Free Resources / NDA Previous Year Papers / Solutions

NDA II 2023 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2023 (Session II) Questions: 140 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Error Spotting]

Bread, butter and jam (a) common breakfast items (b) that are consumed by many households. (c) No error (d)

(a) Bread, butter and jam
(b) common breakfast items ✓
(c) that are consumed by many households.
(d) No error

Explanation: The verb 'are' is missing before 'common breakfast items'. The sentence should read '...and jam are common breakfast items...' to be grammatically complete.

Q.2 [Error Spotting]

Ten thousand dollars is (a) the prize money being offered (b) by the game show hosts. (c) No error (d)

(a) Ten thousand dollars is
(b) the prize money being offered
(c) by the game show hosts.
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is correct. 'Ten thousand dollars' is treated as a single sum (singular), so 'is' is appropriate; no error exists.

Q.3 [Error Spotting]

Three hundred and sixty five (a) create up the number of days (b) in a calendar year. (c) No error (d)

(a) Three hundred and sixty five
(b) create up the number of days ✓
(c) in a calendar year.
(d) No error

Explanation: The phrase 'create up' is incorrect; the correct expression is 'make up' — 'Three hundred and sixty-five days make up the number of days in a calendar year.'

Q.4 [Error Spotting]

The process of removing (a) wool from the body of (b) an animal is called sharing. (c) No error (d)

(a) The process of removing
(b) wool from the body of
(c) an animal is called sharing. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The word 'sharing' is incorrect; the correct word is 'shearing' — the process of cutting wool from an animal is called shearing.

Q.5 [Error Spotting]

Many people came (a) from faraway places to prayed (b) at the temple on the auspicious day. (c) No error (d)

(a) Many people came
(b) from faraway places to prayed ✓
(c) at the temple on the auspicious day.
(d) No error

Explanation: After 'to' (infinitive), the base form of the verb should be used. 'to prayed' is incorrect; it should be 'to pray'.

Q.6 [Error Spotting]

After reading foreword of (a) the book on environmental issues in India, (b) I decided to meet its author. (c) No error (d)

(a) After reading foreword of ✓
(b) the book on environmental issues in India,
(c) I decided to meet its author.
(d) No error

Explanation: The definite article 'the' is missing before 'foreword'. It should be 'After reading the foreword of' since foreword refers to a specific part of the book.

Q.7 [Error Spotting]

The guidance from the mentors (a) and teachers facilitated the (b) smooth conduct of elections to the Students' council. (c) No error (d)

(a) The guidance from the mentors
(b) and teachers facilitated the
(c) smooth conduct of elections to the Students' council.
(d) No error ✓

Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct in all parts; no error exists.

Q.8 [Error Spotting]

The Principal of our school (a) felicitated the students in (b) the prize distribution ceremony. (c) No error (d)

(a) The Principal of our school
(b) felicitated the students in ✓
(c) the prize distribution ceremony.
(d) No error

Explanation: The correct preposition is 'at' not 'in' — one felicitates someone 'at' a ceremony, not 'in' a ceremony.

Q.9 [Error Spotting]

If you were to (a) come to Chennai to settle down (b) it will be the best possible decision. (c) No error (d)

(a) If you were to
(b) come to Chennai to settle down
(c) it will be the best possible decision. ✓
(d) No error

Explanation: The conditional clause uses 'were to' (subjunctive/hypothetical), so the main clause should use 'would be' not 'will be'. It should read 'it would be the best possible decision.'

Q.10 [Error Spotting]

They had promised to delivered (a) the bags before mid-March (b) to enable us to inaugurate the shop. (c) No error (d)

(a) They had promised to delivered ✓
(b) the bags before mid-March
(c) to enable us to inaugurate the shop.
(d) No error

Explanation: After 'to' (infinitive marker), the base form of the verb must be used. 'to delivered' is incorrect; it should be 'to deliver'.

Q.11 [Synonyms]

He is always captious.

(a) worried
(b) passionate
(c) faultfinding ✓
(d) jovial

Explanation: 'Captious' means tending to find fault or raise objections; 'faultfinding' is the closest synonym.

Q.12 [Synonyms]

Geomorphologists ascertain several wonderful facts about our earth.

(a) verify ✓
(b) increase
(c) omit
(d) hide

Explanation: 'Ascertain' means to find out or make certain; 'verify' is the nearest synonym meaning to confirm or establish the truth.

Q.13 [Synonyms]

The Colonel ordered the Soldiers to meet him in the commissary.

(a) office
(b) field
(c) playground
(d) canteen ✓

Explanation: A 'commissary' in a military context is a store or canteen where food and supplies are sold, making 'canteen' the nearest in meaning.

Q.14 [Synonyms]

The doctor dismembered the patient's finger first and then cured the ailment.

(a) stitched
(b) dissected ✓
(c) plastered
(d) splintered

Explanation: 'Dismember' means to cut off or separate a limb; 'dissected' is the nearest option meaning to cut apart, though the closest sense here is surgical separation/amputation — 'dissected' is the best available answer.

Q.15 [Synonyms]

Mr. Kumar works as a bursar in the sports academy.

(a) secretary
(b) accountant ✓
(c) coach
(d) trainer

Explanation: A 'bursar' is a treasurer or financial officer of an institution; 'accountant' is the nearest in meaning among the options.

Q.16 [Synonyms]

His intentions are insidious.

(a) pious
(b) inadvertent
(c) deceitful ✓
(d) naive

Explanation: 'Insidious' means proceeding in a subtle, harmful way; 'deceitful' is the closest synonym meaning intended to mislead or harm.

Q.17 [Synonyms]

Respect for other human beings is intrinsic to the teachings of all religions.

(a) inconsistent
(b) peripheral
(c) inherent ✓
(d) existential

Explanation: 'Intrinsic' means belonging naturally or essentially; 'inherent' is the direct synonym meaning existing as a permanent and inseparable element.

Q.18 [Synonyms]

He completed the onerous task with relative ease.

(a) smooth
(b) complex
(c) risky
(d) wearying ✓

Explanation: 'Onerous' means involving a great deal of effort, trouble, or difficulty; 'wearying' (burdensome/exhausting) is the nearest option among those given.

Q.19 [Synonyms]

Alfred was a potentate during the Middle Ages.

(a) Monarch ✓
(b) lenient
(c) liberal
(d) democrat

Explanation: A 'potentate' is a monarch or ruler who has great power; 'Monarch' is the direct synonym.

Q.20 [Synonyms]

I abandoned the task due to indolence.

(a) difficulty
(b) laziness ✓
(c) ugliness
(d) helplessness

Explanation: 'Indolence' means habitual laziness or avoidance of activity; 'laziness' is the direct synonym.

Q.21 [Confusable Words]

'Principal' and 'Principle'

(a) 'Principal' means belief system, and 'principle' means head of an educational institution
(b) 'Principal' means head of an educational institution, and 'principle' means original sum on which interest is charged
(c) 'Principle' means moral rule, and 'principal' means head of an educational institution ✓
(d) 'Principal' means original sum on which interest is charged, and 'principle' means head of an educational institution

Explanation: 'Principal' means the head of an educational institution (or the main/chief person/amount), and 'Principle' means a moral rule or belief system. Option (c) correctly identifies 'Principle' as a moral rule and 'Principal' as the head of an educational institution.

