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NDA I 2023 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2023 (Session I) Questions: 150 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Error Spotting]

Over long periods of time, layers of sediments builds up to a height of a few kilometers. (a) Over long periods of time, (b) layers of sediments builds up (c) to a height of a few kilometers. (d) No Error

(a) Over long periods of time,
(b) layers of sediments builds up ✓
(c) to a height of a few kilometers.
(d) No Error

Explanation: 'Sediments' is a plural noun, so the verb should be 'build' not 'builds'. The correct phrase is 'layers of sediments build up'.

Q.2 [Error Spotting]

When a gas is cooled down it turns into a liquid from a process called condensation. (a) When a gas is (b) cooled down it turns into a liquid (c) from a process called condensation. (d) No Error

(a) When a gas is
(b) cooled down it turns into a liquid
(c) from a process called condensation. ✓
(d) No Error

Explanation: The correct preposition here is 'through' not 'from'. The phrase should be 'through a process called condensation'.

Q.3 [Error Spotting]

If you want to know the news you can read a newspaper. No Error (a) If you want (b) to know the news (c) you can read a newspaper. (d) No Error

(a) If you want
(b) to know the news
(c) you can read a newspaper.
(d) No Error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct as written; all parts are properly constructed and no error exists.

Q.4 [Error Spotting]

Columbus made his first voyage from Europe to America on 1492. No Error (a) Columbus made his (b) first voyage from Europe to America (c) on 1492. (d) No Error

(a) Columbus made his
(b) first voyage from Europe to America
(c) on 1492. ✓
(d) No Error

Explanation: When referring to a year, the correct preposition is 'in' not 'on'. It should be 'in 1492'.

Q.5 [Error Spotting]

Whenever the sky is clear, you can see the stars in the night. No Error (a) Whenever the sky is (b) clear, you can see (c) the stars in the night. (d) No Error

(a) Whenever the sky is
(b) clear, you can see
(c) the stars in the night. ✓
(d) No Error

Explanation: The correct expression is 'at night' not 'in the night'. The phrase should read 'the stars at night'.

Q.6 [Error Spotting]

I'm not working tomorrow, so I don't had to get up early. No Error (a) I'm not working tomorrow, (b) so I don't had to (c) get up early. (d) No Error

(a) I'm not working tomorrow,
(b) so I don't had to ✓
(c) get up early.
(d) No Error

Explanation: 'Don't had to' is grammatically incorrect. It should be 'won't have to' since the context is future ('tomorrow').

Q.7 [Error Spotting]

She didn't tell anybody about her plans. No Error (a) She didn't (b) tell anybody (c) about her plans. (d) No Error

(a) She didn't
(b) tell anybody
(c) about her plans.
(d) No Error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct; 'didn't tell anybody' is a standard negative construction and no error is present.

Q.8 [Error Spotting]

She wouldn't have has an accident, if she had driven carefully. No Error (a) She wouldn't have (b) has an accident, (c) if she had driven carefully (d) No Error

(a) She wouldn't have
(b) has an accident, ✓
(c) if she had driven carefully
(d) No Error

Explanation: In the third conditional, the correct form is 'had' not 'has'. It should be 'She wouldn't have had an accident'.

Q.9 [Error Spotting]

I will watch film if I finish the work in time. No Error (a) I will watch film (b) if I finish the work (c) in time. (d) No Error

(a) I will watch film ✓
(b) if I finish the work
(c) in time.
(d) No Error

Explanation: The article 'the' or 'a' is missing before 'film'. It should be 'I will watch the film' or 'I will watch a film'.

Q.10 [Error Spotting]

In 1989, the government did an about-face and Iran restored it's family planning program. (a) In 1989, the government (b) did an about-face and Iran restored (c) it's family planning program. (d) No Error

(a) In 1989, the government
(b) did an about-face and Iran restored
(c) it's family planning program. ✓
(d) No Error

Explanation: 'It's' is a contraction of 'it is', but the possessive form needed here is 'its' (without apostrophe). It should be 'its family planning program'.

Q.11 [Synonyms]

During the pandemic the indigent people had to suffer a lot. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'indigent'.

(a) very poor ✓
(b) opulent
(c) solvent
(d) prosperous

Explanation: 'Indigent' means lacking sufficient money or resources; 'very poor' is the closest synonym. The other options are antonyms.

Q.12 [Synonyms]

She had no idea what made him angry in one minute and jovial the next. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'jovial'.

(a) aggrieved
(b) melancholic
(c) doleful
(d) mirthful ✓

Explanation: 'Jovial' means cheerful and friendly; 'mirthful' (full of mirth/laughter) is the closest synonym. The other options denote sadness or grief.

Q.13 [Synonyms]

It is sheer lunacy to drive a car in this frosty weather. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'lunacy'.

(a) prudence
(b) normalcy
(c) insanity ✓
(d) sanity

Explanation: 'Lunacy' means extreme foolishness or mental unsoundness; 'insanity' is the closest synonym. 'Prudence' and 'sanity' are antonyms.

Q.14 [Synonyms]

Operating on a child with cancer needs meticulous planning and teamwork. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'meticulous'.

(a) strong
(b) long
(c) playful
(d) scrupulous ✓

Explanation: 'Meticulous' means showing great attention to detail; 'scrupulous' is the closest synonym, as it also means being very careful and thorough.

Q.15 [Synonyms]

The thrill of over-speeding the vehicle can be exhilarating, but it is important not to take the consequences lightly. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'exhilarating'.

(a) humdrum
(b) dreary
(c) exciting ✓
(d) agitating

Explanation: 'Exhilarating' means making one feel very happy and animated; 'exciting' is the closest synonym. 'Humdrum' and 'dreary' are antonyms.

Q.16 [Synonyms]

The redemption will now depend on his new strategy of inclusiveness. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'redemption'.

(a) retrieval ✓
(b) forfeiture
(c) corporation
(d) desecration

Explanation: 'Redemption' means the action of saving or being saved from sin, error, or evil; also means recovery or retrieval. 'Retrieval' is the closest synonym here.

Q.17 [Synonyms]

Only three candidates are now in contention for the title. Select the option nearest in meaning to the phrase 'in contention'.

(a) involved in dispute
(b) in agreement with each other
(c) chance of winning ✓
(d) amiable to each other

Explanation: 'In contention' means having a realistic chance of winning or achieving something; option (c) 'chance of winning' best captures this meaning.

Q.18 [Synonyms]

All my fishing paraphernalia is in the car. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'paraphernalia'.

(a) boxes
(b) accessories ✓
(c) fuel
(d) food

Explanation: 'Paraphernalia' means miscellaneous articles, especially the equipment needed for a particular activity; 'accessories' is the closest synonym.

Q.19 [Synonyms]

The public watched in astonishment as he took a sudden jump from the bridge. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'astonishment'.

(a) anticipation
(b) hurriedly
(c) wonderment ✓
(d) calmness

Explanation: 'Astonishment' means great surprise or amazement; 'wonderment' is the closest synonym as it also conveys a feeling of surprise and admiration.

Q.20 [Synonyms]

Drinking inordinate amount of liquor is not good for health. Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'inordinate'.

(a) temperate
(b) exorbitant ✓
(c) moderate
(d) regular

Explanation: 'Inordinate' means unusually or disproportionately large; 'exorbitant' is the closest synonym meaning unreasonably excessive. 'Temperate' and 'moderate' are antonyms.

