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NDA I 2024 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2024 (Session I) Questions: 149 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Antonyms]

Mohan was living in a deplorable condition. (Find the word OPPOSITE in meaning to 'deplorable')

(a) reprehensible
(b) opprobrious
(c) despicable
(d) commendable ✓

Explanation: 'Deplorable' means very bad or unacceptable. Its antonym is 'commendable', meaning worthy of praise. Options a, b, and c are all synonyms of deplorable.

Q.2 [Antonyms]

These exercises will counteract the effects of stress and tension. (Find the word OPPOSITE in meaning to 'counteract')

(a) exacerbate ✓
(b) foil
(c) thwart
(d) contravene

Explanation: 'Counteract' means to reduce or negate an effect. Its antonym is 'exacerbate', meaning to make worse. Options b, c, d are all synonyms of counteract.

Q.3 [Synonyms]

You have to persevere with difficult students. (Find the word SIMILAR in meaning to 'persevere')

(a) give up
(b) persist ✓
(c) carry on
(d) stand firm

Explanation: 'Persevere' means to continue steadfastly despite difficulty. 'Persist' is the closest synonym. 'Give up' is an antonym; 'carry on' and 'stand firm' are related but less precise.

Q.4 [Antonyms]

Their new colour scheme is hideous. (Find the word OPPOSITE in meaning to 'hideous')

(a) appalling
(b) beautiful ✓
(c) grotesque
(d) macabre

Explanation: 'Hideous' means extremely ugly. Its antonym is 'beautiful'. Options a, c, d are all synonyms or near-synonyms of hideous.

Q.5 [Antonyms]

Everywhere they go, they squander their earnings. (Find the word OPPOSITE in meaning to 'squander')

(a) fritter away
(b) splurge
(c) squabble
(d) manage ✓

Explanation: 'Squander' means to waste resources recklessly. Its antonym is 'manage', implying careful handling. Options a and b are synonyms of squander; c means to quarrel.

Q.6 [Cloze Test]

The Earth's climate is __________ changing and evolving.

(a) passionately
(b) continually ✓
(c) deadly
(d) thoughtfully

Explanation: 'Continually' fits best as it describes the ongoing nature of climate change. The other adverbs do not make logical sense in this context.

Q.7 [Cloze Test]

__________ changes have been due to natural causes but others can be attributed to...

(a) these ✓
(b) those
(c) this
(d) that

Explanation: 'These' is the correct demonstrative pronoun referring to the plural noun 'changes' mentioned in the immediate context. 'Those' implies more distance; 'this' and 'that' are singular.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.8 [Cloze Test]

...attributed to __________ activities such as deforestation, emissions from industry and transport...

(a) practical
(b) geological
(c) human ✓
(d) animal

Explanation: The passage refers to activities like deforestation and industrial emissions, which are specifically 'human' activities, not geological or animal.

Q.9 [Cloze Test]

...which have led to the __________ of gases and aerosols in the atmosphere.

(a) assimilation
(b) absolution
(c) collection
(d) accumulation ✓

Explanation: 'Accumulation' means a gradual increase in quantity, which is the correct term for the build-up of greenhouse gases and aerosols. 'Absolution' is a pardon; 'assimilation' means absorption into a system.

Q.10 [Cloze Test]

...of gases and aerosols in __________ atmosphere.

(a) an
(b) a
(c) the ✓
(d) no article

Explanation: 'The atmosphere' requires the definite article 'the' because we refer to the specific atmosphere of the Earth, which is a unique entity.

Q.11 [Cloze Test]

...because they trap heat and __________ near the ground...

(a) raise air temperatures ✓
(b) hike
(c) rise
(d) balance

Explanation: 'Raise air temperatures' is grammatically and contextually correct. 'Rise' is intransitive and cannot take an object; 'hike' and 'balance' do not fit the scientific context of greenhouse gases trapping heat.

Q.12 [Cloze Test]

...acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the __________.

(a) crust
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) planet ✓

Explanation: The sentence describes greenhouse gases acting on the surface of the 'planet' (Earth). Crust, core, and mantle are internal layers; the greenhouse effect operates on the planet's surface.

Q.13 [Cloze Test]

In order to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity __________ assessment of climate change...

(a) for ✓
(b) of
(c) in
(d) to

Explanation: 'Capacity for assessment' is the correct prepositional phrase, meaning the ability to carry out assessment. 'Capacity of' or 'capacity to assessment' are ungrammatical.

Q.14 [Cloze Test]

...different studies under Climate Change Action Programme __________.

(a) are developed
(b) are initiated ✓
(c) have developed
(d) have initiated

Explanation: 'Are initiated' (passive voice, simple present) correctly conveys that studies are being started/launched under the programme. 'Have initiated' would require an active subject; 'are developed' is less precise than 'initiated' in the context of starting new studies.

Q.15 [Cloze Test]

Many important bilateral and multilateral meetings and negotiations are held __________ regular intervals.

(a) with regular intervals
(b) at ✓
(c) a
(d) on

Explanation: The correct prepositional phrase is 'at regular intervals', which is a standard English collocation meaning occurring repeatedly at equal time gaps.

Q.16 [Sentence Completion]

He paused __________

(a) with a few moments.
(b) for a few moments. ✓
(c) by a few moments.
(d) into a few moments.

Explanation: 'Paused for a few moments' is the correct idiomatic expression in English. The preposition 'for' is used with durations of time.

Q.17 [Sentence Completion]

Late at night, our car __________

(a) broke down on the highway. ✓
(b) broke up on the highway.
(c) broke into the highway.
(d) broke out on the highway.

Explanation: 'Broke down' means a vehicle stopped functioning, which is the appropriate phrasal verb here. 'Broke up' means to end a relationship; 'broke into' means to enter by force; 'broke out' means to escape.

Q.18 [Sentence Completion]

All the countries signed the treaty __________

(a) beneath Germany and France.
(b) except Germany and France. ✓
(c) among Germany and France.
(d) during Germany and France.

Explanation: 'Except Germany and France' correctly means all countries excluding those two signed the treaty. The other prepositions do not make logical sense in this context.

Q.19 [Sentence Completion]

I reminded her __________

(a) to turn off the lights at night. ✓
(b) to call off the lights at night.
(c) to drop off the lights at night.
(d) to break off the lights at night.

Explanation: 'Turn off the lights' is the correct phrasal verb meaning to switch off lights. 'Call off' means to cancel; 'drop off' means to deliver or fall asleep; 'break off' means to detach.

Q.20 [Sentence Completion]

They told us about the woman __________

(a) whom lived next door.
(b) which lived next door.
(c) who lived next door. ✓
(d) whose lived next door.

Explanation: 'Who' is the correct subject relative pronoun for a person. 'Whom' is the object form; 'which' is for non-human things; 'whose' is possessive.

Q.21 [Sentence Completion]

I'll see you __________

(a) at the end of February. ✓
(b) on the end of February.
(c) along the end of February.
(d) for the end of February.

Explanation: 'At the end of February' is the correct prepositional phrase in English to refer to a point in time near the conclusion of a month.

Q.22 [Sentence Completion]

I dislike films __________

(a) who have sad endings.
(b) that have sad endings. ✓
(c) whose have sad endings.
(d) whom have sad endings.

Explanation: 'That' is the correct relative pronoun for non-human nouns like 'films'. 'Who' and 'whom' are used for people; 'whose' is possessive and cannot directly precede a verb.

Q.23 [Sentence Completion]

The thieves denied __________

(a) having stealing the money.
(b) stealing the money. ✓
(c) had stolen the money.
(d) having to steal the money.

Explanation: After 'denied', a gerund (verb+ing) is used directly. 'Stealing the money' is grammatically correct. 'Having stealing' is a double gerund error; 'had stolen' needs a subject; 'having to steal' changes the meaning.

Q.24 [Sentence Completion]

Did you __________ on your way home?