Q.22 [Confusable Words]

'Plane' and 'Plain'

(a) 'Plane' means a flat surface, and 'plain' means something that flies
(b) 'Plane' means the flat surface, and 'plain' means not elaborate
(c) 'Plane' means something that flies, and 'plain' means flat surface ✓
(d) 'Plane' means not elaborate, and 'plain' means flat surface

Explanation: 'Plane' refers to an aircraft (something that flies) or a flat surface, while 'Plain' means a flat expanse of land or simple/not elaborate. Option (c) correctly pairs 'plane' as something that flies and 'plain' as a flat surface (land).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.23 [Confusable Words]

'Pail' and 'Pale'

(a) 'Pale' means inferior or unimpressive, and 'pail' means faded
(b) 'Pale' means faded or light in shade, and 'pail' means inferior or unimpressive
(c) 'Pale' means faded or light in shade, and 'pail' means a bucket ✓
(d) 'Pale' means a bucket, and 'pail' means inferior or unimpressive

Explanation: 'Pale' means faded or light in color/shade, while 'Pail' means a bucket. Option (c) correctly defines both words.

Q.24 [Confusable Words]

'Metal' and 'Mettle'

(a) 'Metal' is a hard shiny material that is a good conductor, and 'mettle' means malleable metal
(b) 'Metal' is a hard shiny material that is a good conductor, and 'mettle' means metallic substance
(c) 'Metal' means mental resilience, and 'mettle' is a hard shiny material that is a good conductor
(d) 'Metal' is a hard shiny material that is a good conductor, and 'mettle' means mental resilience ✓

Explanation: 'Metal' is a hard, shiny material that conducts electricity/heat, and 'Mettle' means mental resilience or courage. Option (d) correctly defines both.

Q.25 [Confusable Words]

'Hail' and 'Hale'

(a) 'Hail' means pellets of frozen rain, and 'hale' means wind storm
(b) 'Hail' means pellets of frozen rain, and 'hale' means strong and healthy ✓
(c) 'Hail' means pellets of frozen rain, and 'hale' means to greet with enthusiastic approval
(d) 'Hail' means strong and healthy, and 'hale' means pellets of frozen rain

Explanation: 'Hail' refers to pellets of frozen rain (or to greet/call), and 'Hale' means strong and healthy (as in 'hale and hearty'). Option (b) correctly pairs these definitions.

Q.26 [Confusable Words]

'Conscious' and 'Conscience'

(a) 'Conscious' means sense of right and wrong, and 'conscience' means awareness about something
(b) 'Conscious' means alert, and 'conscience' means presence of mind
(c) 'Conscious' means intent, and 'conscience' means unprincipled action
(d) 'Conscious' means aware, and 'conscience' means sense of right and wrong ✓

Explanation: 'Conscious' means aware or awake, and 'Conscience' is the inner sense of right and wrong. Option (d) correctly defines both.

Q.27 [Confusable Words]

'Dissent' and 'Descent'

(a) 'Dissent' means having ideas different from general beliefs or official position, and 'descent' means movement towards a lower place ✓
(b) 'Dissent' means having ideas different from general beliefs or official position, and 'descent' means being of acceptable standard
(c) 'Dissent' means being of acceptable standard, and 'descent' means movement towards a lower place
(d) 'Dissent' means being of acceptable standard, and 'descent' means ideas different from general beliefs or official position

Explanation: 'Dissent' means disagreement with prevailing or official views, and 'Descent' means the act of going down or moving to a lower place. Option (a) correctly defines both.

Q.28 [Confusable Words]

'Devise' and 'Device'

(a) 'Device' means to determine, and 'devise' means a piece of equipment meant for accomplishing a specific task
(b) 'Device' means finding a new way to do something, and 'devise' means to determine
(c) 'Device' means a piece of equipment meant for accomplishing a specific task, and 'devise' means finding a new way to do something ✓
(d) 'Device' means finding a new way to do something, and 'devise' means a piece of equipment meant for accomplishing a specific task

Explanation: 'Device' (noun) is a piece of equipment or tool for a specific task, and 'Devise' (verb) means to plan or invent a new way of doing something. Option (c) correctly identifies these.

Q.29 [Confusable Words]

'Discrete' and 'Discreet'

(a) 'Discrete' means separate and distinct categories of objects, and 'discreet' means misuse of authority
(b) 'Discrete' means separate and distinct categories of objects, and 'discreet' means maintaining confidentiality ✓
(c) 'Discrete' means being careful in what one says or does, and 'discreet' means separate and distinct categories of objects
(d) 'Discrete' means misuse of authority and 'discreet' means being careful in what one says or does

Explanation: 'Discrete' means individually separate and distinct, and 'Discreet' means careful and circumspect, especially in maintaining confidentiality. Option (b) correctly defines both.

Q.30 [Confusable Words]

'Eminent' and 'Imminent'

(a) 'Eminent' means important and famous, and 'imminent' means something about to happen ✓
(b) 'Eminent' means something unpleasant about to happen, and 'imminent' means important and famous person
(c) 'Eminent' means important and famous person, and 'imminent' means inherent or existing within
(d) 'Eminent' means inherent or existing within, and 'imminent' means something about to happen

Explanation: 'Eminent' means famous and respected, especially in a profession, and 'Imminent' means about to happen very soon. Option (a) correctly defines both.

Q.31 [Antonyms]

Many metals are malleable in nature and property.

(a) hard ✓
(b) strong
(c) tender
(d) weak

Explanation: 'Malleable' means capable of being shaped or bent; the antonym is 'hard', which means resistant to being shaped or deformed.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.32 [Antonyms]

To neglect a warning is to invite danger.

(a) disregard
(b) ignore
(c) regard ✓
(d) overlook

Explanation: 'Neglect' means to fail to give proper attention to; the antonym is 'regard', meaning to pay attention to or consider carefully.

Q.33 [Antonyms]

His ostentatious behaviour surprised everyone.

(a) tawdry
(b) modest ✓
(c) gaudy
(d) apparent

Explanation: 'Ostentatious' means characterized by a vulgar display of wealth; its antonym is 'modest', meaning not showy or boastful.

Q.34 [Antonyms]

The experience of Covid Pandemic was excruciating for much of the population.

(a) gnawing
(b) gruelling
(c) harrowing
(d) mild ✓

Explanation: 'Excruciating' means intensely painful; its antonym is 'mild', meaning not severe or intense.

Q.35 [Antonyms]

A trip to the hills was refreshing.

(a) conniving
(b) wearying ✓
(c) revivifying
(d) rejuvenating

Explanation: 'Refreshing' means invigorating and making one feel less tired; its antonym is 'wearying', meaning causing fatigue or exhaustion.

Q.36 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: People by and large are concerned with and pursue self-interest. They are unlikely to be motivated to use renewable resources in a prudent and sustainable fashion. They are unlikely to be motivated under the following conditions: if their resource catchments are vast, so that degradation of any particular portion affects them very little; or if they have open before them possibilities of substitution as any one resource element is depleted; or if their control over the resource base is tenuous, so that others may, at any time, deplete a resource they value, even if they use it in a restrained fashion. Why, according to the writer can't people be motivated to use a resource prudently? 1. They feel that others may overuse the resource 2. It is possible to substitute the resource 3. Abundance of the availability resource Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: The passage states three conditions under which people are not motivated to use resources prudently: vast catchments (abundance — point 3), possibilities of substitution (point 2), and tenuous control meaning others may deplete the resource (point 1). All three points are covered.

Q.37 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: People by and large are concerned with and pursue self-interest. They are unlikely to be motivated to use renewable resources in a prudent and sustainable fashion... exhaustive use is highly likely when any one of these three conditions obtains. When do people use resources exhaustively?