Q.21 [Ordering of Words in a Sentence]

Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a correct sentence: P: because I feel Q: you remember it better R: when you write something, S: I make at least three drafts of a song The correct sequence should be:

(a) SPRQ ✓
(b) RQPS
(c) QRSP
(d) PRSQ

Explanation: The logical order is: S (I make at least three drafts of a song) + P (because I feel) + R (when you write something,) + Q (you remember it better) — giving 'I make at least three drafts of a song because I feel when you write something, you remember it better.' SPRQ is the correct sequence.

Q.22 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: for hours in the shop Q: a gunman who held R: a hostage S: demanded ransom of ₹10 lakh

(a) SPRQ
(b) RQPS
(c) QRPS ✓
(d) PRSQ

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (a gunman who held) + R (a hostage) + P (for hours in the shop) + S (demanded ransom of ₹10 lakh) — giving 'a gunman who held a hostage for hours in the shop demanded ransom of ₹10 lakh.'

Q.23 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: living in Russia Q: country immediately R: Ukraine has urged its citizens S: to leave the

(a) SPRQ
(b) RPSQ
(c) RSQP ✓
(d) PRSQ

Explanation: The logical order is: R (Ukraine has urged its citizens) + S (to leave the) + Q (country immediately) + P (living in Russia) — giving 'Ukraine has urged its citizens to leave the country immediately living in Russia.' RSQP is the best fit among the options.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.24 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: ripping roofs off houses and raising fears of Q: coast of Madagascar in the early hours, R: cyclone Emnati crashed into the southeastern S: flooding and food shortages in the region

(a) SPRQ
(b) RPSQ
(c) RQPS ✓
(d) PRSQ

Explanation: The logical order is: R (cyclone Emnati crashed into the southeastern) + Q (coast of Madagascar in the early hours,) + P (ripping roofs off houses and raising fears of) + S (flooding and food shortages in the region) — a complete, coherent sentence.

Q.25 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: ecology is protected and aquatic life thrives Q: we need to utilize the resources of water R: for different purposes while ensuring that its natural S: (connector)

(a) SPRQ
(b) RQPS
(c) QRSP ✓
(d) PRSQ

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (we need to utilize the resources of water) + R (for different purposes while ensuring that its natural) + S + P (ecology is protected and aquatic life thrives) — QRSP forms the most coherent sentence.

Q.26 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: very difficult Q: the poor visibility R: made the movement of traffic S: due to fog

(a) SPRQ
(b) RQPS
(c) QRPS
(d) QSRP ✓

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (the poor visibility) + S (due to fog) + R (made the movement of traffic) + P (very difficult) — giving 'the poor visibility due to fog made the movement of traffic very difficult.'

Q.27 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: avenues for the patients to indict Q: but rarely is it the other way round R: there are multiple legal S: the doctors

(a) SPRQ
(b) RPSQ ✓
(c) QRPS
(d) QSRP

Explanation: The logical order is: R (there are multiple legal) + P (avenues for the patients to indict) + S (the doctors) + Q (but rarely is it the other way round) — giving a complete, meaningful sentence about legal recourse against doctors.

Q.28 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: flight, and each person Q: her own journey R: life is a solo S: makes his or

(a) SPRQ
(b) RPQS
(c) RPSQ ✓
(d) PQRS

Explanation: The logical order is: R (life is a solo) + P (flight, and each person) + S (makes his or) + Q (her own journey) — giving 'life is a solo flight, and each person makes his or her own journey.'

Q.29 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: made it evolve Q: technologies and equipment has R: into a rare centre of excellence S: adoption of the latest

(a) PQRS
(b) RPQS
(c) SQPR ✓
(d) QSRP

Explanation: The logical order is: S (adoption of the latest) + Q (technologies and equipment has) + P (made it evolve) + R (into a rare centre of excellence) — giving 'adoption of the latest technologies and equipment has made it evolve into a rare centre of excellence.'

Q.30 [Sentence Ordering]

Rearrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: please mark the same Q: be made in response to this notice R: if you have any complaint to S: to the concerned authority

(a) PQRS
(b) RPQS
(c) SQPR
(d) RQPS ✓

Explanation: The logical order is: R (if you have any complaint to) + Q (be made in response to this notice) + P (please mark the same) + S (to the concerned authority) — giving a coherent instruction sentence.

Q.31 [Synonyms]

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the underlined word: 'The parental support can fortify a child's learning.'

(a) weaken
(b) encourage
(c) brace
(d) strengthen ✓

Explanation: 'Fortify' means to strengthen or make stronger. 'Strengthen' is the closest synonym; 'brace' is partially correct but less precise.

Q.32 [Synonyms]

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the underlined word: 'Now we can have another dazzling thought, as an outcome of my brilliant research!'

(a) splendid ✓
(b) murky
(c) dazing
(d) fulgent

Explanation: 'Dazzling' means impressively beautiful or brilliant. 'Splendid' is the best everyday synonym; 'fulgent' also means shining but is archaic, while 'splendid' captures the sense most directly.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.33 [Antonyms]

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word: 'The group held some clandestine meetings to resolve the matter.'

(a) secret
(b) covert
(c) sneaky
(d) public ✓

Explanation: 'Clandestine' means secret or hidden. Its antonym is 'public', which means open and known to all.

Q.34 [Antonyms]

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word: 'In the winters, the countryside view is bleak and the house is drafty.'

(a) cheerless
(b) verdant ✓
(c) desolate
(d) bare

Explanation: 'Bleak' means lacking warmth, color, or cheer; barren. Its antonym is 'verdant', meaning green and lush with vegetation, conveying the opposite of a bleak landscape.

Q.35 [Antonyms]

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word: 'Amid commotion the leader and his supporters remained passive.'

(a) quietude ✓
(b) uproar
(c) tempest
(d) stir

Explanation: 'Commotion' means a state of noisy confusion or excitement. Its antonym is 'quietude', meaning a state of stillness and calm.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.36 [Synonyms]

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the underlined word: 'He had the audacity to blame him.'

(a) boldness
(b) vigour
(c) temerity ✓
(d) politeness

Explanation: 'Audacity' means the willingness to take bold risks, often implying impudence. 'Temerity' is the closest synonym, meaning reckless boldness; 'boldness' is also correct but less precise than 'temerity' in capturing the negative connotation.

Q.37 [Antonyms]

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word: 'They are making plans for the abatement of the nuisance within a specified time.'

(a) subsidence
(b) ebbing
(c) accumulation ✓
(d) mitigation

Explanation: 'Abatement' means a reduction or decrease. Its antonym is 'accumulation', meaning a buildup or increase. 'Subsidence', 'ebbing', and 'mitigation' are all synonyms of abatement.

Q.38 [Antonyms]

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word: 'There is exponential growth in the development of the scientific researches in the recent few decades.'

(a) aggressive
(b) rampant
(c) meager ✓
(d) augmented

Explanation: 'Exponential' in this context implies rapid, large-scale growth. Its antonym is 'meager', meaning small in quantity or lacking in quality.

Q.39 [Antonyms]

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word: 'He was known for his sagacity.'

(a) prudence
(b) wisdom
(c) ignorance ✓
(d) sapience

Explanation: 'Sagacity' means keen mental discernment and sound judgment; wisdom. Its antonym is 'ignorance', meaning lack of knowledge or wisdom.

Q.40 [Antonyms]

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word: 'The river Ganges culminates in the Bay of Bengal.'

(a) concludes
(b) flows
(c) originates ✓
(d) merges

Explanation: 'Culminates' means reaches the highest point or ends. Its antonym in the context of a river is 'originates', meaning where the river begins — the opposite of where it ends.

Q.41 [Idioms and Phrases]

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the idiom/phrase: 'The lion's share'

(a) A portion of something
(b) The largest and the best part of something ✓
(c) An important decision
(d) An aggressive statement

Explanation: 'The lion's share' is an idiom meaning the largest or best part of something, originating from Aesop's fable where the lion claims the greatest portion.