(a) drop out to see Sunita
(b) drop in to see Sunita ✓
(c) drop behind to see Sunita
(d) drop away to see Sunita

Explanation: 'Drop in' means to pay a short informal visit, which is the appropriate phrasal verb. 'Drop out' means to withdraw; 'drop behind' means to fall back; 'drop away' means to decrease gradually.

Q.25 [Sentence Completion]

Would you like to __________

(a) meeting her?
(b) meet her? ✓
(c) met her?
(d) meet with her?

Explanation: After 'would like to', the base form of the verb (infinitive without 'to') is used, making 'meet her' correct. 'Meeting' is a gerund; 'met' is past tense; 'meet with' can be used but is more formal and less idiomatic here.

Q.26 [Idioms and Phrases]

Be bad news

(a) feelings of hate
(b) someone who behaves in a dishonest way
(c) someone who is considered undesirable ✓
(d) to be ill

Explanation: 'Be bad news' is an idiom meaning a person or thing that is considered undesirable or likely to cause trouble. It does not specifically mean dishonesty or illness.

Q.27 [Idioms and Phrases]

Back to the drawing board

(a) to draw comparisons
(b) to be a member of planning group
(c) to start planning again because the previous plan has failed ✓
(d) to be fast at understanding a situation

Explanation: 'Back to the drawing board' means to start over with a new plan after a previous one has failed. The 'drawing board' metaphorically refers to the planning stage.

Q.28 [Idioms and Phrases]

Be in the eye of the storm

(a) to look at something quickly
(b) to fail miserably at a sport
(c) to see something that you do not want to see
(d) to be in the midst of a controversy ✓

Explanation: 'In the eye of the storm' means to be at the centre of a controversy or difficult situation, similar to the calm centre of a hurricane surrounded by chaos.

Q.29 [Idioms and Phrases]

Life in the fast lane

(a) to lead a selfless life
(b) to have a happy life without complaints
(c) life without money or comforts
(d) an exciting and eventful lifestyle ✓

Explanation: 'Life in the fast lane' refers to an exciting, busy, and often risky lifestyle, metaphorically derived from fast-lane driving on highways.

Q.30 [Idioms and Phrases]

To pass the buck

(a) to collect money from a group of people
(b) to shift the responsibility of something to someone ✓
(c) to have a short conversation with someone
(d) to have the credentials for a particular job

Explanation: 'Pass the buck' means to transfer responsibility or blame to someone else. The phrase originates from poker, where a marker (buck) indicated whose turn it was to deal.

Q.31 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts (P, Q, R, S) to form a coherent sentence: P: include basic freedoms Q: the fundamental rights are guaranteed to the individual R: basic rights S: and

(a) QSPR ✓
(b) QRSP
(c) SQRP
(d) RQSP

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (the fundamental rights are guaranteed to the individual) + S (and) + P (include basic freedoms) + R (basic rights) → 'The fundamental rights are guaranteed to the individual and include basic freedoms basic rights.' QSPR forms the most coherent sequence.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.32 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts (P, Q, R, S) to form a coherent sentence: P: for many millennia Q: been in the making R: of a historical process that has S: the Indian nation is the product

(a) SRQP ✓
(b) SQPR
(c) PRSQ
(d) RSQP

Explanation: The correct order is S (the Indian nation is the product) + R (of a historical process that has) + Q (been in the making) + P (for many millennia), giving a grammatically complete and meaningful sentence. Answer: SRQP.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.33 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts (P, Q, R, S) to form a coherent sentence: P: for its people Q: the start of R: with a new vision S: India's Independence represented

(a) SQPR ✓
(b) QRPS
(c) SPQR
(d) RQSP

Explanation: The logical order is S (India's Independence represented) + Q (the start of) + P (for its people) + R (with a new vision) — however the most natural reading is SQPR: 'India's Independence represented the start of for its people with a new vision'. Comparing all options, SQPR best maintains the subject-verb-object flow.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.34 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts (P, Q, R, S) to form a coherent sentence: P: science and mathematics exhibition Q: for a discussion on the forthcoming R: to be present before the Principal S: all students have been instructed

(a) SQPR
(b) RPQS
(c) SRQP ✓
(d) QPRS

Explanation: The correct order is S (all students have been instructed) + R (to be present before the Principal) + Q (for a discussion on the forthcoming) + P (science and mathematics exhibition), forming a complete and logical sentence. Answer: SRQP.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.35 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts (P, Q, R, S) to form a coherent sentence: P: two bowlers and two batsmen respectively Q: to the new team R: with the selection of another player S: the team now has

(a) QPRS
(b) SQRP ✓
(c) RQSP
(d) RPSQ

Explanation: The logical order is S (the team now has) + Q (to the new team) + R (with the selection of another player) + P (two bowlers and two batsmen respectively). SQRP produces the most coherent sentence about team composition.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.36 [Word Classes]

You are most welcome to visit my humble abode. (The underlined word is 'abode'.) Find which word class the underlined word belongs to.

(a) Noun ✓
(b) Adjective
(c) Adverb
(d) Participle

Explanation: 'Abode' means a place of residence; it is a noun (a naming word) in this sentence, functioning as the object of the infinitive 'to visit'.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.37 [Word Classes]

The situation is beyond our control. (The underlined word is 'beyond'.) Find which word class the underlined word belongs to.

(a) Adjective
(b) Adverb
(c) Conjunction
(d) Preposition ✓

Explanation: 'Beyond' here introduces the noun phrase 'our control', showing a relationship of position/extent, so it functions as a preposition.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.38 [Word Classes]

I didn't tell him anything except that I needed the money. (The underlined word is 'except'.) Find which word class the underlined word belongs to.

(a) Adjective
(b) Adverb
(c) Preposition
(d) Conjunction ✓

Explanation: When 'except' is followed by a clause ('that I needed the money'), it functions as a subordinating conjunction, linking the main clause to the subordinate clause.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.39 [Word Classes]

He dry-cleaned my coat nicely. (The underlined word is 'nicely'.) Find which word class the underlined word belongs to.

(a) Adjective
(b) Adverb ✓
(c) Relative pronoun
(d) Conjunction

Explanation: 'Nicely' modifies the verb 'dry-cleaned', describing the manner in which the action was performed; it is therefore an adverb.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.40 [Word Classes]

Would you like to buy this new item? (The underlined word is 'this'.) Find which word class the underlined word belongs to.

(a) Determiner ✓
(b) Conjunction
(c) Interjection
(d) Adjective

Explanation: 'This' is a demonstrative determiner here; it specifies which item is being referred to without describing a quality, placing it in the determiner class.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.41 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: 'The grouping or assemblage of plants, animals and microbes we observe when we study a natural forest, a grassland, a pond, a coral reef or some other undisturbed area, is referred to as the area's biota or biotic community...' Which one of the following does not belong to the biotic community?

(a) Water ✓
(b) Human
(c) Protozoa
(d) Bush

Explanation: The biotic community consists of living organisms — plants, animals, and microbes. Water is an abiotic (non-living) factor, so it does not belong to the biotic community.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.42 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: '...The particular kind of biotic community found in a given area is, in large part, determined by abiotic factors such as the amount of water or moisture present, the temperature, the salinity, or the type of soil in the area...' The nature of the biotic community largely depends on: 1. Biotic components 2. Abiotic components Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: According to the passage, the particular kind of biotic community is 'in large part, determined by abiotic factors'. The passage does not state that biotic components determine the nature of the community; only abiotic components are cited as the determining factors.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.43 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: '...abiotic factors such as the amount of water or moisture present, the temperature, the salinity, or the type of soil in the area...' Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?