(a) When the substitution of resource is felicitated by NGOs
(b) When the resource is about to expand
(c) When the resources use has little impact ✓
(d) When they desire desperately for sustainable development

Explanation: The passage states that if resource catchments are vast so that degradation of any particular portion affects them very little, exhaustive use is likely. This matches option (c) — when resource use has little impact on the individual.

Q.38 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: People by and large are concerned with and pursue self-interest. They are unlikely to be motivated to use renewable resources in a prudent and sustainable fashion... The self-interest of people affects the use of renewable resources

(a) positively
(b) erratically
(c) affirmatively
(d) indifferently ✓

Explanation: The passage says people pursue self-interest and are unlikely to be motivated to use renewable resources prudently, meaning self-interest makes them indifferent to sustainable resource use.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.39 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: People rooted in a locality, and retaining control over their resource base are most likely to fulfil all three prerequisites for sustainable resource use; and therefore to behave in ways conducive to the conservation of biodiversity within their localities. People rooted in a locality

(a) cause harm to available resources
(b) generate resources
(c) believe in conservation and reproduction of resources ✓
(d) consume resources freely

Explanation: The passage explicitly states that people rooted in a locality behave in ways conducive to the conservation of biodiversity, which aligns with option (c) — they believe in conservation.

Q.40 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: People by and large are concerned with and pursue self-interest... so that others may, at any time, deplete a resource they value... Which among the following is closest in meaning with the word 'deplete'?

(a) exhaust ✓
(b) complete
(c) replete
(d) desperate

Explanation: 'Deplete' means to use up or reduce significantly; 'exhaust' is the closest synonym, meaning to use up completely.

Q.41 [Physics - Optics]

The streaming of light beams coming from the Sun through trees is said to have suggested that light travels in straight line. The particles on the path of light beams are visible to us because

(a) dust particles in the air reflect light into our eyes
(b) dust particles in the air scatter light into our eyes ✓
(c) dust particles in the air refract light into our eyes
(d) dust particles in the air polarize light into our eyes

Explanation: Dust and smoke particles scatter light (Tyndall effect / scattering) in all directions, including toward our eyes, making the beam visible. This is scattering, not simple reflection or refraction.

Q.42 [Physics - Waves]

The flash of lightning is seen before the thunderstorm is heard. It verifies that

(a) sound travels much faster than light
(b) light travels much faster than sound ✓
(c) light and sound both travel with same speed
(d) intensity of flash of lightning is very high during thunderstorm

Explanation: Light travels at approximately 3×10^8 m/s while sound travels at about 340 m/s in air; since light reaches us almost instantaneously, we see the flash well before hearing the thunder.

Q.43 [Physics - Electricity]

The potential difference between the two end terminals of an electric heater is 220 V and the current through it is 0·5 A. What would be the current through the heater if the potential difference across the terminals of the heater is reduced to 120 V?

(a) 1·0 A
(b) 0·5 A
(c) 0·27 A ✓
(d) 0·7 A

Explanation: By Ohm's law, R = V/I = 220/0.5 = 440 Ω. At 120 V: I = 120/440 ≈ 0.27 A.

Q.44 [Physics - Electricity]

The heating element in an electric iron is usually made of

(a) Constantan
(b) Tungsten
(c) Nichrome ✓
(d) Copper

Explanation: Nichrome (nickel-chromium alloy) has high resistivity and can withstand high temperatures without oxidizing, making it ideal for heating elements in electric irons.

Q.45 [Physics - Optics]

Sita, 1·5 m high, stands before a plane mirror fixed on a wall to view her full image. What should be the minimum height of the plane mirror so that Sita can view her image fully?

(a) 0·50 m
(b) 0·35 m
(c) 0·75 m ✓
(d) 0·25 m

Explanation: For a plane mirror, the minimum mirror height required to see a full image is half the person's height. 1.5/2 = 0.75 m.

Q.46 [Chemistry - Metals]

Galvanization is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of

(a) Gallium
(b) Aluminum
(c) Zinc ✓
(d) Silver

Explanation: Galvanization involves coating iron or steel with a thin layer of zinc, which acts as a sacrificial anode and prevents rusting.

Q.47 [Chemistry - Alloys]

Which one of the following alloys contains a non-metal as one of its constituent?

(a) Brass
(b) Bronze
(c) Amalgam
(d) Steel ✓

Explanation: Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon; carbon is a non-metal. Brass (Cu+Zn), Bronze (Cu+Sn), and Amalgam (Hg+metal) all consist only of metals.

Q.48 [Chemistry - Carbon]

Buckminster fullerene, which looks like a football, is an allotropic form of

(a) Phosphorus
(b) Sulfur
(c) Carbon ✓
(d) Tin

Explanation: Buckminsterfullerene (C60) is an allotrope of carbon composed of 60 carbon atoms arranged in a sphere resembling a soccer ball.

Q.49 [Physics - Semiconductors]

Which one of the following graphs correctly represents the current (I) – voltage (V) variation for a rectangular piece of a semiconductor wafer?

(a) Graph A
(b) Graph B
(c) Graph C
(d) Graph D

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.50 [Biology - Ecology]

The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem absorbs sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about

(a) 1% ✓
(b) 5%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%

Explanation: Plants typically absorb and utilize only about 1% of the incident solar radiation for photosynthesis; the rest is reflected, transmitted, or lost as heat.

Q.51 [Chemistry - Reactions]

Consider the following reaction: Fe₂O₃(s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(s) + Al₂O₃(s). Which of the following statements about the given reaction is NOT correct?

(a) It is an example of displacement reaction
(b) It is highly endothermic reaction ✓
(c) Fe₂O₃ acts as oxidizing agent
(d) This reaction is applicable to joining of railway tracks

Explanation: The thermite reaction (Fe₂O₃ + Al) is highly exothermic, not endothermic. It releases a large amount of heat and is used in welding railway tracks.

Q.52 [Chemistry - Reactions]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Chemical process) — List II (Reaction) A. Electrolysis of water — 1. Double displacement reaction B. Burning of coal — 2. Combination reaction C. Iron nail immersed in copper sulphate solution — 3. Decomposition reaction D. Addition of barium chloride solution to aluminium sulphate solution — 4. Displacement reaction

(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 ✓
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Explanation: Electrolysis of water breaks water into H2 and O2 (decomposition, 3); burning coal is C+O2→CO2 (combination, 2); iron nail in CuSO4 displaces copper (displacement, 4); BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 is a double displacement reaction (1). Hence A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1.

Q.53 [Chemistry - Reactions]

Which one of the following processes involves chemical reaction?

(a) Evaporation of petrol
(b) Dissolution of salt in water
(c) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder
(d) Burning of magnesium ribbon in air ✓

Explanation: Burning of magnesium in air produces magnesium oxide — a new substance is formed, making it a chemical reaction. The other options are physical processes.

Q.54 [Chemistry - Metals]

Which one of the following metals does NOT react with cold water to liberate hydrogen gas?

(a) Potassium
(b) Iron ✓
(c) Calcium
(d) Sodium

Explanation: Iron does not react with cold water; it reacts only with steam at high temperatures to produce Fe3O4. Potassium, sodium, and calcium all react vigorously with cold water.

Q.55 [Chemistry - Reactions]

Consider the following reaction: 2HgO → 2Hg + O₂. The respective state of HgO, Hg and O₂ in the above reaction is:

(a) Liquid, solid, gas
(b) Solid, solid, gas
(c) Liquid, solid, liquid
(d) Solid, liquid, gas ✓

Explanation: HgO is a solid (red/orange powder); upon heating it decomposes to Hg which is liquid at room temperature and the reaction temperature, and O2 which is a gas. Hence solid, liquid, gas.