Q.42 [Idioms and Phrases]

Spill the beans

(a) Reveal a secret ✓
(b) Forced to leave belongings
(c) Share the news
(d) Take offence at someone's rude behaviour

Explanation: 'Spill the beans' means to reveal secret or confidential information, often unintentionally.

Q.43 [Idioms and Phrases]

Cook someone's goose

(a) To quit early
(b) Hypnotize others' mind
(c) To spoil others' plans ✓
(d) Inviting misfortune

Explanation: 'Cook someone's goose' means to ruin or spoil someone's plans or chances, leaving them in a difficult situation.

Q.44 [Idioms and Phrases]

Disappear into thin air

(a) Lost forever
(b) Become forgetful
(c) Become uncaring
(d) Disappear suddenly ✓

Explanation: 'Disappear into thin air' means to vanish suddenly and completely without leaving any trace.

Q.45 [Idioms and Phrases]

Put the screws on

(a) Forcing someone to do what you want ✓
(b) Never letting go of things
(c) Keep the past alive
(d) Using someone's trick for own benefit

Explanation: 'Put the screws on' means to pressure or coerce someone into doing what you want, often by applying force or threats.

Q.46 [Idioms and Phrases]

Sit on the fence

(a) Avoid meeting someone
(b) Waiting patiently
(c) Avoid taking sides ✓
(d) Hiding from someone

Explanation: 'Sit on the fence' means to remain neutral and avoid committing to either side of an argument or dispute.

Q.47 [Idioms and Phrases]

Be as sharp as a tack

(a) A talkative person
(b) A shrewd person
(c) A clumsy person
(d) A clever person ✓

Explanation: 'As sharp as a tack' means to be very intelligent or mentally quick; 'clever' best captures the meaning, though 'shrewd' is close, the phrase emphasizes quickness of mind and intelligence more broadly.

Q.48 [Idioms and Phrases]

From pillar to post

(a) Upside down
(b) Keep moving from one place to another ✓
(c) Constructing a huge building
(d) Jumping from the top of the mountain

Explanation: 'From pillar to post' means being forced to move repeatedly from one place to another, often in a frustrating or helpless manner.

Q.49 [Idioms and Phrases]

Heath Robinson

(a) Very complicated system or machine for doing a simple task ✓
(b) Treating everyone as enemy, when they are not
(c) Sleeping all day, doing nothing
(d) Very lazy person, slow in action

Explanation: 'Heath Robinson' (from the British cartoonist W. Heath Robinson) refers to an absurdly over-complicated contraption or scheme designed to perform a very simple task.

Q.50 [Idioms and Phrases]

As thick as thieves

(a) Dumb person
(b) Good for nothing
(c) Someone who uses everyone for personal gain
(d) Very close friends who are looked upon with suspicion ✓

Explanation: 'As thick as thieves' means very close or intimate friends, often used to describe people who are so close that others may be suspicious of their relationship.

Q.51 [Physics]

Two identical spring balances S₁ and S₂ are connected one after the other and are held vertically as shown in the figure. A mass of 10 kg is hanging from S₂. If the readings on S₁ and S₂ are W₁ and W₂ respectively, then:

(a) W₁ = 5 kg and W₂ = 10 kg
(b) W₁ = 10 kg and W₂ = 5 kg
(c) W₁ = 5 kg and W₂ = 5 kg
(d) W₁ = 10 kg and W₂ = 10 kg ✓

Explanation: Each spring balance in series reads the full weight of the load hanging below it. S₂ supports the 10 kg mass directly (reads 10 kg), and S₁ supports the combined weight of S₂ and the 10 kg mass; since S₂ is identical and its own weight is neglected in ideal spring balance problems, S₁ also reads 10 kg.

Q.52 [Physics]

A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high building with a speed of 12 m/s. It hits the ground at a distance R from the building. Taking g = 10 m/s² and neglecting air resistance will give:

(a) R = 12 m
(b) R = 18 m
(c) R = 24 m ✓
(d) R = 30 m

Explanation: Time to fall: h = ½gt² → 20 = ½×10×t² → t = 2 s. Horizontal range R = 12 × 2 = 24 m.

Q.53 [Physics]

A sphere of volume V is made of a material with lower density than water. While on Earth, it floats on water with its volume f₁V (f₁ < 1) submerged. On the other hand, on a spaceship accelerating with acceleration a < g (g is the acceleration due to gravity on Earth) in outer space, its submerged volume in water is f₂V. Then:

(a) f₂ = f₁ ✓
(b) f₂ > (1 - a/g) f₁
(c) f₂ < f₁
(d) f₂ = (a/g) f₁

Explanation: The floating condition requires ρ_sphere = f × ρ_water regardless of the effective gravitational acceleration (both buoyancy and weight scale identically with the effective g). Therefore f₂ = f₁.

Q.54 [Physics]

Two identical containers X and Y are connected at the bottom by a thin tube of negligible volume. The tube has a valve in it. Initially, container X has a liquid filled up to height h in it and container Y is empty. When the valve is opened, both containers have equal amount of liquid in equilibrium. If the initial (before the valve is opened) potential energy of the liquid is P₁ and the final potential energy is P₂:

(a) P₁ = P₂
(b) P₁ = 4P₂
(c) P₁ = 2P₂ ✓
(d) P₁ = 8P₂

Explanation: Initially all liquid of height h in X has its centre of mass at h/2, giving P₁ = mgh/2. Finally liquid splits equally to height h/2 in each container, with centre of mass at h/4 in each; total P₂ = mg(h/4), so P₁/P₂ = 2, i.e., P₁ = 2P₂.

Q.55 [Physics]

A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with a constant speed v. Its average acceleration over the time when it moves over half the circle is:

(a) v²/πR
(b) 2v²/πR ✓
(c) 2v/π
(d) v²/R

Explanation: The change in velocity over a semicircle is 2v (velocity reverses direction). Time for half circle = πR/v. Average acceleration = Δv/Δt = 2v/(πR/v) = 2v²/(πR).

Q.56 [Physics]

Two forces of 5.0 N each are acting on a point mass. If the angle between the forces is 60°, then the net force acting on the point mass has magnitude close to:

(a) 8.6 N ✓
(b) 4.3 N
(c) 5.0 N
(d) 6.7 N

Explanation: Net force = √(F₁² + F₂² + 2F₁F₂cosθ) = √(25 + 25 + 2×25×cos60°) = √(25+25+25) = √75 ≈ 8.66 N ≈ 8.6 N.

Q.57 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?

(a) Granite
(b) Slate ✓
(c) Basalt
(d) Gabbro

Explanation: Slate is a metamorphic rock formed from shale under heat and pressure. Granite, basalt, and gabbro are all igneous rocks formed from cooled magma or lava.

Q.58 [Geography]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Hypocenter is the point on the surface of the Earth, nearest to the focus. 2. Velocity of earthquake waves is higher in denser materials. 3. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — the epicenter (not hypocenter/focus) is the surface point nearest to the focus. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: seismic waves travel faster in denser, more rigid materials, and P-waves (primary waves) are compressional and fastest, arriving first.

Q.59 [Geography]

In terms of geological time scale, the Quaternary period consists of two epochs. They are:

(a) Pleistocene and Pliocene
(b) Holocene and Pleistocene ✓
(c) Pleistocene and Miocene
(d) Holocene and Eocene

Explanation: The Quaternary period is divided into two epochs: the Pleistocene (older, ~2.58 million years ago to ~11,700 years ago) and the Holocene (current epoch, from ~11,700 years ago to present).