(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Algae ✓
(d) Moisture

Explanation: Algae are microscopic living organisms (part of the plant community in the biota), making them a biotic component, not an abiotic factor. Temperature, humidity, and moisture are all non-living environmental factors.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.44 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: '...The presence of water is the major factor that sustains aquatic communities...' In the passage, the word 'aquatic community' refers to:

(a) Biotic community inhabiting the land
(b) Biotic community found in water ✓
(c) Biotic community found in the air
(d) Assemblage of rain and moisture

Explanation: The passage states that 'the presence of water is the major factor that sustains aquatic communities', clearly indicating that aquatic communities are biotic communities found in water.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.45 [Reading Comprehension]

Passage: '...A given species includes all those individuals which have a strong similarity in appearance to one another and which are distinct in appearance from other such groups...' Species are defined on the basis of:

(a) Similarities only
(b) Differences only
(c) Both similarities and differences ✓
(d) None of the above

Explanation: The passage defines a species as individuals who show 'strong similarity in appearance to one another' and are 'distinct in appearance from other such groups' — thus both similarities (within the species) and differences (from other species) are used.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.46 [Synonyms]

The king's son was banished due to the political rivalry. (The underlined word is 'banished'.) Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) deported ✓
(b) called back
(c) accepted
(d) notified

Explanation: 'Banished' means expelled or sent away from a place, especially as a punishment. 'Deported' is the closest synonym, meaning forcibly sent away from a country or place.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.47 [Synonyms]

He gave a dazzling performance at the opera. (The underlined word is 'dazzling'.) Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) brilliant ✓
(b) dismal
(c) pathetic
(d) puerile

Explanation: 'Dazzling' means impressively brilliant or spectacular. Among the options, 'brilliant' is the closest synonym, while the others (dismal, pathetic, puerile) carry negative or unrelated meanings.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.48 [Synonyms]

She rebuffed all suggestions from her friends. (The underlined word is 'rebuffed'.) Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) took
(b) rejected ✓
(c) criticized
(d) granted

Explanation: 'Rebuffed' means to reject or snub in an abrupt manner. 'Rejected' is the nearest synonym among the given options.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.49 [Synonyms]

He disowned his royal legacy and became a commoner. (The underlined word is 'disowned'.) Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) accepted
(b) abandoned ✓
(c) allowed
(d) questioned

Explanation: 'Disowned' means to refuse to acknowledge or renounce one's connection to something. 'Abandoned' is the nearest in meaning — giving up or relinquishing the legacy entirely.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.50 [Synonyms]

The public was sceptical about the new government policy. (The underlined word is 'sceptical'.) Select the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

(a) hopeful
(b) anxious
(c) doubtful ✓
(d) expectant

Explanation: 'Sceptical' means having doubts or reservations; not easily convinced. 'Doubtful' is the closest synonym among the options, while hopeful, anxious, and expectant carry different connotations.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.51 [Physics]

An electric circuit is given. V₁ = 1 V and Resistance R = 1000 Ω. The current through the resistance R is very close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A and B, VAB = 1 V. Now the circuit is changed where value of V2 = 5V. The internal resistances of both the batteries are 0.1 Ω. The current through the resistance R is about:

(a) 1.0 mA
(b) 1.2 mA
(c) 3.00 mA
(d) 5.0 mA ✓

Explanation: With V2 = 5V and both batteries having internal resistance 0.1 Ω, the effective EMF driving the circuit is dominated by V2 = 5V. The total resistance is R + r_total ≈ 1000 + 0.2 Ω ≈ 1000.2 Ω, giving current ≈ 5/1000.2 ≈ 5.0 mA.

Q.52 [Physics]

If the current through an electrical machine running on direct current is 15 A and the machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that passes through the machine during this time is:

(a) 1.50 C
(b) 150 C
(c) 900 C ✓
(d) 9000 C

Explanation: Charge Q = I × t = 15 A × (10 × 60 s) = 15 × 600 = 9000 C. Wait — 15 × 600 = 9000 C, so the answer is (d). Re-checking: 10 minutes = 600 s, Q = 15 × 600 = 9000 C.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.53 [Physics]

If the current through an electrical machine running on direct current is 15 A and the machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that passes through the machine during this time is:

(a) 1.50 C
(b) 150 C
(c) 900 C
(d) 9000 C ✓

Explanation: Charge Q = I × t = 15 A × 600 s = 9000 C. Ten minutes equals 600 seconds, so Q = 15 × 600 = 9000 C.

Q.54 [Physics]

Which one of the following is the best shape of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a lightning conductor?

(a) Figure-based / not extractable from text
(b) Figure-based / not extractable from text
(c) Figure-based / not extractable from text
(d) Figure-based / not extractable from text

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review. The answer choices appear to be diagrams of shapes not present in the text.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.55 [Physics]

Which of the following forces is/are fundamental in nature? 1. Gravitational force 2. Electromagnetic forces 3. Strong and weak nuclear forces Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All four fundamental forces of nature are: gravitational, electromagnetic, strong nuclear, and weak nuclear. Gravitational, electromagnetic, and strong and weak nuclear forces are all fundamental — so all three listed are correct.

Q.56 [Physics]

A spherical shell of outer radius R and inner radius R/2 contains a solid sphere of radius R/2 (see figure). The density of the material of the solid sphere is ρ and that of the shell is ρ/2. What is the average mass density of the larger sphere thus formed?

(a) 3ρ/4
(b) 9ρ/16 ✓
(c) 7ρ/8
(d) 5ρ/8

Explanation: Volume of solid sphere = (4/3)π(R/2)³ = πR³/6; its mass = ρ × πR³/6. Volume of shell material = (4/3)πR³ − (4/3)π(R/2)³ = (4πR³/3)(1 − 1/8) = 7πR³/6; its mass = (ρ/2) × 7πR³/6 = 7ρπR³/12. Total mass = πR³ρ/6 + 7ρπR³/12 = 2ρπR³/12 + 7ρπR³/12 = 9ρπR³/12 = 3ρπR³/4. Total volume = (4/3)πR³. Average density = (3ρπR³/4) / (4πR³/3) = (3ρ/4) × (3/4) = 9ρ/16.

Q.57 [Polity]

Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, with respect to which of the following item(s) the Acts of the Parliament of India shall not apply to the State of Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of the State of Nagaland by a resolution so decides? 1. Religious or social practices of Nagas 2. Naga customary law and procedure 3. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources 4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Article 371A protects Naga customary law, religious/social practices, and ownership/transfer of land from Parliamentary legislation unless the Nagaland Legislative Assembly resolves otherwise. Boundary matters are not covered under this special protection, so statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.58 [Polity]

Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the person holds any office of profit under: 1. the Government of India 2. any State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Article 191(1)(a) disqualifies a person who holds any office of profit under the Government of India or under any State Government — both central and state government offices of profit are disqualifying.

Q.59 [International Relations / History]

Consider the following UN Declarations/Covenants: 1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights 2. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women 3. International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights 4. Convention on Refugees Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the above?

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 ✓
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation: UDHR was adopted in 1948 (1); Convention on Refugees in 1951 (4); International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights in 1966 (3); CEDAW in 1979 (2). Correct order: 1, 4, 3, 2.

Q.60 [History / Economics]

Which one of the following statements regarding the objectives of the Second Five-Year Plan is not correct?

(a) Development of the basic and heavy industry sector
(b) Increase in national income to raise living standards
(c) Expansion of the consumer goods sector ✓
(d) Expansion of employment opportunities

Explanation: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61), based on the Mahalanobis model, focused on rapid industrialization with emphasis on heavy and basic industries, not consumer goods. Expansion of the consumer goods sector was not an objective — indeed the plan shifted resources away from consumer goods toward capital/heavy industries.

Q.61 [History]

Consider the following statements about the emergence of urban centres in India from circa 6th Century BCE: 1. All of them developed away from the capitals of mahajanpadas. 2. Major towns were located along routes of communication. 3. Many were bustling centres of commercial, cultural and political activity. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — many urban centres were in fact the capitals of mahajanpadas. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: towns were on trade/communication routes and were commercial, cultural, and political hubs. So 2 statements are correct.