Q.56 [Biology - Reproduction]

The two important features of sexual reproduction in higher organisms that create genetic diversity in offspring are:

(a) Mitosis and fertilization
(b) Meiosis and fertilization ✓
(c) Mitosis and binary fission
(d) Meiosis and conjugation

Explanation: Meiosis introduces genetic variation through crossing over and independent assortment, while fertilization combines genetic material from two parents, together generating diversity in offspring.

Q.57 [Biology - Cell Biology]

Eukaryotic cells are much more complex as compared to prokaryotes. Which one of the following structures is exclusively present in a eukaryotic cell?

(a) Cell wall
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Nucleic acid
(d) Mitochondria ✓

Explanation: Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles found exclusively in eukaryotic cells. Cell walls, plasma membranes, and nucleic acids are also present in prokaryotes.

Q.58 [Biology - Microbiology]

An important cause of tooth decay by the bacterium Streptococcus mutans is because of their ability to attach to teeth surface by producing slime layer from

(a) Sugar ✓
(b) Alcohol
(c) Saliva
(d) Teichoic acid

Explanation: Streptococcus mutans metabolizes dietary sugars to produce a sticky glucan slime layer (biofilm) that helps it adhere to tooth enamel, initiating decay.

Q.59 [Biology - Plant Reproduction]

In angiosperms, pollen grain germinates to produce two male gametes. Which one of the following functions is carried out by these gametes?

(a) Both the gametes fuse with a single egg cell
(b) Both the gametes fuse with two different egg cells
(c) One gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other one eventually degenerates
(d) One gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other one fuses with a diploid secondary nucleus ✓

Explanation: Angiosperms undergo double fertilization: one male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form the zygote, and the other fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus (two polar nuclei) to form the triploid endosperm.

Q.60 [Biology - Reproduction]

In a sexually reproducing organism, which one of the following statements is appropriate both for the parent and offspring?

(a) Chromosome number increases but DNA content remains constant
(b) Both chromosome number and DNA content remain constant ✓
(c) Chromosome number decreases but DNA content remains constant
(d) Both chromosome number and DNA content decreases

Explanation: In sexual reproduction, meiosis halves the chromosome number in gametes, but fertilization restores it; thus across generations the chromosome number and DNA content remain constant in the species.

Q.61 [Biology]

Relationship between a flower and honey-bee will help the flower for/in

(a) Faster development
(b) Pollination ✓
(c) Quick germination of pollen
(d) Increase in size

Explanation: The relationship between a flower and honey-bee is mutualistic — the bee collects nectar/pollen and in the process transfers pollen from one flower to another, facilitating pollination.

Q.62 [History]

Which one of the following was NOT a way in which kings in ancient India attempted to claim a higher status?

(a) Identifying with a variety of deities
(b) Assuming pompous titles
(c) Imposing high taxes ✓
(d) Conquests and annexation of territories

Explanation: Ancient Indian kings claimed higher status by associating with deities, adopting grand titles, and military conquests; imposing high taxes was a revenue measure, not a means of claiming higher status or legitimacy.

Q.63 [History]

Which one of the following statements about the Bhakti movement is NOT correct?

(a) The Bhakti movement avoided traditions that promoted diversity ✓
(b) In northern India, the Bhakti movement revolved around the worship of Rama and Krishna
(c) The Bhakti movement relied on the devotion of God, both with and without attributes
(d) While Tulsidas represented the tradition of devotion with attributes, Sant Kabir followed the path of devotion without attributes

Explanation: The Bhakti movement actually embraced diverse traditions across regions and communities rather than avoiding them; it was inclusive and drew from multiple strands of devotion, making option (a) incorrect.

Q.64 [History]

The 'Reign of Terror' in revolutionary France referred to

(a) Bands of revolutionaries moving around to terrorise people who did not participate in the revolution
(b) The royal forces punishing people who participated in the revolution
(c) Trial and beheading persons considered enemies of the republic by the revolutionary tribunal ✓
(d) The general atmosphere of insecurity perceived by people after the beheading of the king

Explanation: The Reign of Terror (1793–94) under Robespierre and the Committee of Public Safety involved the systematic trial and execution (mostly by guillotine) of those deemed enemies of the republic by the Revolutionary Tribunal.

Q.65 [History]

In which one of the following ways did the First World War NOT impact Europe?

(a) From a continent of creditors it turned into a continent of debtors
(b) Soldiers came to be placed higher in social status than civilians
(c) Popular support decreased for conservative dictatorship which had come into being recently ✓
(d) National honour occupied centre stage in the public sphere

Explanation: WWI actually fuelled the rise of and popular support for authoritarian/conservative dictatorships (fascism, Nazism) in Europe rather than decreasing it, making option (c) the incorrect impact statement.

Q.66 [History]

'. . . the immediate ending of British rule in India is an urgent necessity. . .' was a resolution of

(a) Non Co-operation Movement
(b) Quit India Movement ✓
(c) Individual Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement

Explanation: The Quit India Resolution passed at the Bombay session of the Congress on 8 August 1942 demanded the immediate ending of British rule in India, launching the Quit India Movement.

Q.67 [Geography]

Which one among the following pairs of mine and mineral is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Bailadila – Iron Ore
(b) Zawar – Zinc
(c) Ghatsila – Copper
(d) Kudremukh – Bauxite ✓

Explanation: Kudremukh in Karnataka is famous for iron ore deposits, not bauxite; bauxite is associated with Odisha and other locations, making this pair incorrect.

Q.68 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the usual unit of measurement for Air Pressure used in India?

(a) Centimeter
(b) Millibar ✓
(c) Milligram
(d) Milliliter

Explanation: Air pressure (atmospheric pressure) in India and by the India Meteorological Department is conventionally measured and reported in millibars (mb) or hectopascals (hPa), which are numerically equivalent.

Q.69 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the oldest era in Geological History determining the age of various rock types?

(a) Precambrian ✓
(b) Mesozoic
(c) Cenozoic
(d) Paleozoic

Explanation: The Precambrian is the oldest and longest division of geological time, spanning from Earth's formation (~4.6 billion years ago) to about 541 million years ago, predating all other listed eras.

Q.70 [Geography]

A geographical grid has: • Lines that run east to west around the globe to mark latitude • Lines that run north to south from north pole to south pole indicate longitude Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: lines of latitude run east-west (parallel to the equator) and lines of longitude run north-south between the poles, together forming the geographical grid.

Q.71 [Geography]

In which one of the following layers of the atmosphere all weather phenomenon occur?

(a) Mesosphere
(b) Troposphere ✓
(c) Thermosphere
(d) Stratosphere

Explanation: The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere (0–12 km approx.) and is where virtually all weather phenomena — clouds, rain, storms, winds — occur due to the presence of water vapour and convective activity.

Q.72 [Geography]

In which one of the following states 'Roopkund' lake is located?

(a) Kerala
(b) Manipur
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand ✓

Explanation: Roopkund, also known as the 'Skeleton Lake', is a glacial lake situated in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand in the Himalayan region at an altitude of about 5,029 m.

Q.73 [Physics]

Ram records the odometer readings of his car for the distance covered from 2000 km at the start of his journey and 2400 km at the end of the journey after 8 hours. What is the average speed of the car?

(a) 50 km/h ✓
(b) 60 km/h
(c) 70 km/h
(d) 80 km/h

Explanation: Distance covered = 2400 − 2000 = 400 km; Time = 8 hours; Average speed = 400/8 = 50 km/h.