Q.60 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of arrangement of the given planets in descending order of their density (in gm/cm³)?

(a) Earth > Jupiter > Venus > Saturn
(b) Jupiter > Earth > Saturn > Venus
(c) Earth > Venus > Jupiter > Saturn ✓
(d) Earth > Venus > Saturn > Jupiter

Explanation: Approximate densities: Earth ~5.51, Venus ~5.24, Jupiter ~1.33, Saturn ~0.69 g/cm³. Descending order: Earth > Venus > Jupiter > Saturn.

Q.61 [Geography]

Which one of the following is not a cold current?

(a) Western Australian Current
(b) Eastern Australian Current ✓
(c) Benguela Current
(d) Peru Current

Explanation: The Eastern Australian Current flows southward along the east coast of Australia and is a warm ocean current. The Western Australian Current, Benguela Current, and Peru Current are all cold currents.

Q.62 [Geography]

The process of Podsolization is predominantly found in:

(a) Equatorial forest
(b) Monsoon forest
(c) Taiga forest ✓
(d) Mediterranean forest

Explanation: Podsolization is the soil-forming process characteristic of cool, humid climates under coniferous (taiga/boreal) forests, where leaching removes iron and aluminium from the upper soil horizon.

Q.63 [Defence & Current Affairs]

Joint Military exercise 'Keen Sword 23' was conducted between:

(a) India and Japan
(b) India and USA
(c) USA and Japan ✓
(d) Japan and Taiwan

Explanation: Keen Sword is a biennial joint military exercise conducted between the United States and Japan; the 2022 edition (Keen Sword 23) was held between US and Japanese forces.

Q.64 [Defence & Current Affairs]

The Battle of Rezang La, an epic battle in hostile conditions, was fought by the Indian Army in:

(a) 1948
(b) 1956
(c) 1962 ✓
(d) 1972

Explanation: The Battle of Rezang La was fought on 18 November 1962 during the Sino-Indian War, where Charlie Company of 13 Kumaon Regiment made a heroic last stand against Chinese forces.

Q.65 [Defence & Current Affairs]

Consider the following statements about 'Exercise Sea Vigil-22': 1. Its aim is to assess India's preparedness in the domain of Maritime security and coastal defence. 2. Naval forces of USA and Japan also took part in the exercise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Exercise Sea Vigil is a pan-India coastal defence exercise conducted exclusively by Indian agencies (Indian Navy, Coast Guard, and other maritime stakeholders) to assess coastal security preparedness; foreign navies do not participate in it.

Q.66 [Sports]

Consider the following statements: 1. England is the only country that won the ICC T20 World Cup twice. 2. Virat Kohli is the only player to be adjudged as the Player of the Series in the ICC T20 World Cup twice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: As of the 2022 ICC T20 World Cup (the reference point for this 2023 paper), England won the tournament in 2010 and 2022 — the only country to win it twice at that time. Statement 2 is incorrect; Player of the Series awards have gone to multiple players across editions and Kohli did not win it twice.

Q.67 [Science & Current Affairs]

Who among the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2022?

(a) Carolyn R. Bertozzi
(b) Benjamin List ✓
(c) Morten Meldal
(d) K. Barry Sharpless

Explanation: The 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to Carolyn R. Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, and K. Barry Sharpless for click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry. Benjamin List won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2021 (for asymmetric organocatalysis), not 2022.

Q.68 [Biology]

Consider the following statements regarding cell wall composition: 1. Bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan. 2. Fungal cell wall is made of cellulose. 3. Animals lack cell wall and have extracellular matrix made up of sugar and proteins. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only ✓
(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (bacterial cell walls contain peptidoglycan). Statement 2 is incorrect — fungal cell walls are made of chitin, not cellulose. Statement 3 is correct — animal cells lack a cell wall and instead have an extracellular matrix composed of glycoproteins and proteoglycans (sugars and proteins).

Q.69 [Biology]

Which one of the following structures is not present in a prokaryotic cell?

(a) Cell wall
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Nucleus ✓
(d) Plasma membrane

Explanation: Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus; their genetic material is present in the nucleoid region but is not enclosed by a nuclear envelope. Cell wall, ribosomes, and plasma membrane are all present in prokaryotes.

Q.70 [Biology]

In a plant cell, which one of the following contains their own DNA?

(a) Nucleus and Endoplasmic Reticulum
(b) Ribosome and Golgi apparatus
(c) Mitochondria and Chloroplast ✓
(d) Chloroplast and Vacuoles

Explanation: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous organelles with their own circular DNA, RNA, and ribosomes, consistent with the endosymbiotic theory. No other organelles listed contain their own DNA.

Q.71 [Biology]

One advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that it helps species to survive over long evolutionary time. This is because sexual reproduction produces:

(a) more offspring in each reproductive cycle.
(b) robust and healthy offspring.
(c) genetically similar offspring.
(d) more variation in offspring. ✓

Explanation: Sexual reproduction involves recombination and independent assortment of alleles, generating greater genetic variation among offspring, which provides raw material for natural selection and long-term evolutionary survival.

Q.72 [Biology]

Which one of the following structures or components is not always present in living cells?

(a) Cell wall ✓
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Cytoplasm
(d) Genetic material

Explanation: Cell wall is present in plant cells, fungi, and bacteria but absent in animal cells. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and genetic material are universal features of all living cells.

Q.73 [Chemistry]

Browning of the chopped apple can be minimized by:

(a) using table sugar.
(b) preserving in a container.
(c) using lemon juice. ✓
(d) using milk of magnesia.

Explanation: Lemon juice contains ascorbic acid (vitamin C) and citric acid, which lower pH and act as antioxidants, inhibiting the enzymatic browning caused by polyphenol oxidase acting on cut apple surfaces.

Q.74 [Chemistry]

Which of the hydrocarbons are arranged as per the increasing order of their boiling points?

(a) Methane, Butane, Propane, Heptane
(b) Propane, Butane, Pentane, Octane ✓
(c) Propane, Butane, Heptane, Methane
(d) Octane, Ethane, Methane, Propane

Explanation: Boiling points of alkanes increase with molecular weight/chain length. Propane (−42°C) < Butane (−1°C) < Pentane (36°C) < Octane (126°C) is the correct increasing order.

Q.75 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following apparatus is used for separating benzene and water mixture?

(a) Round bottom flask
(b) Conical flask
(c) Separating funnel
(d) Dean and Stark apparatus ✓

Explanation: The Dean and Stark apparatus is specifically designed to separate immiscible liquids formed during azeotropic distillation, and is classically used to separate water from organic solvents like benzene.

Q.76 [Chemistry]

An iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution turns brown. This is due to which one of the following types of reactions?

(a) Addition reaction
(b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Substitution reaction
(d) Displacement reaction ✓

Explanation: Iron is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution: Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu. The deposited copper gives the nail a brown colour. This is a displacement (single replacement) reaction.

Q.77 [Chemistry]

Among the following, which is the correct method for keeping the curd?

(a) Keeping in stainless steel vessel ✓
(b) Keeping in copper vessel
(c) Keeping in plastic vessel
(d) Keeping in glass vessel

Explanation: Stainless steel is inert and non-reactive with the lactic acid in curd. Copper and other reactive metals can react with the acid in curd, contaminating it, while plastic may leach chemicals; glass can also be used but stainless steel is the standard recommended option.

Q.78 [Chemistry]

Toothpaste prevents tooth decay by:

(a) neutralizing the excess acidity.
(b) means of emulsification.
(c) the action of fluoride. ✓
(d) making a coat of calcium over the teeth surface.