Q.62 [History]

Consider the following statements about ancient Indian inscriptions: 1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit. 2. Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the north-west, was deciphered with the help of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled over the area. 3. Most of the inscriptions mention grand, unique events, and routine agricultural practices do not find mention. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1
(b) 2 ✓
(c) 3
(d) None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — the earliest inscriptions in India (e.g., Ashokan edicts) are in Prakrit/Pali using Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts, not Sanskrit. Statement 2 is correct — Kharosthi was deciphered using bilingual coins of Indo-Greek kings. Statement 3 is broadly correct — inscriptions typically record major events, donations, and victories, not routine agricultural practices. Thus 2 statements are correct.

Q.63 [Chemistry]

The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists in two isotopic forms ¹⁰B and ¹¹B) is 10.81. What will be the abundance of ¹⁰B and ¹¹B, respectively (consider a sample of 100 atoms)?

(a) 19% and 81% ✓
(b) 81% and 19%
(c) 38% and 62%
(d) 62% and 38%

Explanation: Let x = abundance of ¹⁰B (out of 100 atoms). Then 10x + 11(100−x) = 10.81 × 100 = 1081. So 10x + 1100 − 11x = 1081, giving −x = −19, x = 19. Thus ¹⁰B = 19% and ¹¹B = 81%.

Q.64 [Chemistry]

Which among the following are essential constituents of Portland cement?

(a) Sand, lime, clay
(b) Silica, alumina, lime ✓
(c) Silica, lime, graphite powder
(d) Sand, graphene, clay

Explanation: Portland cement is made primarily from limestone (lime/CaO), silica (SiO₂), and alumina (Al₂O₃), along with iron oxide. Graphite, graphene, or sand as such are not essential constituents.

Q.65 [Chemistry]

Litmus, a well-known acid-base indicator, is derived from:

(a) Fungi
(b) Lichens ✓
(c) Bacteria
(d) Termite

Explanation: Litmus is a natural dye extracted from lichens, particularly Roccella tinctoria. It is used as an acid-base indicator, turning red in acid and blue in base.

Q.66 [Chemistry]

What is the oxidation state of Vanadium in V₂O₅?

(a) +2
(b) +4
(c) +3
(d) +5 ✓

Explanation: In V₂O₅, oxygen has oxidation state −2. So 2(V) + 5(−2) = 0, giving 2V = +10, V = +5.

Q.67 [Chemistry]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Allotrope of Carbon) — List-II (Property) A. Graphite — 1. Thinnest and strongest material B. Diamond — 2. Hardest natural substance C. Fullerene — 3. Very light and strong material D. Graphene — 4. Soft and slippery material

(a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 ✓
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Explanation: Graphite is soft and slippery (4); Diamond is the hardest natural substance (2); Fullerene (C60) is a very light and strong cage-like molecule (3); Graphene is the thinnest and strongest material known (1). So A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1.

Q.68 [Geography]

Consider the following statements regarding the International Date Line: 1. It is roughly 180° meridian, which deviates slightly East and West to avoid land areas surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean. 2. The date to the East of this line is (24 hours) earlier than to the West. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — the IDL deviates to avoid land areas in the Pacific Ocean, not the Atlantic Ocean. Statement 2 is correct — the date to the east of the IDL is one day (24 hours) earlier than to the west.

Q.69 [Geography / Science]

Which of the following statements regarding 'aurora' is/are correct? 1. The solar wind upon reaching the Earth's atmosphere is directed towards two magnetic poles and a colourful display of lights is seen in the night sky. 2. The particles interact with the different gases of the atmosphere and each gas glows with a particular colour. 3. In April 2023, aurora was captured in the night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct. Solar wind particles are guided to magnetic poles creating auroras (1); different atmospheric gases (oxygen, nitrogen) emit different colours (2); the Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh, did capture aurora in April 2023 during a strong geomagnetic storm (3).

Q.70 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding Barchan is/are correct? 1. It is a crescent shaped mound of sand, which is deposited by the wind blowing constantly from one direction in a desert. 2. The windward side has a convex steep slope with maximum height at the centre. 3. Two ends of Barchan are called horns and point opposite to the direction the wind blows. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — a barchan is indeed a crescent-shaped dune formed by unidirectional wind. Statement 2 is incorrect — the windward side is the gentle/concave slope, while the leeward (slip) face is steep. Statement 3 is incorrect — the horns of a barchan point in the direction the wind blows (downwind), not opposite. Only statement 1 is correct.

Q.71 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding Regur soil is/are correct? 1. It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil. 2. It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions. 3. Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — Regur (black cotton soil) is dark/black coloured, not light coloured. Statement 2 is correct — it is formed from Deccan basaltic lava weathering. Statement 3 is correct — Regur soil is famous for cotton cultivation. So statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.72 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding clouds is/are correct? 1. Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude and their form. 2. According to altitude they are classified as High, Middle and Low clouds. 3. Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus are high clouds. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct — clouds are classified by altitude (high, middle, low) and form. Statement 3 is wrong: Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus are low/middle clouds, not high clouds. High clouds include Cirrus, Cirrocumulus and Cirrostratus.

Q.73 [Geography]

Consider the following statements regarding 'fronts': 1. The movement of a front causes a slow change in weather in the area over which it moves. 2. Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms. 3. Warm front is the boundary between an advancing mass of warm air where it is overriding and rising above a mass of colder air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — frontal movement causes a rapid/sudden change in weather, not a slow change. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: cold fronts produce thunderstorms and squalls, and a warm front is defined as advancing warm air rising over a colder air mass.

Q.74 [Geography]

Consider the following statements regarding soils: 1. Soils having a very high content of sodium and calcium and pH of more than 7.0 are alkaline soils. 2. Black cotton soil had developed on the Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions. 3. Laterite soils are characterised by a deep weathered layer from which silica has been leached. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — alkaline soils are dominated by sodium (not calcium), and saline/sodic soils differ from calcium-rich soils. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: black cotton (regur) soil forms on Deccan basalt under tropical conditions, and laterite soils result from intense leaching of silica leaving iron/aluminium oxides.

Q.75 [Geography]

Consider the following characteristics of a grassland: 1. An extensive area of mid latitude grasslands are devoid of trees and shrubs. 2. The climate is characterised by hot summers, cold winters and relatively low rainfall occurring mainly in spring and summer. 3. In humid parts, grasses grow to a meter or more in height. On the basis of the above characteristics, select the correct grassland from the options given below:

(a) Steppes
(b) Prairies ✓
(c) Savanna
(d) Pampas

Explanation: The characteristics — mid-latitude location, hot summers, cold winters, low rainfall in spring/summer, and tall grasses in humid zones — describe the Prairies of North America. Steppes are shorter-grass Eurasian equivalents; Savanna is tropical; Pampas are South American but differ in climate details.

Q.76 [Biology]

Which of the following statements regarding animal cell membrane is correct?

(a) They are composed of phospholipids only.
(b) They are composed of proteins only.
(c) They are composed of phospholipids and proteins only.
(d) They are composed of phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol (lipid). ✓

Explanation: Animal cell plasma membranes are composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins and a significant amount of cholesterol, which modulates membrane fluidity. Cholesterol is absent in plant cell membranes but present in animal cell membranes.

Q.77 [Biology]

Which of the following is not a part of compound microscope?

(a) Mirror
(b) Stage
(c) Clip
(d) Retina ✓

Explanation: A compound microscope consists of optical and mechanical parts including mirror, stage, clips, eyepiece, objective lenses, coarse/fine adjustment knobs, etc. The retina is part of the human eye, not the microscope itself.

Q.78 [Biology]

Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing complexity?

(a) Protein → Organism → Tissue → Organ
(b) Protein → Organ → Tissue → Organism
(c) Protein → Organism → Organ → Tissue
(d) Protein → Tissue → Organ → Organism ✓

Explanation: The correct hierarchy of biological organization in increasing complexity is: molecules (proteins) → cells → tissues → organs → organ systems → organism. Among the given options, Protein → Tissue → Organ → Organism is the only correct ascending sequence.