Q.74 [Physics]

Ms. Rani decides to convert her AC generator into a DC generator. Which one of the following she would need to use?

(a) A split-ring type commutator ✓
(b) Slip rings and brushes
(c) A stronger magnetic field
(d) A rectangular wire loop

Explanation: A DC generator uses a split-ring commutator (instead of slip rings used in AC generators) to reverse the connection of the coil to the external circuit every half rotation, ensuring unidirectional (DC) output.

Q.75 [Physics]

Ramesh cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power

(a) +0·5 D
(b) –0·5 D ✓
(c) +0·2 D
(d) –0·2 D

Explanation: Ramesh has myopia (short-sightedness) with far point = 2 m. Required lens power P = −1/f = −1/2 = −0.5 D; a concave lens of power −0.5 D corrects this defect.

Q.76 [Physics]

Which of the following statements are correct about the electrical resistance and resistivity of a wire? • Both quantities depend on the area of cross-section of the wire • Both depend on the temperature • Resistance of the wire is directly proportional to the resistivity of the wire • Resistivity of the wire is directly proportional to the length of the wire

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 2 and 4

Explanation: Resistance depends on area, length, and temperature; resistivity depends only on temperature (and material), not on area or length. So statement 1 is false (resistivity is independent of area), statement 2 is true, statement 3 is true (R = ρL/A, so R ∝ ρ), and statement 4 is false (resistivity does not depend on length).

Q.77 [Physics]

A liquid is heated up to a certain temperature. Which one of the following situations would correspond to the boiling of the liquid?

(a) When atmospheric pressure becomes equal to the vapour pressure ✓
(b) When atmospheric pressure becomes less than vapour pressure
(c) When atmospheric pressure becomes higher than the vapour pressure
(d) When vapour pressure becomes equal to the air pressure

Explanation: A liquid boils when its vapour pressure equals the external (atmospheric) pressure. Options (a) and (d) say essentially the same thing; the standard definition is that boiling occurs when vapour pressure equals atmospheric pressure.

Q.78 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is NOT an example of organic compound?

(a) Ammonium cyanate ✓
(b) Marsh gas
(c) Urea
(d) Cane sugar

Explanation: Ammonium cyanate (NH4OCN) is an inorganic salt; it was historically used by Wöhler to synthesise urea, but ammonium cyanate itself is classified as inorganic. Marsh gas (CH4), urea (CO(NH2)2), and cane sugar (C12H22O11) are organic compounds.

Q.79 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following acid is used by goldsmith for cleaning of gold and silver articles?

(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Nitric acid ✓
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Phosphoric acid

Explanation: Goldsmiths use dilute nitric acid to clean gold and silver articles; nitric acid dissolves base metal impurities and tarnish (such as silver sulfide) without attacking pure gold significantly.

Q.80 [Chemistry]

What is the action of litmus on ethanol?

(a) Litmus is neutral towards ethanol ✓
(b) Ethanol turns blue litmus to red; confirming acidic nature of ethanol
(c) Ethanol turns red litmus to blue; confirming basic nature of ethanol
(d) Ethanol decolorizes litmus through bleaching action

Explanation: Ethanol (C2H5OH) is a neutral substance; it neither donates protons nor accepts them in aqueous solution, so it has no effect on litmus — litmus remains unchanged.

Q.81 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following metal is NOT an essential component in stainless steel?

(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Chromium
(d) Tin ✓

Explanation: Stainless steel is an alloy primarily of iron, chromium (at least 10.5%), and often nickel; tin is not an essential component of stainless steel.

Q.82 [Chemistry]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Process) A. Separation of acetone and water from their mixture B. Separation of water and kerosene oil from their mixture C. Separation of cream from milk D. Separation of pigments from plant extract List II (Separation method) 1. Chromatography 2. Centrifugation 3. Distillation 4. Separating funnel Code: A B C D

(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 ✓
(d) 4 1 2 3

Explanation: Acetone and water are miscible liquids separated by distillation (3); water and kerosene are immiscible liquids separated by separating funnel (4); cream from milk is separated by centrifugation (2); pigments from plant extract are separated by chromatography (1). This gives A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Q.83 [Biology]

Which one of the following is NOT a requirement for photosynthesis?

(a) Chlorophyll
(b) CO₂
(c) Water
(d) O₂ ✓

Explanation: Photosynthesis requires sunlight, chlorophyll, CO₂, and water as raw materials. O₂ is a product of photosynthesis, not a requirement.

Q.84 [Biology]

In flowering plants, DNA content of the parent plant gets halved during

(a) Seed germination
(b) Fruit formation
(c) Flower bud formation
(d) Pollen formation ✓

Explanation: During pollen formation (microsporogenesis), meiosis occurs which halves the DNA content (from diploid 2n to haploid n). The other processes do not involve meiosis.

Q.85 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence during sexual reproduction in Angiosperms?

(a) Egg → zygote → embryo → seed ✓
(b) Embryo → egg → zygote → seed
(c) Egg → embryo → zygote → seed
(d) Egg → seed → zygote → embryo

Explanation: In angiosperms, fertilization of the egg produces a zygote, which divides to form the embryo, and the ovule matures into a seed. The correct sequence is egg → zygote → embryo → seed.

Q.86 [Biology]

Which one of the following combinations of events represents the correct sequence during reproduction in flowering plants?

(a) Ovule → fruit; egg → embryo; zygote → seed; ovary → egg
(b) Embryo → egg; ovary → fruit; ovule → zygote; zygote → seed
(c) Ovary → fruit; zygote → egg; embryo → ovule; seed → fruit
(d) Egg → zygote; zygote → embryo; ovule → seed; ovary → fruit ✓

Explanation: The correct developmental relationships are: egg is fertilized to form zygote; zygote develops into embryo; ovule matures into seed; ovary develops into fruit. Only option d has all four correct pairings.

Q.87 [Current Affairs]

The book 'Nation First: The Golden Saga of 82 Years' is the history of which one of the following organizations?

(a) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(b) Border Security Force
(c) Central Reserve Police Force ✓
(d) Central Industrial Security Force

Explanation: 'Nation First: The Golden Saga of 82 Years' was published to commemorate 82 years of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), which was established in 1939.

Q.88 [History / Archaeology]

Consider the following statements regarding Sanchi and its archaeological findings: 1. When Sanchi was discovered in 1818, three of its four gateways were still standing, the fourth was lying on the spot where it had fallen. 2. Animals depicted at Sanchi include elephants, horses, monkeys and cattle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. When Sanchi was rediscovered in 1818, three of the four toranas (gateways) were standing and the fourth had fallen. The carvings at Sanchi prominently depict elephants, horses, monkeys, and cattle among other animals.

Q.89 [Indian Economy]

Which Five Year Plan of India focused on rapid industrialization based growth process?

(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan ✓
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan
(d) Seventh Five Year Plan

Explanation: The Second Five Year Plan (1956–61), based on the Mahalanobis model, focused on rapid industrialization with emphasis on heavy industries and the public sector, shifting away from agriculture-focused growth.

Q.90 [History / Literature]

Chandimangala, a sixteenth century text, was composed by

(a) Hema Saraswati
(b) Madhav Kandali
(c) Tukaram
(d) Mukundaram Chakrabarti ✓

Explanation: Chandimangala is a famous Bengali text composed by Mukundaram Chakrabarti (also known as Kavikankana Mukundaram) in the sixteenth century, celebrating the goddess Chandi.