Explanation: Fluoride (from compounds like sodium fluoride or stannous fluoride) in toothpaste prevents tooth decay by remineralising enamel and inhibiting bacteria that produce acid, forming fluorapatite which is more resistant to acid attack.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.79 [History]

Freedom fighter Kanaklata Barua was martyred in:

(a) Sepoy Mutiny
(b) Quit India Movement ✓
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Peasant Uprising of 1893–1894

Explanation: Kanaklata Barua, also known as Birbala, was a teenager from Assam who was shot dead by police on 20 September 1942 while leading a procession to hoist the national flag during the Quit India Movement.

Q.80 [History]

Which one among the following statements about the Mansabdari system is correct?

(a) All army troopers were allotted mansabs.
(b) Mansabs were usually assigned on the basis of ancestry.
(c) Position and salary of mansabdars were indicated by a numerical designation called zat. ✓
(d) Mansabdars were never paid in cash.

Explanation: In the Mughal Mansabdari system, each mansabdar held a dual rank: zat (personal rank, determining pay and status) and sawar (number of cavalry to be maintained). The zat rank indicated position and salary.

Q.81 [History]

Which Governor General of Bengal underwent impeachment proceedings in the British Parliament?

(a) Robert Clive
(b) Henry Vansittart
(c) Warren Hastings ✓
(d) Lord Cornwallis

Explanation: Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of Bengal, faced a famous impeachment trial in the British Parliament in 1788, prosecuted by Edmund Burke, though he was ultimately acquitted in 1795.

Q.82 [History]

Who among the following composed the 'Prayag Prashasti' of Samudragupta?

(a) Harishena ✓
(b) Chand Bardai
(c) Vishakhadatta
(d) Kalidasa

Explanation: The Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prashasti) eulogising the military conquests of Gupta emperor Samudragupta was composed by his court poet Harishena.

Q.83 [History]

Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by the two brothers Harihar and Bukka?

(a) Bahmani
(b) Vijayanagara ✓
(c) Malwa
(d) Maratha

Explanation: The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE by the brothers Harihar I (Harihara) and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty, with Vijayanagara (modern Hampi) as their capital.

Q.84 [History]

At which one of the following places did the Danes establish their settlement in India?

(a) Chinsura
(b) Karaikal
(c) Mahe
(d) Tranquebar ✓

Explanation: The Danes established their primary Indian settlement at Tranquebar (Tharangambadi) on the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu in 1620. Chinsura was Dutch, Karaikal and Mahe were French.

Q.85 [Physics]

A rectangle ABCD is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length f with its corners A and B being, respectively, at distances 2f and 3f from the mirror with AB along the principal axis. It forms an image A′B′C′D′ in front of the mirror. What is the ratio of B′C′ to A′D′?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) option c (figure-based ratio)
(d) option d (figure-based ratio)

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review. The exact numerical options for (c) and (d) are not readable from the extracted text; however, using mirror formula: image of A (at 2f) forms at 2f (magnification −1) and image of B (at 3f) forms at 3f/2 (magnification −1/2), giving ratio B′C′/A′D′ = 1/2, but the option values require the original printed choices to confirm.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.86 [Physics]

Shown in the figure are two plane mirrors XY and YZ (XY ⊥ YZ) joined at their edge. Also shown is a light ray falling on one of the mirrors and reflected back parallel to its original path as a result of this arrangement. The two mirrors are now rotated by an angle θ to their new position X′YZ′, as shown. As a result the new reflected ray is at an angle α from the original reflected ray. Then:

(a) α = 0
(b) α = θ
(c) α = 2θ ✓
(d) α = 4θ

Explanation: When two perpendicular mirrors are rotated by θ, the retroreflected ray rotates by 2θ. This is analogous to the result that rotation of a plane mirror by θ rotates the reflected ray by 2θ, giving α = 2θ.

Q.87 [Physics]

A railway wagon (open at the top) of mass M₁ is moving with speed v along a straight track. As a result of rain, after some time it gets partially filled with water so that the mass of the wagon becomes M₁ and speed becomes v₁. Taking the rain to be falling vertically and water stationary inside the wagon, the relation between the two speeds v and v₁ is:

(a) Mv = M₁v₁ ✓
(b) Mv < M₁v₁
(c) M₁v = Mv₁
(d) M₁v₁ < Mv

Explanation: Rain falls vertically and carries no horizontal momentum. By conservation of horizontal momentum, the initial momentum Mv equals the final momentum M₁v₁, giving Mv = M₁v₁. Since M₁ > M, we have v₁ < v (the wagon slows down).

Q.88 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements is not true for a flute, a musical instrument?

(a) Momentum of waves on the blowing jet determines the loudness of the produced note.
(b) Arrival time of the waves on the blowing jet determines the pitch of the produced note.
(c) Sound comes from a vibrating column of air inside the flute.
(d) Sound comes from a vibrating column of air inside as well as outside the flute. ✓

Explanation: In a flute, sound is produced exclusively by a vibrating column of air inside the instrument; the air outside does not vibrate as a column to produce the note. Option (d) is therefore incorrect.

Q.89 [Physics]

A positive charge is moving towards south in a space where magnetic field is pointing in the north direction. The moving charge will experience:

(a) a deflecting force towards north direction.
(b) a deflecting force towards east direction.
(c) a deflecting force towards west direction.
(d) no deflecting force. ✓

Explanation: The magnetic force on a charge is F = qv × B. Here, the velocity (south, i.e. −ŷ) is anti-parallel to B (north, i.e. +ŷ), so v × B = 0, and no deflecting force is experienced.

Q.90 [Environment/Science]

Which one of the following is not a main greenhouse gas?

(a) Water vapour
(b) Oxygen ✓
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Methane

Explanation: The main greenhouse gases are water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone. Oxygen (O₂) is not a greenhouse gas; it does not absorb infrared radiation emitted by Earth's surface.

Q.91 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements about X-rays is not true?

(a) They have wavelengths of about 1 Å.
(b) These can be generated by bombarding a metal target by high energy electrons.
(c) Due to their wavelengths being shorter, these can be used for radar systems. ✓
(d) These are also used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer.

Explanation: Radar systems use radio waves (wavelengths of centimetres to metres), not X-rays. All other statements about X-rays are correct, making (c) the false statement.

Q.92 [Geography]

Which one among the following is the northernmost geographical location?

(a) New Delhi ✓
(b) Kathmandu
(c) Thimphu
(d) Dhaka

Explanation: New Delhi is located at approximately 28.61°N, which is farther north than Kathmandu (~27.70°N), Thimphu (~27.47°N), and Dhaka (~23.72°N).

Q.93 [Geography]

Consider the following statements: 1. Distance between the longitudes becomes zero on North Pole and South Pole. 2. Distance between the longitudes is maximum on the Equator. 3. Number of longitudes is more than number of latitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: meridians converge at the poles (zero distance) and are farthest apart at the equator. Statement 3 is false — there are 360 longitudes (meridians) and 181 latitudes (0°–90° each hemisphere), so longitudes outnumber latitudes, making statement 3 actually true. However, conventionally there are 360 degrees of longitude (180 east + 180 west = 360 meridians) vs 181 parallels of latitude (90N to 90S), so longitudes (360) exceed latitudes (181) — statement 3 is correct. Thus all three are correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.94 [Geography]

Which one among the following states is the leading producer of Manganese in India?

(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Karnataka ✓

Explanation: Karnataka is the leading producer of manganese ore in India, accounting for a major share of total production, followed by Odisha and Madhya Pradesh.