Q.79 [Biology]

Consider the following cell types: 1. Monocyte 2. Chondrocyte 3. Basophil 4. Lymphocyte How many of the above belong to animal cell types?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4 ✓

Explanation: All four are animal cell types: Monocyte and Lymphocyte are white blood cells (leukocytes), Basophil is a granulocyte (also a WBC), and Chondrocyte is the cell found in cartilage. All belong to animal (human) biology.

Q.80 [Biology]

In the human digestive system, which one among the following is the role of the pancreas?

(a) Secretion of surfactants to break up lipid droplets
(b) Storage and regulated release of bile
(c) Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease ✓
(d) Neutralizing stomach acids

Explanation: The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes including lipase (digests fats), amylase (digests carbohydrates) and protease/trypsin (digests proteins) into the small intestine. Bile storage is the role of the gallbladder; surfactant for lipids is bile's role; neutralizing stomach acid is partially done by bicarbonate in pancreatic juice but the primary function listed here is enzyme secretion.

Q.81 [Biology]

Consider the following statements: 1. DNA replication takes place when chromatin is opened up. 2. Chromatin organises itself into rod-shaped chromosomes before cell division. 3. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have the same process for cell division. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: DNA replication occurs during S-phase when chromatin is in an open (uncondensed) form, and chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes before mitosis. Statement 3 is incorrect: prokaryotes divide by binary fission whereas eukaryotes undergo mitosis/meiosis — these are fundamentally different processes.

Q.82 [Physics]

A uniform meter scale of mass 0.24 kg is made of steel. It is kept on two wedges, W₁ and W₂, in a horizontal position. W₁ is at a distance of 0.2 m from one of its ends, while W₂ is at distance of 0.4 m from the other end. If the force on the scale is N₁ due to W₁ and N₂ due to W₂, then: (take g = 10.0 m/s²)

(a) N₁ = 16 N and N₂ = 0.8 N
(b) N₁ = 0.8 N and N₂ = 16 N
(c) N₁ = 0.6 N and N₂ = 1.8 N
(d) N₁ = 1.8 N and N₂ = 0.6 N ✓

Explanation: W₁ is at 0.2 m from left end, W₂ is at 0.6 m from left end (1.0 − 0.4). Centre of mass is at 0.5 m. Total weight = 0.24 × 10 = 2.4 N. Taking moments about W₁: N₂ × (0.6 − 0.2) = 2.4 × (0.5 − 0.2) → N₂ × 0.4 = 2.4 × 0.3 = 0.72 → N₂ = 1.8 N. Then N₁ = 2.4 − 1.8 = 0.6 N.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.83 [Physics]

Escape speed from the Earth is close to 11.2 km s⁻¹. On another planet whose radius is half of the Earth's radius and whose mass density is four times that of the Earth, the escape speed in km s⁻¹ will be close to:

(a) 11.2 ✓
(b) 15.8
(c) 5.6
(d) 7.9

Explanation: Escape speed $v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}} = \sqrt{\frac{2G \cdot \frac{4}{3}\pi R^3 \rho}{R}} = \sqrt{\frac{8\pi G \rho R^2}{3}}$, so $v_e \propto R\sqrt{\rho}$. For the new planet: $R' = R/2$, $\rho' = 4\rho$, so $v_e' \propto (R/2)\sqrt{4\rho} = (R/2)(2\sqrt{\rho}) = R\sqrt{\rho}$. The ratio is 1, so escape speed = 11.2 km/s.

Q.84 [Physics]

Which one of the following does not apply to sound waves in fluids?

(a) They transport energy
(b) They need a medium to travel
(c) They are transverse ✓
(d) They travel faster in liquids than in gases

Explanation: Sound waves in fluids (liquids and gases) are longitudinal waves — they propagate as compressions and rarefactions along the direction of travel. Transverse waves require shear modulus, which fluids do not possess. Options a, b, and d are all true for sound in fluids.

Q.85 [Physics]

A ball of 0.1 kg mass is dropped on a hard floor from a height of 0.45 m and rises to a height of 0.20 m. If it was in touch with the floor for 0.1 s, the net force it applied on the floor while bouncing is (take the gravitational acceleration g = 10 m s⁻²)

(a) 1.0 N
(b) 6.0 N ✓
(c) 3.0 N
(d) 5.0 N

Explanation: Velocity just before impact: $v_1 = \sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 0.45} = 3$ m/s (downward). Velocity just after: $v_2 = \sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 0.20} = 2$ m/s (upward). Change in momentum = $m(v_2 - (-v_1)) = 0.1 \times (2+3) = 0.5$ kg·m/s. Average force from floor on ball = $0.5/0.1 = 5$ N. Net force on floor by ball = force from floor on ball − weight component... Actually the net force applied by ball on floor = 5 N (by Newton's third law, reaction force). But answer option (b) 6.0 N accounts for weight: net contact force = 5 N, and with gravity the floor force = 5 N. Re-examining: the question asks net force applied on floor = 5 N → option (d). Wait — impulse = 0.5 N·s over 0.1 s gives average force = 5 N, so answer is (d) 5.0 N.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.86 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements regarding simple pendulum is correct? Simple pendulum has a time period independent of amplitude:

(a) only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is independent of its displacement.
(b) for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is always proportional to its displacement.
(c) for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is independent of its displacement.
(d) only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is proportional to its displacement. ✓

Explanation: For a simple pendulum, the restoring force is $F = -mg\sin\theta$. Only for small angles ($\theta$ small) does $\sin\theta \approx \theta$, making the force proportional to displacement (SHM condition). This proportionality gives isochronous (amplitude-independent) oscillations only for small amplitudes.

Q.87 [Physics]

Which one of the following about different frictional forces is correct?

(a) Kinetic friction > Static friction > Rolling friction
(b) Static friction > Rolling friction > Kinetic friction
(c) Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction ✓
(d) Static friction > Kinetic friction = Rolling friction

Explanation: The standard order of friction magnitudes for the same surface and load is: Static friction (maximum) > Kinetic (sliding) friction > Rolling friction. Rolling friction is the smallest because the contact area and deformation are minimal compared to sliding friction.

Q.88 [Physics]

A metallic bob X of mass m is released from position A. It collides elastically with another identical bob Y placed at rest at position B on a horizontal frictionless table. The angle AOB is 30°. How high does the bob X rise immediately after the collision?

(a) To the same height as that of position A on the other side in the same trajectory
(b) To half the height as that of position A on the other side along the same trajectory
(c) The same height at position A
(d) It stops at position B ✓

Explanation: In a perfectly elastic collision between two identical masses where one is initially at rest, the moving ball transfers all its momentum and kinetic energy to the stationary ball. Bob X comes to a complete stop at position B, while bob Y moves away with X's original velocity.

Q.89 [Physics]

Consider the two statements given below: Statement-1: Infrared waves are also called heat waves. Statement-2: Water molecules readily absorb infrared waves. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1. ✓
(b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(c) Statement-1 is true, but Statement-2 is false.
(d) Statement-2 is true, but Statement-1 is false.

Explanation: Both statements are true: infrared radiation is indeed called heat radiation because it produces a heating effect, and this is largely because water molecules (which make up most living tissue and absorb IR strongly) readily absorb infrared waves, generating thermal energy. Statement-2 correctly explains why IR is associated with heat.

Q.90 [History]

Which of the following statements are correct? 1. British 'trade surplus' with India in the nineteenth century meant that the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India. 2. India played a crucial role in the late-nineteenth-century world economy by helping Britain balance its deficits. 3. Britain grew opium in India and exported it to China and, therefore, for a while after the 1820s, opium became India's single largest export. 4. The nineteenth century saw export of Indian raw materials decline, and that of manufactured goods increase. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct as per standard economic history: Britain had a trade surplus with India (exports > imports), India's export surplus with other countries helped Britain cover its deficits, and opium (grown in India, exported to China) became India's largest export after the 1820s. Statement 4 is incorrect — the nineteenth century actually saw Indian manufactured goods (especially textiles) decline while raw material exports increased under colonial policy.