Q.91 [History / Vijayanagara]

Consider the following statements regarding the royal center in Vijayanagara Empire: 1. The royal center was located in the south-western part of the settlement. 2. It included over 60 temples. 3. About 30 building complexes at the site have been identified as palaces. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: The royal center at Vijayanagara (Hampi) was indeed located in the south-western part of the settlement (statement 1 is correct). However, the royal center had about 30 temples (not over 60), and while several large structures exist, the number identified specifically as palaces is much fewer than 30. Thus only statement 1 is correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.92 [Geography / General Knowledge]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) Area wise Madhya Pradesh is the fourth largest state in India ✓
(b) Hornbill festival is celebrated in Nagaland
(c) Gujarat state contribute 7–9 per cent share to the National GDP
(d) Telangana is situated in the Deccan plateau in the central stretch of Indian peninsula

Explanation: Madhya Pradesh is the second largest state in India by area (after Rajasthan), not the fourth largest. The other statements are correct: Hornbill festival is in Nagaland, Gujarat contributes about 7-9% to national GDP, and Telangana is on the Deccan plateau.

Q.93 [Geography]

Which one of the following soils is ideal for growing cotton?

(a) Regur soil ✓
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Desert soil
(d) Mountainous soil

Explanation: Regur soil (also known as black cotton soil or black soil) is ideal for growing cotton. It has high moisture retention capacity and is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime, making it very fertile for cotton cultivation.

Q.94 [General Knowledge]

Where is Central Institute of Buddhist Studies situated?

(a) Leh ✓
(b) Kullu
(c) Almora
(d) Gangtok

Explanation: The Central Institute of Buddhist Studies (CIBS) is located in Leh, Ladakh. It was established to promote higher Buddhist learning and research.

Q.95 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about physical features of India: 1. The southern point of the Peninsular Plateau is formed by the Nilgiri Hills where the Eastern and the Western Ghats meet. 2. The Cardamom Hills may be regarded as a continuation of the Eastern Ghats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — the Nilgiri Hills mark the meeting point of the Eastern and Western Ghats at the southern tip of the Peninsular Plateau. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Cardamom Hills (Anaimalai Hills region) are a continuation of the Western Ghats, not the Eastern Ghats.

Q.96 [Geography]

Which one of the following is the narrow belt parallel to the Shiwalik foothills where streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders?

(a) Tarai
(b) Bhangar
(c) Bhabar ✓
(d) Khadar

Explanation: Bhabar is the narrow belt parallel to the Shiwalik foothills where rivers emerging from the mountains deposit heavy materials like rocks and boulders. Rivers often disappear underground in this region. South of Bhabar lies the Tarai, where these rivers re-emerge.

Q.97 [Geography]

Which of the following statements about Suez Canal is/are correct? 1. Suez is a man-made navigation canal. 2. Suez links Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. 3. The economic significance of Suez Canal is less than that of Panama Canal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct — Suez Canal is indeed man-made and connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea. Statement 3 is incorrect — the Suez Canal has greater economic significance than the Panama Canal, as it handles a much larger volume of global trade traffic.

Q.98 [Physics]

An iron nail sinks in water whereas an iron ship floats. Which of the following statements is correct in this regard? 1. Average density of ship is greater than that of the water. 2. Average density of iron nail is greater than that of the water. 3. Average density of the ship is less than that of the water. 4. Average density of the ship is equal to that of the water. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Explanation: An iron nail sinks because its average density is greater than water (statement 2 correct). A ship floats because its large hollow structure makes its average density less than water (statement 3 correct). Therefore 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.99 [Physics]

Which of the following arrangement of resistors offers minimum effective resistance between points X and Y?

(a) Figure A
(b) Figure B
(c) Figure C
(d) Figure D

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.100 [Physics]

What will happen if a collection of positive and negative charges are passed at a high speed through a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the charges? (Assume that both kind of charges are NOT going to recombine)

(a) Both kind of charges will stop moving
(b) Positive charges and negative charges will separate out ✓
(c) Positive charges will stop but negative charges will continue moving uninterrupted
(d) Both kind of charges will keep moving uninterrupted

Explanation: When positive and negative charges move through a perpendicular magnetic field, the magnetic force (F = qv × B) acts in opposite directions on opposite charges, deflecting positive charges one way and negative charges the other way, causing them to separate.

Q.101 [Physics]

The motion of a particle of mass m is described by the relation, $y = ut - \frac{1}{2}gt^2$, where u is the initial velocity of the particle. The force acting on the particle is

(a) $F = m\left(\frac{du}{dt}\right)$
(b) $F = -mg$ ✓
(c) $F = m\left(\frac{dv}{dt}\right)$
(d) $F = -mg$

Explanation: Differentiating $y = ut - \frac{1}{2}gt^2$ twice with respect to time gives acceleration $a = -g$. Therefore force $F = ma = -mg$, indicating a constant downward gravitational force.

Q.102 [Physics]

A block of wood (dimensions: 40 cm × 20 cm × 10 cm) is kept on a tabletop in three different positions: (a) with its side of dimensions 20 cm × 10 cm; (b) with its side of dimensions 10 cm × 40 cm; and (c) with its side of dimensions 40 cm × 20 cm. The pressure exerted by the wooden block on the tabletop in these positions is represented by P₁, P₂ and P₃, respectively. The pressure follows the trend

(a) PA > PB > PC
(b) PA < PB < PC
(c) PA = PB = PC ✓
(d) PA < PB = PC

Explanation: Pressure = Force/Area = (mg)/Area. The weight (mg) of the block is constant regardless of orientation. While the contact area changes, the total weight remains the same. However, since pressure depends on area and the weight is fixed, different orientations give different pressures. Wait — re-evaluating: P = mg/A. Area A: position a = 20×10 = 200 cm², position b = 10×40 = 400 cm², position c = 40×20 = 800 cm². So PA > PB > PC, making option (a) correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.103 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following metals can be extracted using carbon as reducing agent?

(a) Zinc ✓
(b) Silver
(c) Gold
(d) Aluminum

Explanation: Zinc is extracted by reduction with carbon (coke) at high temperatures in a blast-type furnace. Silver and gold occur native or are extracted by other methods; aluminum requires electrolysis because carbon cannot reduce alumina at practical temperatures.

Q.104 [Chemistry]

Which among the following is NOT true with respect to colloidal solution? 1. Particles are uniformly distributed throughout the solution 2. Colloidal solution is homogeneous in nature 3. They show Tyndal effect 4. They do not settle down when kept undisturbed

(a) Particles are uniformly distributed throughout the solution
(b) Colloidal solution is homogeneous in nature ✓
(c) They show Tyndal effect
(d) They do not settle down when kept undisturbed

Explanation: Colloidal solutions are heterogeneous (not homogeneous) — the dispersed particles are larger than true solute molecules, creating a heterogeneous two-phase system, even though they appear uniform to the naked eye.

Q.105 [Chemistry]

Kerosene and petrol mixture can be best separated by

(a) Sublimation
(b) Separating funnel
(c) Fractional distillation ✓
(d) Compressing and cooling

Explanation: Kerosene and petrol are both miscible liquids with different boiling ranges (petrol ~70–120°C, kerosene ~150–275°C), so fractional distillation is the correct method to separate them.

Q.106 [Chemistry]

As proposed by Dalton, which of the following symbol represents phosphorus?

(a) Figure-based option
(b) Figure-based option
(c) Figure-based option
(d) Figure-based option

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.107 [Chemistry]

Which among the following statements with respect to carbon is/are correct? 1. Carbon forms the basis for all living organisms and many things we use 2. Carbon shows tetra-valency and the property of catenation 3. Carbon forms covalent bonds with itself and other elements 4. Carbon forms compounds containing triple and tetra bonds between carbon atoms

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 2 and 4

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong because carbon forms single, double, and triple bonds but NOT tetra (quadruple) bonds between carbon atoms.