Q.95 [Geography / General Science]

Mica is mainly used in:

(a) food and beverage industry.
(b) iron and steel industry.
(c) aluminium industry.
(d) electrical and electronic industries. ✓

Explanation: Mica is an excellent electrical insulator and is widely used in electrical and electronic industries for capacitors, insulation in motors, and similar applications.

Q.96 [Geography]

According to Köppen's climatic classifications, the Great Northern Plains of India have which one of the following climates?

(a) Aw climate
(b) Cwg climate ✓
(c) Amw climate
(d) Dfc climate

Explanation: The Great Northern Plains of India fall under the Cwg (monsoon type with dry winters and hot summers) classification under Köppen's system, characterised by dry winters and a distinct hot season.

Q.97 [History / Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements about Lachit Borphukan is/are correct? 1. He was a General of the Ahom Force. 2. He is known for his leadership in the Battle of Saraighat. 3. Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is given to the best cadet at the National Defence Academy.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Explanation: All three statements are correct: Lachit Borphukan was the Ahom commander (General), he led the Ahoms to victory at the Battle of Saraighat (1671), and the Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is awarded to the best outgoing cadet at NDA.

Q.98 [Current Affairs / Defence]

The 4th edition of joint military exercise 'DUSTLIK' between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army was held in:

(a) Ranikhet ✓
(b) Gangtok
(c) Pithoragarh
(d) Leh

Explanation: The 4th edition of Exercise DUSTLIK between India and Uzbekistan was held at Ranikhet (Uttarakhand) in 2023.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.99 [Current Affairs / Space]

Which of the following is India's first privately developed rocket launched by ISRO recently?

(a) Skyroot
(b) Prarambh
(c) Bazoomq
(d) Vikram-S ✓

Explanation: Vikram-S, developed by Skyroot Aerospace, was India's first privately developed rocket and was launched in November 2022 under the mission named 'Prarambh'. The rocket itself is called Vikram-S.

Q.100 [Current Affairs]

Which one among the following villages was recently declared as India's first 24x7 solar-powered village?

(a) Mawlynnong, Meghalaya
(b) Modhera, Gujarat ✓
(c) Ziro village, Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Malana, Himachal Pradesh

Explanation: Modhera in Gujarat was declared India's first 24x7 solar-powered village in October 2022, with all households connected to solar energy round-the-clock.

Q.101 [Current Affairs]

Tableaux of which one of the following States was adjudged the best in the Republic Day Parade, 2023?

(a) Uttarakhand ✓
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: The tableau of Uttarakhand was adjudged the best state tableau in the Republic Day Parade 2023, themed around the state's culture and development.

Q.102 [Biology]

Organisms capable of using CO₂ as principal carbon source are called:

(a) Autotrophs ✓
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) Parasites
(d) Decomposers

Explanation: Autotrophs (such as plants and certain bacteria) fix atmospheric CO₂ as their primary carbon source through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis, unlike heterotrophs which depend on organic compounds.

Q.103 [Biology]

When yeast cells are O₂ starved, fermentation serves as the source of energy. This results in the production of:

(a) ATP + CO₂ + Ethanol ✓
(b) ATP + O₂ + Pyruvate
(c) ATP + CO₂ + Lactic acid
(d) ATP + O₂ + Acetaldehyde

Explanation: In anaerobic fermentation by yeast, glucose is broken down to pyruvate, which is then converted to ethanol and CO₂, with a net production of 2 ATP molecules per glucose.

Q.104 [Biology]

During a laboratory experiment, a student immerses epidermal leaf peel in a hypertonic solution. After some time, the student examined the cells under a microscope and observed that:

(a) the cells swelled.
(b) the cells were plasmolysed. ✓
(c) the cells built up turgor pressure.
(d) the cells' size was unaffected.

Explanation: In a hypertonic solution, water moves out of the cell by osmosis, causing the cell membrane to shrink away from the cell wall — a process called plasmolysis.

Q.105 [Biology]

Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of fungi?

(a) Cell wall is made of chitin
(b) Filamentous mycelium is present
(c) Can carry out photosynthesis ✓
(d) Asexual spores are produced

Explanation: Fungi lack chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis; they are heterotrophic. All other options — chitin cell walls, mycelium, and asexual spore production — are characteristic features of fungi.

Q.106 [Biology]

Which one of the following statements about bryophytes is not correct?

(a) The plant body is a gametophyte.
(b) They are also called the amphibians of plant kingdom.
(c) The plant body is attached to the substratum by rhizoids.
(d) Specialized water-conducting tissues are present. ✓

Explanation: Bryophytes lack true vascular tissue (xylem and phloem); they do not have specialized water-conducting tissues, which is the defining difference from vascular plants.

Q.107 [Chemistry]

What is the specific purpose of using potassium hydroxide during the saponification process?

(a) To obtain soaps which are hard on the skin
(b) To obtain soaps which are soft on the skin ✓
(c) To obtain natural fragrance
(d) To make the saponification very economical

Explanation: Potassium hydroxide (KOH) produces soft/liquid soaps (potassium soaps), whereas sodium hydroxide (NaOH) produces hard soaps. KOH-based soaps are softer and often used in shaving creams and liquid soaps.

Q.108 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity?

(a) Iron, Sodium, Silver, Copper
(b) Silver, Copper, Iron, Sodium
(c) Sodium, Copper, Silver, Iron
(d) Sodium, Iron, Copper, Silver ✓

Explanation: According to the reactivity series, the correct decreasing order is: Sodium > Iron > Copper > Silver. This matches option (d).

Q.109 [Chemistry]

Which among the following statements is not correct with respect to allotropes of Carbon?

(a) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
(b) Diamond is the hardest substance known.
(c) Fullerene is one of the allotropes of carbon.
(d) Next to diamond, graphite is the second hardest known substance. ✓

Explanation: Graphite is actually one of the softest substances (used as a lubricant), not the second hardest. The second hardest allotrope of carbon is lonsdaleite (hexagonal diamond), not graphite. Statement (d) is incorrect.

Q.110 [Chemistry]

Which among the following is the popular method for manufacture of ammonia?

(a) Ostwald's process
(b) Haber-Bosch process ✓
(c) Electric furnace process
(d) Electrolysis process

Explanation: The Haber-Bosch process is the industrial method for synthesising ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen gases under high pressure and temperature with an iron catalyst. Ostwald's process is used for nitric acid manufacture.

Q.111 [Chemistry]

For manufacturing of glass, which among the following is used as a source of silica?

(a) Fine clay soil
(b) Wood powder
(c) Coconut shell
(d) Sand ✓

Explanation: Sand (silicon dioxide, SiO2) is the primary raw material and source of silica used in glass manufacturing. The other options do not contain significant quantities of silica.

Q.112 [Chemistry]

Which among the following is the correct arrangement of halogens in the increasing order of their oxidizing nature?

(a) F, Cl, Br, I
(b) Cl, Br, F, I
(c) Br, I, Cl, F
(d) I, Br, Cl, F ✓

Explanation: Oxidizing power of halogens decreases down the group. Fluorine is the strongest oxidizing agent, followed by Cl, Br, and I. So increasing order is I < Br < Cl < F, which matches option (d).

Q.113 [Chemistry]

Copper sulphate crystals available in the market are blue coloured crystals. By careful heating, they turn to white colour. Which one of the following is responsible for the blue color?

(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Water ✓
(d) Hydrogen

Explanation: Copper sulphate pentahydrate (CuSO4·5H2O) is blue due to water of crystallisation. On heating, the water molecules are removed, leaving anhydrous white CuSO4.

Q.114 [Chemistry]

Equal volume of all gases, when measured at the same temperature and pressure, contain an equal number of particles. Who proposed the above law?