Q.91 [History]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Unit in use in early India) | List-II (Content) A. Muhurta | 1. Measure of weight B. Raktika | 2. Measure of time C. Angula | 3. Metre of poetry D. Pada | 4. Measure of length

(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 ✓
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation: Muhurta is a unit of time (approximately 48 minutes); Raktika (ratti) is a unit of weight (the weight of a gunja seed, ~0.12 g); Angula is a unit of length (finger-breadth); Pada means a foot/verse-foot and is a metre of poetry. This matches A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

Q.92 [History]

First coins in Indian history bearing the names and images of rulers were issued by the:

(a) Mauryas
(b) Pushyabhutis
(c) Guptas
(d) Indo-Greeks ✓

Explanation: The Indo-Greek rulers were the first in Indian history to issue coins bearing the names and portraits (images) of their rulers, a Hellenistic tradition they brought to the subcontinent around the 2nd century BCE.

Q.93 [Sociology]

Social theorists in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries emphasised the emergence of industrialisation, urbanisation, secularisation and bureaucratisation as hallmarks of:

(a) Modernity ✓
(b) Feudalism
(c) Kingship
(d) Medievalism

Explanation: Classical social theorists like Weber, Durkheim, and Marx identified industrialisation, urbanisation, secularisation, and bureaucratisation as the defining characteristics of Modernity, distinguishing it from pre-modern social formations.

Q.94 [History]

Consider the following events: 1. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement 2. All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi 3. Passing of the Rowlatt Act 4. Jallianwala Bagh incident Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given events (earliest to latest)?

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1 ✓
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation: Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919 (3), Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in April 1919 (4), All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi was held in November 1919 (2), and the Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in 1920 (1). Correct order: 3, 4, 2, 1.

Q.95 [History]

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (System/Category): A. Upari, B. Pattadar, C. Mirasidar, D. Inam lands List-II (Description): 1. Peasants directly responsible for the payment of revenue, 2. Category of tenancy tenure held under the Marathas, 3. Gifts of land or land revenue, 4. Co-parcenary title holder and designated revenue payer in southern India Code: A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3 ✓
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

Explanation: Upari refers to a category of tenancy tenure under the Marathas (2); Pattadar refers to peasants directly responsible for revenue payment (1); Mirasidar is the co-parcenary title holder and designated revenue payer in southern India (4); Inam lands are gifts of land or land revenue (3). Matching: A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

Q.96 [History]

Which of the following statements about Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya's expeditions are correct? 1. In the early years of his reign he marched against the ruler of Orissa. 2. In 1520 CE, he captured the fort of Raichur from Ismail Adil Khan. 3. Krishnadevaraya restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to power and assumed the title of Yavana-rajya-sthapan-acharya. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Krishnadevaraya captured Raichur from Ismail Adil Shah in 1520 CE (statement 2 is correct) and he restored the Bahmani Sultan Mahmud Shah and took the title Yavana-rajya-sthapan-acharya (statement 3 is correct). Statement 1 is incorrect as his early campaigns were against the Bidar Sultanate and Bahmani kingdoms, not Orissa initially.

Q.97 [Chemistry]

Water gas is a mixture of:

(a) CO₂ and H₂
(b) CO and H₂ ✓
(c) CO₂ and H₂O
(d) CO and H₂O

Explanation: Water gas is produced by passing steam over hot coke (carbon) and is a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H₂). It is used as an industrial fuel.

Q.98 [Biology]

Human body works in the pH range of:

(a) 6.8 – 7.2 ✓
(b) 7.0 – 7.8
(c) 6.5 – 7.5
(d) 7.5 – 8.0

Explanation: The human body maintains blood pH in a narrow range of approximately 6.8 to 7.2 (with blood plasma specifically around 7.35–7.45); the overall physiological range is best described as 6.8–7.2 for bodily fluids.

Q.99 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following statements with reference to the properties of water is not correct?

(a) The specific heat of water is abnormally high
(b) Latent heat of fusion of water is very low ✓
(c) Density of water is higher than ice
(d) Pure water is a non-conductor of electricity

Explanation: The latent heat of fusion of water is actually quite high (about 334 J/g), not very low. This high value is due to the extensive hydrogen bonding in water that must be broken during melting.

Q.100 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following compounds has a sweet and fruity smell?

(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Ethyl acetate ✓
(d) Acetophenone

Explanation: Ethyl acetate (ethyl ethanoate) is an ester well known for its characteristic sweet, fruity smell and is commonly used as a flavoring agent and solvent.

Q.101 [Chemistry]

What is the coordination number of Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions in NaCl lattice?

(a) 6, 1
(b) 1, 6
(c) 6, 6 ✓
(d) 5, 5

Explanation: In the NaCl (rock salt) crystal lattice structure, each Na⁺ ion is surrounded by 6 Cl⁻ ions and each Cl⁻ ion is surrounded by 6 Na⁺ ions, so the coordination number of both Na⁺ and Cl⁻ is 6.

Q.102 [Biology/Chemistry]

Which one among the following is present in the nettle leaf hairs that causes burning pain?

(a) Methanoic acid ✓
(b) Ethanoic acid
(c) Benzoic acid
(d) Acetic acid

Explanation: Nettle (Urtica dioica) leaf hairs inject methanoic acid (formic acid, HCOOH) into the skin when touched, causing the characteristic burning and stinging pain.

Q.103 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following is known as Milk of Magnesia?

(a) Magnesium bicarbonate
(b) Magnesium carbonate
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Magnesium hydroxide ✓

Explanation: Milk of Magnesia is the common name for magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)₂, a white milky suspension used as an antacid and laxative.

Q.104 [Chemistry]

Soap with water forms:

(a) Metallotropic liquid crystal
(b) Thermotropic liquid crystal
(c) Homogeneous solution
(d) Lyotropic liquid crystal ✓

Explanation: Soap dissolved in water forms lyotropic liquid crystals (also called lyomesophases), where the ordering is induced by concentration of the amphiphilic soap molecules in the solvent rather than by temperature.

Q.105 [Chemistry]

Which among the following is the correct composition of Borax?

(a) Sodium, Boron, Magnesium and Hydrogen
(b) Sodium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen ✓
(c) Potassium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen
(d) Sodium, Boron, Nitrogen and Hydrogen

Explanation: Borax (sodium tetraborate decahydrate) has the formula Na₂B₄O₇·10H₂O, composed of sodium (Na), boron (B), oxygen (O), and hydrogen (H) from the water of crystallization.

Q.106 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following oxides has the highest melting point?

(a) Na₂O
(b) MgO ✓
(c) Fe₂O₃
(d) CuO

Explanation: MgO (magnesium oxide) has an extremely high melting point of about 2852°C due to its strong ionic bonding and high lattice energy, making it the highest among the options listed.

Q.107 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding neap tides is/are correct? 1. It occurs every 14–15 days, which coincides with the first and third quarter of the Moon. 2. This tide has a small tidal range because the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun are in quadrature. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: neap tides occur every 14–15 days during the first and third quarter Moon phases, and they have a smaller tidal range because the Moon and Sun are at right angles (quadrature), so their gravitational pulls partially cancel each other.

Q.108 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding earthquakes is/are correct? 1. The point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus is called the epicentre of the earthquake. 2. Earthquakes generate Primary and Secondary waves that radiate outward from the earthquake focus. 3. Deep-focus earthquakes are likely to cause more damage than shallow-focus earthquakes. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the epicentre is the surface point above the focus, and P and S waves radiate from the focus. Statement 3 is incorrect because shallow-focus earthquakes cause more surface damage than deep-focus earthquakes due to less energy dissipation before reaching the surface.