Q.108 [History]

Consider the following statements: 1. Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in Cholistan and at Banawali (Haryana). 2. There is evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan associated with the mature phase of the Harappan civilization. 3. The ploughed field at Kalibangan had two sets of furrows crossing at right angles to each other suggesting two different crops were grown together in it. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above

Explanation: All three statements are historically accurate: terracotta plough models were found in Cholistan and Banawali; a ploughed field was discovered at Kalibangan in the mature Harappan phase; and the field showed a grid pattern of furrows at right angles, indicating two different crops grown simultaneously.

Q.109 [History]

Which of the following statements about the technological innovations during the Industrial Revolution are correct? 1. Mule was the nickname for a machine invented in 1779, that allowed the spinning of strong and fine yarn. 2. Water Frame, invented in 1769 by Richard Arkwright, made it possible to weave pure cotton clothes. 3. Power loom, invented by Edmund Cartwright in 1787, could be used to weave any kind of materials. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — Samuel Crompton's 'Spinning Mule' (1779) spun fine and strong yarn. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Water Frame spun cotton yarn (spinning, not weaving). Statement 3 is incorrect — the Power loom was invented in 1785 (not 1787) and was primarily for cotton weaving, not all materials.

Q.110 [Economy]

Who among the following is known as the architect of Indian planning?

(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) Sukhamoy Chakravarty
(c) P.C. Mahalanobis ✓
(d) John Mathai

Explanation: P.C. Mahalanobis is widely called the architect of Indian planning; he designed the statistical framework and the two-sector model that shaped India's Five-Year Plans, particularly the Second Plan.

Q.111 [History]

Which one of the following Ashokan Minor Rock Edicts contains the personal name of the king – Ashoka?

(a) Maski ✓
(b) Bahapur
(c) Bairat
(d) Sahasram

Explanation: The Maski edict (discovered in 1915 in Karnataka) is the first inscription where Ashoka is referred to by his personal name 'Ashoka', replacing the title 'Devanampiya'.

Q.112 [History]

Arrange the following in correct chronological order: 1. Charak Samhita 2. Bharat's Natyashastra 3. Sangam Literature 4. Ashtadhyayi Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1-3-4-2
(b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 4-3-1-2 ✓
(d) 3-1-2-4

Explanation: Ashtadhyayi (Panini, ~4th century BCE) is earliest, followed by Sangam Literature (~3rd century BCE–3rd century CE), then Charak Samhita (~1st–2nd century CE), and Bharat's Natyashastra (~2nd–3rd century CE) — giving order 4-3-1-2.

Q.113 [Geography]

Which one of the following is NOT an example of Fold Mountain?

(a) Mt. Fuji ✓
(b) Alps
(c) Andes
(d) Rockies

Explanation: Mt. Fuji is a volcanic mountain (stratovolcano) in Japan, not a fold mountain. Alps, Andes, and Rockies are all classic examples of fold mountains formed by tectonic plate convergence.

Q.114 [Geography]

Which one of the following is an organic soil?

(a) Aridisols
(b) Histosols ✓
(c) Oxisols
(d) Vertisols

Explanation: Histosols are organic soils formed primarily from accumulated plant material (peat and muck); they contain at least 20–30% organic matter by weight. Aridisols, Oxisols, and Vertisols are all mineral soils.

Q.115 [Geography]

The North-south and East-west Road Corridors of India cross each other at which of the following cities?

(a) Bhopal
(b) Itarsi
(c) Gwalior
(d) Jhansi ✓

Explanation: The North-South Corridor (Srinagar to Kanyakumari) and the East-West Corridor (Silchar to Porbandar) of the Golden Quadrilateral highway network intersect at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh.

Q.116 [Geography]

Which one of the following climatic regions of the world have a typical characteristic of seasonal reversal of wind?

(a) British type Climate
(b) Mediterranean Climate
(c) China type Climate
(d) Monsoon Climate ✓

Explanation: Monsoon climate is defined by the seasonal reversal of winds — onshore winds bringing heavy rainfall in summer and offshore dry winds in winter — a characteristic unique to monsoon regions.

Q.117 [Geography]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (a) Bokaro steel plant is located in Damodar river basin (b) Jamshedpur steel plant is located on the confluence of Damodar and Barakar (c) Salem steel plant is located on the bank of Kaveri River (d) Bhilai steel plant obtains water from Tandula reservoir

(a) Bokaro steel plant is located in Damodar river basin
(b) Jamshedpur steel plant is located on the confluence of Damodar and Barakar ✓
(c) Salem steel plant is located on the bank of Kaveri River
(d) Bhilai steel plant obtains water from Tandula reservoir

Explanation: Jamshedpur (Tata Steel) is located at the confluence of the Subarnarekha and Kharkai rivers, NOT the Damodar and Barakar. Bokaro is in the Damodar basin (correct); Bhilai does use Tandula reservoir (correct); Salem steel plant is near the Mettur reservoir on Kaveri (broadly correct).

Q.118 [Geography]

How many of the following pairs of specialized agriculture and its products are correctly matched? 1. Apiculture — Honey 2. Sericulture — Silk 3. Silviculture — Forestry 4. Viticulture — Grapes

(a) 4 ✓
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

Explanation: All four pairs are correctly matched: Apiculture = honey (bee-keeping), Sericulture = silk (silkworm rearing), Silviculture = forestry (cultivation of trees), Viticulture = grapes (grape cultivation).

Q.119 [Geography]

Which one of the following crops is generally benefitted by the rain caused by western disturbances in India?

(a) Rice
(b) Wheat ✓
(c) Bajra
(d) Cotton

Explanation: Western disturbances bring winter rainfall to northern India (especially Punjab, Haryana, UP) during November–February, which benefits the rabi crop wheat by providing critical moisture at the tillering stage.

Q.120 [Geography]

Which one of the following pairs of city and industry is NOT correctly matched? (a) Saharanpur – Paper industry (b) Chanderi – Cotton textile industry (c) Bhadohi – Carpet industry (d) Raniganj – Iron and steel industry

(a) Saharanpur – Paper industry
(b) Chanderi – Cotton textile industry
(c) Bhadohi – Carpet industry
(d) Raniganj – Iron and steel industry ✓

Explanation: Raniganj is famous for its coal mines (one of the oldest coalfields in India), not iron and steel. Iron and steel industries are associated with places like Jamshedpur, Durgapur, or Burnpur in the region.

Q.121 [Physics]

Which one of the following graphs represents the equation of motion v = u + at; where all quantities are non-zero and symbols carry their usual meanings?

(a) Figure-based option
(b) Figure-based option
(c) Figure-based option
(d) Figure-based option

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.122 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements is true for sound waves propagating in air?

(a) Sound is an electromagnetic wave and transverse in nature
(b) Sound is a mechanical wave and longitudinal in nature ✓
(c) Sound is a mechanical wave and transverse in nature
(d) Sound is an electromagnetic wave and longitudinal in nature

Explanation: Sound waves require a medium to propagate (hence mechanical, not electromagnetic) and travel as compressions and rarefactions along the direction of propagation (hence longitudinal, not transverse).

Q.123 [Physics]

A 100g sphere is moving at a speed of 20 m/s and collides with another sphere of mass 50g. If the second sphere was at rest prior to the collision and the first sphere comes at rest immediately after the collision, considering the collision to be elastic, the speed of the second sphere would be

(a) 10 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 30 m/s
(d) 40 m/s ✓

Explanation: By conservation of momentum: 0.1 × 20 + 0.05 × 0 = 0.1 × 0 + 0.05 × v, so 2 = 0.05v, giving v = 40 m/s.