(a) Charles
(b) Boyle
(c) Avogadro ✓
(d) Lussac

Explanation: This is Avogadro's Law (1811), which states that equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of molecules (particles).

Q.115 [Chemistry]

Airbags work on the principle of a chemical reaction triggered by the impact producing a gaseous product that causes a sudden volume change. Which one among the following chemical conversions is responsible for this?

(a) Sodium azide into nitrogen gas ✓
(b) Solid carbon dioxide into gaseous carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon dioxide into carbon monoxide
(d) Sudden conversion of gaseous carbon dioxide into carbon monoxide

Explanation: Automobile airbags use sodium azide (NaN3), which rapidly decomposes upon impact to produce large volumes of nitrogen gas (N2), inflating the airbag almost instantaneously.

Q.116 [History]

Which one among the following districts of Eastern India held a referendum in 1947 to decide whether or not to join Pakistan?

(a) Sylhet ✓
(b) Goalpara
(c) Cachar
(d) Jalpaiguri

Explanation: Sylhet district (then in Assam) held a referendum in July 1947 under the Indian Independence Act. The majority voted to join East Pakistan; Sylhet was thus transferred to Pakistan except for a portion that remained with Assam.

Q.117 [History]

Which one of the following statements about Rabatak inscription is not correct?

(a) It throws important light on Kushana genealogy.
(b) It refers to Kanishka as 'a king of kings and a son of God'.
(c) The 23-line inscription is written in Gandhari language. ✓
(d) It mentions names of States which were part of Kanishka's empire.

Explanation: The Rabatak inscription is written in the Bactrian language (using Greek script), not in Gandhari. It does illuminate Kushana genealogy, refers to Kanishka's titles, and mentions territories under his rule.

Q.118 [History]

Who among the following was the author of the famous Sanskrit work 'Mrichchhakatika'?

(a) Kalidasa
(b) Bhasa
(c) Valmiki
(d) Shudraka ✓

Explanation: Mrichchhakatika (The Little Clay Cart) is a celebrated Sanskrit drama attributed to the ancient playwright Shudraka. It is one of the most well-known works in classical Sanskrit literature.

Q.119 [History]

Yashovarman was ruler of which one of the following kingdoms?

(a) Kannauj ✓
(b) Mewar
(c) Marwar
(d) Kalinga

Explanation: Yashovarman was the famous ruler of Kannauj (8th century CE). He was a powerful king who controlled much of northern India and was a patron of learning; the poet Vakpati composed the Gaudavaho in his court.

Q.120 [History]

Which one among the following rulers established Pataliputra as the capital of the Magadhan Empire?

(a) Bimbisara
(b) Bindusara
(c) Ajatashatru ✓
(d) Ashoka

Explanation: Ajatashatru's successor Udayin (son of Ajatashatru) is traditionally credited with founding Pataliputra, but it was Ajatashatru who shifted the Magadhan capital focus toward the Ganges confluence area. More precisely, Udayin founded Pataliputra, but among the given options Ajatashatru is the closest correct answer as he began the shift and Pataliputra's foundation is associated with his dynasty during his reign period.

Q.121 [Science]

Which one of the following astronomers proved that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun?

(a) Copernicus ✓
(b) Kepler
(c) Galileo
(d) Newton

Explanation: Nicolaus Copernicus proposed the heliocentric model in his 1543 work 'De revolutionibus orbium coelestium', establishing that Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun.

Q.122 [Physics]

Sand falls vertically on a conveyor belt at a rate of 0.1 kg/s. In order to keep the belt moving at a uniform speed of 2 m/s, the force required to be applied on the belt is:

(a) 0 N
(b) 0.2 N ✓
(c) 1.0 N
(d) 20 N

Explanation: Force = rate of change of momentum = (dm/dt) × v = 0.1 kg/s × 2 m/s = 0.2 N. This force is needed to accelerate the incoming sand to the belt's speed.

Q.123 [Physics]

The power required to lift a mass of 8.0 kg up a vertical distance of 4 m in 2 s is (taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s²):

(a) 80 W
(b) 160 W ✓
(c) 3820 W
(d) 640 W

Explanation: Work done = mgh = 8.0 × 10 × 4 = 320 J. Power = Work/time = 320/2 = 160 W.

Q.124 [Physics]

One block of 2.0 kg mass is placed on top of another block of 3.0 kg mass. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0.2. The bottom block is pulled with a horizontal force F such that both the blocks move together without slipping. Taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s², the maximum value of the frictional force is:

(a) 50 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 4 N ✓
(d) 10 N

Explanation: Maximum static friction between the two blocks = μ × m_top × g = 0.2 × 2.0 × 10 = 4 N. This is the maximum frictional force the upper block can exert on the lower block.

Q.125 [Physics]

A mass is attached to a spring that hangs vertically. The extension produced in the spring is 6 cm on Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is one-sixth of its value on the surface of the Earth. The extension of the spring on the Moon would be:

(a) 6 cm
(b) 1 cm ✓
(c) 0 cm
(d) 36 cm

Explanation: Extension x = mg/k. On Moon, g_moon = g/6, so x_moon = mg_moon/k = m(g/6)/k = (mg/k)/6 = 6/6 = 1 cm.

Q.126 [Physics]

Which one of the following is an example of Second Class Lever?

(a) A pair of scissors
(b) A bottle opener ✓
(c) A cricket bat
(d) A bow and arrow

Explanation: In a second class lever, the load is between the fulcrum and the effort. A bottle opener fits this description — the fulcrum is at one end (the tip under the cap), effort is applied at the other end, and the load (cap) is in between.

Q.127 [Physics]

In an electric circuit, a wire of resistance 10 Ω is used. If this wire is stretched to a length double of its original value, the current in the circuit would become:

(a) half of its original value.
(b) double of its original value.
(c) one-fourth of its original value. ✓
(d) four times of its original value.

Explanation: When a wire is stretched to double its length, volume remains constant so cross-sectional area halves. Resistance R = ρL/A; doubling L and halving A gives R' = ρ(2L)/(A/2) = 4R. With resistance 4 times greater, current becomes one-fourth (I = V/R).

Q.128 [Physics]

What is the total resistance in the following circuit element?

(a) R/2
(b) 3R
(c) 3R/2
(d) 2R/3 ✓

Explanation: Figure-based question, but based on typical NDA circuit problems with three resistors each of value R — two in parallel giving R/2, then in series with a third R gives 3R/2; alternatively three R in parallel gives R/3. The most common answer for three equal resistors R in parallel is R/3, but option (d) 2R/3 suggests two R in series combined in parallel with one R: (2R||R) = 2R/3. Answer is (d) 2R/3 based on the available options.

Q.129 [Geography / Current Affairs]

Which of the following scheme(s) is/are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana? 1. Develop the road connectivity to border areas 2. Development of coastal roads 3. Improvement in the efficiency of National Corridors Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Bharatmala Pariyojana is a comprehensive highway development program that includes development of border and international connectivity roads, coastal roads, and improvement of National Corridors' efficiency, so all three statements are correct.

Q.130 [Geography / Current Affairs]

Deendayal Port was earlier known as:

(a) Paradip Port
(b) Tuticorin Port
(c) Kandla Port ✓
(d) Visakhapatnam Port

Explanation: Kandla Port in Gujarat was renamed Deendayal Port in 2017 in honour of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya. It is one of the major ports of India located in the Kutch district.

Q.131 [Defence & Military]

The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of Indian Army is situated at :

(a) Dehradun
(b) Vairengte ✓
(c) Gulmarg
(d) Mhow

Explanation: The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare (CIJW) School of the Indian Army is located at Vairengte in Mizoram, near the Myanmar border, chosen for its dense jungle terrain ideal for such training.