Q.109 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding air temperature is/are correct? 1. Air temperature is measured at a standard height of 1.2 m (4.0 feet) above the ground surface. 2. The average rate of temperature decrease with height is termed as the environmental temperature lapse rate. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: meteorological air temperature is measured at the standard height of 1.2 m (approximately 4 feet) in a Stevenson screen, and the environmental lapse rate describes the average decrease in temperature with increasing altitude in the atmosphere.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.110 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding humidity is/are correct? 1. It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere and the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature. 2. When the relative humidity is high, more water evaporates from the skin. 3. Higher the air temperature lower the relative humidity of the air. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 correctly defines relative humidity. Statement 2 is incorrect — when relative humidity is high, less (not more) water evaporates from the skin. Statement 3 is also incorrect — higher air temperature increases the atmosphere's capacity to hold moisture, which can lower relative humidity if moisture content stays constant, but the relationship is not simply stated here as a general rule without qualification; however, statement 2 is clearly wrong, making only statement 1 correct.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.111 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding cyclones and anti-cyclones is/are correct? 1. In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate counterclockwise and anticyclones rotate clockwise. 2. Cyclones are often associated with cloudy or rainy weather, whereas anticyclones are often associated with fair weather. 3. In the Southern Hemisphere, the cyclonic spiral will be clockwise because the Coriolis force acts to the left. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: All three statements are correct: Northern Hemisphere cyclones rotate counterclockwise (anticyclones clockwise) due to the Coriolis effect; cyclones bring bad weather while anticyclones bring fair weather; and in the Southern Hemisphere the Coriolis force deflects to the left, making cyclonic rotation clockwise.

Q.112 [Geography]

Identify the sea-port in India on the basis of the given characteristics: • It is more than a century old port on the west coast of India. • It is a natural harbour protected by a breakwater and also by a mole. • A deep draft channel of about 14 metres depth permits large vessels to enter the harbour. Select the correct sea-port from the options given below:

(a) Mormugao Port ✓
(b) Deendayal Port
(c) Cochin Port
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Explanation: Mormugao Port in Goa is one of the oldest ports on India's west coast (over a century old), is a natural harbour protected by a breakwater and a mole, and has a deep draft channel of about 14 metres allowing large vessels. Cochin is also a natural harbour but its description fits Mormugao more precisely.

Q.113 [Geography]

Identify the Iron and Steel Plant on the basis of the given characteristics: • It receives coal from Jharia and iron-ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar. • Power for the electric furnaces is procured from Hirakud. • Water is obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers. Select the correct Iron and Steel Plant from the options given below:

(a) Bhilai Steel Plant
(b) Durgapur Steel Plant
(c) Rourkela Steel Plant ✓
(d) Bokaro Steel Plant

Explanation: Rourkela Steel Plant (Odisha) gets coal from Jharia (Jharkhand), iron ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar (Odisha), power from Hirakud Dam, and water from the Koel and Sankh rivers — all of which precisely match the given characteristics.

Q.114 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding Earth's internal structure is/are correct? 1. The oceanic crust is heavier than the continental crust. 2. Most of the Earth's internal heat is contained within the mantle. 3. Large convective cells in the crust circulate heat and drive plate-tectonic processes. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — oceanic crust is denser/heavier (basaltic, ~3.0 g/cm³) than continental crust (granitic, ~2.7 g/cm³). Statement 2 is correct — the mantle holds most of Earth's internal heat due to its large volume. Statement 3 is incorrect — convective cells occur in the mantle, not the crust.

Q.115 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding the given rivers is/are correct? 1. Tsangpo crosses over into India under the name of Dihang. 2. Godavari has the second largest river basin covering about 10 percent of the area of India. 3. Rivers Chambal and Betwa are the important tributaries of river Ganga which join river Ganga directly in Uttar Pradesh. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — the Tsangpo enters India as the Dihang (and later becomes the Brahmaputra). Statement 2 is correct — Godavari has the second largest basin (~10% of India's area). Statement 3 is incorrect — Chambal and Betwa are tributaries of Yamuna, not Ganga directly.

Q.116 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding the World Climate Types and their relation with Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is/are correct? 1. Tropical Wet Climate is one of the world's rainiest due to the dominance of the ITCZ over it. 2. Tropical Savanna Climate experiences a distinctive alternation of wet and dry seasons, caused chiefly by the seasonal shift in latitude of the subtropical highs and ITCZ. 3. The Tropical Monsoonal Climate experiences heavy rainfall as a consequence of the nearness of the ITCZ for much of the year. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct — Tropical Wet (equatorial) climate is dominated by the ITCZ year-round causing heavy rainfall, and Savanna climate owes its wet-dry seasonality to the seasonal migration of the ITCZ and subtropical highs. Statement 3 is partially misleading — Tropical Monsoon heavy rainfall is due to onshore monsoon winds, not simply nearness of ITCZ for much of the year.

Q.117 [Geography]

Which of the following statements regarding tropical cyclones is/are correct? 1. These storms develop during the summer and autumn in every tropical ocean except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific Oceans. 2. Tropical cyclones that occur in the North Atlantic and eastern North Pacific Oceans are known as typhoons. 3. Tropical cyclones that occur in the Indian and South Pacific Oceans are called cyclones. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — tropical cyclones form in summer/autumn in all tropical oceans except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific. Statement 2 is incorrect — storms in the North Atlantic and eastern North Pacific are called hurricanes, not typhoons (typhoons are in the western North Pacific). Statement 3 is correct — storms in the Indian Ocean and South Pacific are called cyclones.

Q.118 [Geography]

Identify the land biome on the basis of the given characteristics: • Their climates are characterised by high rainfall and temperatures that vary from cold to mild. • These forests contain primarily deciduous trees — including maple, oak, hickory and beechwood. • Raccoons, opossums, bats and squirrels are found in the trees. Select the correct land biome from the options given below:

(a) Tropical forest
(b) Temperate forest ✓
(c) Boreal forest
(d) Mediterranean forest

Explanation: The temperate deciduous forest biome is characterized by moderate to high rainfall, cold-to-mild temperatures, deciduous trees (maple, oak, hickory, beech), and fauna such as raccoons, opossums, bats, and squirrels — all matching the description perfectly.

Q.119 [Biology]

Leaves of most plants appear green because the chlorophyll present in it:

(a) absorbs red and blue light while reflecting green light. ✓
(b) absorbs green light only.
(c) absorbs green light while reflecting red and blue light.
(d) reflects red light and absorbs blue and green light.

Explanation: Chlorophyll primarily absorbs red and blue wavelengths of light for photosynthesis and reflects green light, which is why leaves appear green to our eyes.

Q.120 [Biology]

In most prokaryotes, the chromosome number is:

(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1 ✓

Explanation: Most prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea) possess a single circular chromosome, so the chromosome number is 1. Some may also have plasmids, but those are not chromosomes.

Q.121 [Biology]

Bacterial DNA is referred to as naked because it is not associated with:

(a) any scaffold
(b) proteins ✓
(c) ribozymes
(d) plasmid

Explanation: In eukaryotes, DNA is tightly wrapped around histone proteins (forming nucleosomes). Bacterial (prokaryotic) DNA lacks histones and associated proteins, so it is described as 'naked DNA'.

Q.122 [Biology]

Which one among the following cells produces antibodies against a foreign antigen?

(a) Lymphocytes ✓
(b) Erythrocytes
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Platelets

Explanation: B lymphocytes (a type of lymphocyte) differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies (immunoglobulins) in response to foreign antigens. Erythrocytes carry oxygen, eosinophils combat parasites, and platelets aid clotting.

Q.123 [Physics]

If the block P as shown in the figure below were to be at rest, what should the magnitude of force F be?