Q.124 [Physics]

Which one of the following optical phenomena supports that the light is a transverse wave?

(a) Refraction
(b) Diffraction
(c) Interference
(d) Polarization ✓

Explanation: Polarization is only possible for transverse waves (where oscillations are perpendicular to propagation), thus it uniquely establishes the transverse nature of light.

Q.125 [Physics]

How many of the following materials can be attracted by a magnet? • Plastic • Carbon • Aluminium • Stainless Steel

(a) 1 ✓
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Among the listed materials, only certain grades of stainless steel (ferritic/martensitic) are ferromagnetic and attracted by a magnet; plastic, carbon, and aluminium are not attracted. Thus only 1 material (stainless steel) can be attracted.

Q.126 [History]

Consider the following statements with reference to the Bhoodan Movement: 1. Vinoba Bhave organized 'The Sarvodaya Samaj' to take up the work of non-violent transformation in India 2. Jayaprakash Narayan withdrew from active politics to join the Bhoodan Movement in 1953 3. In the wake of the Bhoodan Movement the first donation of land was made in the village of Pochampalli in Telangana How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Vinoba Bhave did organize the Sarvodaya Samaj, and the first land donation was at Pochampalli (now in Telangana) in 1951. Statement 2 is incorrect as Jayaprakash Narayan joined in 1954, not 1953. Thus 2 statements are correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.127 [Polity / International Relations]

Which among the following statements regarding the election of non-permanent members to the United Nations Security Council is/are correct? 1. Five members coming from Africa and Asia, one from Eastern Europe, two from Latin America and two from Western Europe and other states 2. Six members are elected each year by the General Assembly for two year term Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct regarding the regional distribution of the 10 non-permanent seats. Statement 2 is incorrect — only 5 members (not 6) are elected each year for a 2-year term, as the 10 seats are staggered so half are elected annually.

Q.128 [Polity]

Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India deals with District Planning Committee?

(a) 243ZD ✓
(b) 243ZB
(c) 243ZE
(d) 243ZC

Explanation: Article 243ZD of the Constitution of India specifically deals with the constitution of District Planning Committees to consolidate plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities.

Q.129 [Polity]

Consider the following statements about Attorney-General in India: 1. She/he is the first law officer of the Government of India 2. She/he has a right to speak in any House of Parliament without any right to vote 3. She/he is appointed by the President of India 4. She/he is a whole-time counsel for the Government in the court of law How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3 ✓
(d) 4

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect — the Attorney-General is not a whole-time counsel; she/he can take up private practice and is not barred from appearing against the Government in certain cases.

Q.130 [Geography / Current Affairs]

Which one among the following states was NOT impacted by the Land Boundary Agreement Treaty between India and Bangladesh (2015)?

(a) West Bengal
(b) Assam
(c) Tripura
(d) Arunachal Pradesh ✓

Explanation: The Land Boundary Agreement (2015) between India and Bangladesh involved enclaves in West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, and Tripura. Arunachal Pradesh does not share a boundary with Bangladesh and was not impacted.

Q.131 [Geography / Current Affairs]

The 480 MW Phukot Kamali Hydro Electric Project is situated in

(a) Thailand
(b) Indonesia
(c) Nepal ✓
(d) Bhutan

Explanation: The Phukot Kamali Hydroelectric Project is located on the Karnali (Kamali) river in Nepal, and India (SJVN) is involved in its development.

Q.132 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about a river: This river originates in the Hindu Kush mountain range and flows into Hamoun wetlands after covering a long stretch of about 1,100 km. There has been serious conflicts between two neighbouring nations regarding the sharing of water from this river. Identify the river from the following:

(a) Mekong
(b) Tarim
(c) Indus
(d) Helmand ✓

Explanation: The Helmand River originates in the Hindu Kush mountains of Afghanistan, flows about 1,150 km, and empties into the Hamoun wetlands; it has been a source of water dispute between Afghanistan and Iran.

Q.133 [Defence / Current Affairs]

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Bilateral Exercise) — List II (Participating Country) A. Garuda Shakti — 1. India and Japan B. Nomadic Elephant — 2. India and Sri Lanka C. Mitra Shakti — 3. India and Mongolia D. Dharma Guardian — 4. India and Indonesia Code: A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1 ✓
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4

Explanation: Garuda Shakti is India-Indonesia (A-4), Nomadic Elephant is India-Mongolia (B-3), Mitra Shakti is India-Sri Lanka (C-2), and Dharma Guardian is India-Japan (D-1), matching option (b): 4 3 2 1.

Q.134 [Defence / Awards]

Consider the following statements about gallantry awards in India: 1. Post-independence, first three gallantry awards were instituted on 26th January, 1950 2. The first three gallantry awards were Ashoka Chakra Class-I, Ashoka Chakra Class-II and Ashoka Chakra Class-III Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. The first three gallantry awards (Ashoka Chakra Class I, II, and III — later renamed to Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra) were instituted on 26 January 1950, the date India became a Republic.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.135 [Current Affairs / Science]

Consider the following statements about Centralized Laboratory Network (CLN): 1. CLN works to test vaccines which can be used during pandemic 2. India is a member of CLN 3. CLN is a part of the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct: the CLN under CEPI tests vaccine candidates for pandemic preparedness, India is a member through its labs, and the CLN is indeed established under CEPI's framework.

Q.136 [Current Affairs / Science & Technology]

Consider the following statements about Kavach, the automatic train protection system: 1. It is designed and developed by Research Design and Standard Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Railway Technical Research Institute (RTRI), Japan 2. The trials of Kavach were facilitated by the Southern Railway 3. Kavach is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only ✓
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 3 is correct — Kavach has SIL-4 certification. Statement 1 is incorrect as Kavach was developed by RDSO in collaboration with Indian private firms, not RTRI Japan. Statement 2 is incorrect as trials were conducted by South Central Railway, not Southern Railway.

Q.137 [Current Affairs]

The Nova Kakhovka dam, which was in news recently, is situated in

(a) Belarus
(b) Turkey
(c) Ukraine ✓
(d) Poland

Explanation: The Nova Kakhovka dam is located on the Dnieper River in Ukraine; it was destroyed in June 2023 during the Russia-Ukraine war.

Q.138 [Current Affairs / Sports]

Aaron Finch, who recently retired from international cricket, was captain of men's cricket team of which one of the following countries?

(a) South Africa
(b) Australia ✓
(c) England
(d) New Zealand

Explanation: Aaron Finch is an Australian cricketer who served as captain of the Australian men's international cricket team before retiring in 2023.

Q.139 [Current Affairs / Economy]

Which one of the following is the name of the dashboard launched recently by the Reserve Bank of India to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters?

(a) Pragya
(b) Antardrishti ✓
(c) Divyachakshu
(d) Antahgyan

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India launched the 'Antardrishti' dashboard to monitor and assess financial inclusion progress across various parameters in India.

Q.140 [History / Current Affairs]

'Sengol', installed in the new Parliament building of India, was seen as a symbol of the path of service, duty and nation in which Empire of the past?

(a) Gupta Empire
(b) Shunga Empire
(c) Pandyan Empire
(d) Chola Empire ✓

Explanation: The Sengol (sceptre) is historically associated with the Chola Empire of South India, where it symbolized a just and righteous transfer of power, and this tradition was revived at India's independence in 1947.