Q.132 [Geography]

In the soil-forming regime, which one of the following occurs in a region where evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation significantly?

(a) Calcification ✓
(b) Laterization
(c) Podsolization
(d) Gleization

Explanation: Calcification occurs in arid/semi-arid regions where evapotranspiration greatly exceeds precipitation, causing upward movement of water and accumulation of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) in the soil profile.

Q.133 [Geography]

Which one of the following is found in the innermost part of the Earth?

(a) Conrad discontinuity
(b) Moho discontinuity
(c) Guttenberg discontinuity
(d) Lehmann discontinuity ✓

Explanation: The Lehmann discontinuity separates the outer liquid core from the inner solid core, making it the discontinuity found deepest/innermost within the Earth at approximately 5100 km depth.

Q.134 [Geography]

Which of the following tree species is/are found on Himalayas? 1. Oak 2. Rhododendron 3. Rosewood Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 ✓

Explanation: Oak and Rhododendron are characteristic Himalayan tree species found at various altitudes. Rosewood (Dalbergia latifolia) is a tree of tropical peninsular India and is not typically found in the Himalayas.

Q.135 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the lowermost/innermost intrusive rock?

(a) Laccolith
(b) Batholith ✓
(c) Lopolith
(d) Phacolith

Explanation: Batholiths are the largest and deepest intrusive igneous rock bodies that form at great depths in the Earth's crust; they are the lowermost/innermost of all intrusive rock forms.

Q.136 [Geography]

If it is 12 noon in New Delhi, what will be the time in London, UK?

(a) 6:30 A.M. ✓
(b) 6:30 P.M.
(c) 5:30 A.M.
(d) 5:30 P.M.

Explanation: India Standard Time (IST) is UTC+5:30, while the UK (GMT/UTC) is UTC+0. So when it is 12:00 noon in New Delhi, it is 12:00 - 5:30 = 6:30 A.M. in London.

Q.137 [Geography]

Which of the following positions of Sun, Earth and Moon is/are suitable for Spring Tide? 1. SYZYGY Conjunction 2. SYZYGY Opposition 3. Quadrature Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 ✓
(d) 1 and 3

Explanation: Spring tides occur during Syzygy — when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned. This happens both at Conjunction (new moon) and Opposition (full moon). Quadrature (Moon at 90°) produces neap tides, not spring tides.

Q.138 [History]

Which Renaissance artist painted 'The Last Supper'?

(a) Michelangelo
(b) Donatello
(c) Botticelli
(d) Leonardo da Vinci ✓

Explanation: 'The Last Supper' (c. 1495–1498) is a famous mural painting by Leonardo da Vinci, depicting Jesus and his apostles at the last supper, located in Milan, Italy.

Q.139 [History]

Which one of the following European explorer conquered Mexico?

(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Bartholomew Diaz
(c) Magellan
(d) Hernan Cortés ✓

Explanation: Hernan Cortés was the Spanish conquistador who led the conquest of the Aztec Empire in Mexico between 1519 and 1521, effectively establishing Spanish colonial rule over Mexico.

Q.140 [History]

Near which one of the following cities in India have large statues of Kushana rulers been discovered?

(a) Karnal
(b) Ropar
(c) Hisar
(d) Mathura ✓

Explanation: Mathura was a major centre of the Kushana Empire, and large dynastic statues of Kushana rulers (including Kanishka's headless statue) have been discovered near Mathura in Uttar Pradesh.

Q.141 [History]

The Treaty of Yandabo was concluded as part of which one of the following wars?

(a) First Anglo-Burmese War ✓
(b) Second Anglo-Burmese War
(c) Anglo-Kuki War
(d) Anglo-Maratha War

Explanation: The Treaty of Yandabo (1826) ended the First Anglo-Burmese War (1824–1826). Under this treaty, Burma ceded Assam, Arakan, and Tenasserim to the British East India Company.

Q.142 [Economy]

Plan allocation in agriculture and irrigation as percentage of total plan outlay was highest in:

(a) Seventh Five-Year Plan
(b) Third Five-Year Plan
(c) First Five-Year Plan ✓
(d) Second Five-Year Plan

Explanation: The First Five-Year Plan (1951–56) gave the highest priority to agriculture and irrigation, allocating about 31% of total plan outlay to this sector, reflecting the post-partition need to achieve food self-sufficiency.

Q.143 [Current Affairs]

The UN COP-27 Summit relates to:

(a) Russia-Ukraine war
(b) Terrorism and counter-terrorism
(c) Climate change ✓
(d) Interpol

Explanation: COP-27 (27th Conference of the Parties) was the UN Climate Change Conference held in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt in November 2022, focusing on climate change mitigation, adaptation, and finance.

Q.144 [History]

Which one of the following tribes from India's North-East had the earliest known association with cultivation and production of tea?

(a) Khasis
(b) Garos
(c) Singphos ✓
(d) Jayantias

Explanation: The Singpho tribe of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam had the earliest known association with tea cultivation. They were reportedly growing and consuming tea long before the British discovered tea in Assam in the 1820s–1830s.

Q.145 [Polity]

By which one of the following amendments, was Article 51A, relating to the Fundamental Duties, inserted into the Constitution of India?

(a) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act ✓
(b) The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act
(c) The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act
(d) The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act

Explanation: Article 51A, containing the list of Fundamental Duties, was inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Q.146 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) The force of gravity of the Earth on the Moon is greater than the force of gravity of the Moon on the Earth.
(b) The force of gravity of the Moon on the Earth is greater than the force of gravity of the Earth on the Moon.
(c) The force of gravity of the Earth on the Moon and of the Moon on the Earth are equal in magnitude and are in the same direction.
(d) The force of gravity of the Earth on the Moon and of the Moon on the Earth are equal in magnitude but are in opposite directions. ✓

Explanation: By Newton's Third Law of Motion and the law of universal gravitation, the gravitational force between two bodies is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction — an action-reaction pair.

Q.147 [Physics]

An electric bulb is rated as 220 V and 80 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power rating would be:

(a) 80W
(b) 60W
(c) 40W
(d) 20W ✓

Explanation: Resistance R = V²/P = (220)²/80 = 605 Ω. At 110 V, new power P = V²/R = (110)²/605 = 12100/605 = 20 W.

Q.148 [Physics]

In the dispersion of white light by a common glass prism, which one among the following is correct?

(a) Red light deviates the most because red light has highest speed in prism
(b) Blue light deviates the most because blue light has highest speed in prism
(c) Red light deviates the most because red light has lowest speed in prism
(d) Blue light deviates the most because blue light has lowest speed in prism ✓

Explanation: Blue/violet light has the highest refractive index in glass, meaning it has the lowest speed in the prism and bends/deviates the most. Red light has the lowest refractive index and deviates the least.

Q.149 [Physics]

Which one among the following is true for the speed of sound in a given medium?

(a) Speed of sound remains same at all frequencies ✓
(b) Speed of sound is faster at higher frequencies
(c) Speed of sound is slower at higher frequencies
(d) Speed of sound is slower at higher wavelengths

Explanation: The speed of sound in a given medium is independent of frequency (and wavelength). It depends only on the properties of the medium (elasticity and density), not on the frequency of the wave.

Q.150 [Physics]

Which one of the following telescopes contains only mirrors?

(a) Galilean telescope
(b) Keplerian telescope
(c) Newtonian telescope ✓
(d) Schmidt telescope

Explanation: The Newtonian telescope, designed by Isaac Newton, uses only mirrors (a concave primary mirror and a flat secondary mirror) with no lenses, making it a purely reflective telescope.