highways in India. Since statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 which is premised on Maharashtra having the maximum share is also not validly applicable, making neither statement correct.

Q.143 [Geography - Economic Activities]

The activities or services focussed on creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas are referred to as

(a) quaternary activities
(b) quinary activities ✓
(c) tertiary activities
(d) secondary activities

Explanation: Quinary activities are the highest level of decision-making and creation/interpretation of new ideas (top executives, scientists, researchers), whereas quaternary activities involve information processing and knowledge-based services. The description of 'creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas' corresponds to quinary activities.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.144 [Current Affairs - Government Schemes]

Consider the following statements about 'Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN)' scheme: 1. It is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market. 2. It creates affordability yet economically viable and profitable flight on regional routes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme was launched to enhance regional air connectivity by making flights affordable for the common citizen while keeping them economically viable through government support. Both statements accurately describe the scheme's objectives.

Q.145 [Geography - Rivers]

Consider the following statements: 1. The Sharavati river creates Jog Falls. 2. The Brahmani river is formed by the confluence of the Kosi and Sankh rivers. 3. The Tamraparni is a river of Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Jog Falls is created by the Sharavati river. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Brahmani is formed by the confluence of the South Koel and Sankh rivers, not Kosi. Statement 3 is correct — Tamraparni flows through Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. So 2 statements (1 and 3) are correct.

Q.146 [Physics - Sound]

SONAR is a device that is used to measure the distance of underwater objects by a ship. Which of the following types of waves does it use for this purpose?

(a) Infrasonic waves
(b) Sound waves in audible range for human beings
(c) Ultrasonic waves ✓
(d) All of the above

Explanation: SONAR uses ultrasonic waves (frequencies above 20,000 Hz) because they have short wavelengths, travel well through water, and can detect small objects with high resolution compared to audible sound waves.

Q.147 [Physics - Sound]

Which one of the following statements about the speed of sound waves is not correct?

(a) The speed of sound waves in steel is higher than that in water.
(b) The speed of sound waves in air decreases with increase in temperature. ✓
(c) The speed of sound waves in air increases with increase in temperature.
(d) The speed of sound waves in water is higher than that in air.

Explanation: The speed of sound in air increases with temperature (v ∝ √T). Therefore, the statement that speed decreases with increase in temperature is incorrect. All other statements are correct — speed in steel (~5960 m/s) > water (~1480 m/s) > air (~343 m/s).

Q.148 [Biology - Human Ear]

The part of the human ear that converts the pressure variations associated with audible sound waves to electrical signals is

(a) auditory nerve
(b) cochlea ✓
(c) eardrum
(d) eustachian tube

Explanation: The cochlea, in the inner ear, contains hair cells that convert mechanical pressure variations (sound vibrations) into electrical nerve signals. The eardrum converts sound waves to mechanical vibrations, and the auditory nerve carries electrical signals to the brain.

Q.149 [Physics - Materials]

Which one of the following metals is most commonly used for making filament of incandescent electric bulbs?

(a) Aluminium
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Tungsten ✓

Explanation: Tungsten is used for filaments in incandescent bulbs because it has a very high melting point (~3422°C) and high resistivity, allowing it to glow at high temperatures without melting.

Q.150 [Physics - Laws of Motion]

A bullet of mass 10 g is horizontally fired with velocity 300 m/s from a pistol of mass 1 kg. What is the recoil velocity of the pistol?

(a) 0.3 m s⁻¹
(b) 3 m s⁻¹
(c) -3 m s⁻¹ ✓
(d) -0.3 m s⁻¹

Explanation: By conservation of momentum (initial momentum = 0): m_bullet × v_bullet + m_pistol × v_recoil = 0. So v_recoil = -(0.01 × 300)/1 = -3 m/s. The negative sign indicates opposite direction to bullet's motion.

Q.151 [Physics - Sound Devices]

A microphone converts

(a) electrical signals to sound waves
(b) sound waves to electrical signals ✓
(c) microwaves to sound waves
(d) sound waves to microwaves

Explanation: A microphone is a transducer that converts sound waves (acoustic energy) into electrical signals, which is the opposite of a speaker (loudspeaker) that converts electrical signals to sound waves.