(a) 5N
(b) 6N
(c) 8N
(d) 10N

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.124 [Physics]

Of the following, which does not belong to a nuclear reactor?

(a) A turbine
(b) A heat exchanger
(c) A mechanism to reduce CO₂ emission ✓
(d) A reaction chamber

Explanation: Nuclear reactors produce energy through fission, not combustion, so they do not emit CO₂ and therefore have no need for a CO₂ reduction mechanism. A turbine, heat exchanger, and reaction chamber are all standard components of a nuclear power plant.

Q.125 [Physics]

Consider the following electric circuit: The current in the above electric circuit is:

(a) 1A
(b) (10/15) A
(c) 2A
(d) 15A

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.126 [Physics]

A microscope may be a combination of:

(a) two convex lenses. ✓
(b) a convex and a concave lens.
(c) two concave lenses.
(d) a convex lens and a convex mirror.

Explanation: A compound microscope uses two convex lenses — an objective lens (short focal length) that forms a real magnified image, and an eyepiece (ocular) lens that further magnifies that image for the viewer.

Q.127 [Physics]

For a human eye, where u is the distance of an object from the eye, f is the focal length of the lens and v is the distance of image from the eye, which is the correct schematic graph?

(a) Graph A
(b) Graph B
(c) Graph C
(d) Graph D

Explanation: Figure-based — needs manual review

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.128 [Physics]

Which of the following statements with regard to the phenomenon of primary rainbow formation by water droplets is/are correct? 1. It involves refraction and one internal reflection of sunlight. 2. It involves refraction of sunlight only. 3. It is formed as the inner bow. 4. It may involve more than one internal reflection as well as refraction of sunlight. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 ✓
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

Explanation: The primary rainbow is formed by refraction at entry, one internal reflection inside the water droplet, and refraction at exit (statement 1 correct). It appears as the inner (lower) bow of a double rainbow (statement 3 correct). Statement 4 describes the secondary rainbow, and statement 2 is incorrect as reflection is also involved.

Q.129 [Physics]

Which one of the following scientists mentioned that an electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of radiant energy?

(a) Ernest Rutherford
(b) J.J. Thomson
(c) Niels Bohr ✓
(d) Albert Einstein

Explanation: Niels Bohr proposed in his 1913 atomic model that electrons revolve in certain discrete, stable orbits (stationary states) without radiating energy, and energy is emitted or absorbed only when electrons transition between orbits.

Q.130 [Physics]

LIGO experiment confirmed one of the predictions of:

(a) String theory
(b) Special theory of relativity
(c) Quantum mechanics
(d) General theory of relativity ✓

Explanation: LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory) detected gravitational waves in 2015, directly confirming a major prediction of Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, which predicted that accelerating masses create ripples in spacetime.

Q.131 [Physics]

A block of mass 2 kg, moving with the initial speed of 3 m/s comes to rest on a rough horizontal surface after travelling a distance of 3 m. The magnitude of the frictional force is:

(a) 9 N
(b) 3 N ✓
(c) 18 N
(d) 1 N

Explanation: Using work-energy theorem: frictional force × distance = initial KE. F × 3 = ½ × 2 × 3² = 9 J, so F = 9/3 = 3 N.

Q.132 [Physics]

Which one of the following is primarily responsible for conduction of current in a metal?

(a) Bound electrons
(b) Free electrons ✓
(c) Both bound and free electrons
(d) Ions

Explanation: In metals, the valence electrons are loosely bound and form a 'sea' of free electrons (conduction electrons) that move freely through the lattice, making free electrons primarily responsible for electrical conduction.

Q.133 [History]

Which of the following were features of the postal system of India as described by Ibn Battuta? 1. The foot post carries a ringing bell in one hand. 2. The horse post is called uluq, stationed at a distance of every four miles. 3. The foot post or dawa has one station at every four kos of distance. 4. The foot post is quicker than horse post. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 ✓

Explanation: Ibn Battuta in his Rihla described the foot post (dawa) carrying a bell and stationed every one-third of a mile (roughly one kos), and noted that foot posts were faster than horse posts due to the frequency of relay stations. Statement 2 is incorrect as the horse post (uluq) was stationed every four miles, not every four kos — but the question asks which statements are features described by Ibn Battuta; statements 1, 3, and 4 are correctly attributed to his account.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.134 [History]

Which one of the following texts is a commentary written by Chakrapanidatta (11th Century CE from Bengal) on the Sushrut Samhita?

(a) Sabdachandrika
(b) Bhanumati ✓
(c) Nitiratnakara
(d) Lohasarvasava

Explanation: Chakrapanidatta, an 11th-century Bengali scholar, wrote 'Bhanumati' as his commentary on the Sushruta Samhita, one of the foundational texts of Ayurvedic surgery.

Q.135 [History]

Consider the following statements about the arrival of tobacco in India: 1. Tobacco plant arrived first in the Deccan. 2. Tobacco spread to northern India in the early years of the seventeenth century. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Historical records indicate that tobacco first arrived in the Deccan through Portuguese traders and subsequently spread to northern India in the early 1600s, making both statements correct.

Q.136 [History]

Consider the following Women's Associations and their important associates in early twentieth century India: 1. Women's Indian Association of 1917 – Margaret Cousins 2. National Council of Women in India of 1925 – Sarala Devi Chaudhurani 3. Bharat Stree Mahamandal of 1910 – Lady Meherbai Tata Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only ✓

Explanation: The Women's Indian Association (1917) was co-founded by Margaret Cousins along with Annie Besant and Dorothy Jinarajadasa — this match is correct. The Bharat Stree Mahamandal (1910) was founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani, not Lady Meherbai Tata, and the National Council of Women in India (1925) was associated with Lady Meherbai Tata, making pairs 2 and 3 incorrectly matched as stated.

Q.137 [History / Polity]

Consider the following statements about the issue of separate electorate during the early decades of the twentieth century in India: 1. The All India Depressed Classes Association of M.C. Rajah was staunchly in favour of joint electorate. 2. The All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference demanded separate electorate. 3. The Communal Award in September 1932 recognised the right to separate electorate for the 'untouchables'. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: M.C. Rajah's All India Depressed Classes Association actually entered into a pact with B.S. Moonje favouring joint electorates with reserved seats, so statement 1 is incorrect. Statements 2 and 3 are correct — the Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference demanded separate electorates, and the Communal Award of 1932 did grant separate electorates for untouchables (which prompted Gandhi's fast and the subsequent Poona Pact).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.138 [History]

Which of the following statements with regard to the famous 'silk routes' are correct? 1. Silk routes refer to East-bound European silk cargoes along these routes. 2. There were several silk routes, over land and by sea, joining together vast regions of Asia with Europe and northern Africa. 3. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century. 4. Besides silk, Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and South-east Asia travelled the same route. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — the silk routes primarily carried Chinese silk westward (not European silk eastward). Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct: multiple overland and sea routes existed connecting Asia, Europe and North Africa; they predate the Christian Era and thrived until roughly the 15th century; and goods like Chinese pottery and Indian/Southeast Asian spices also traveled these routes.

Q.139 [History / Art]

Consider the following statements about Ajanta paintings: 1. The surface of the rock was coated with clay mixed with rice husk and gum and a coat of lime was applied over this. 2. The outline drawing was done first on the lime coating and colours were added subsequently. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements accurately describe the Ajanta fresco technique: the rock surface was prepared with a ground layer of clay mixed with materials like rice husk and gum, topped with a thin lime plaster, and artists first drew outlines before filling in pigment colours.

Q.140 [Science & Technology]

Which of the following statements with regard to the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project is/are correct? 1. SKA is a state-of-the-art, mega science international facility to build the world's biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals. 2. The Government of India has accorded its approval for India's participation in the international mega science project. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: SKA is indeed the world's largest and most sensitive radio telescope project, and the Government of India formally approved India's participation in the SKA project.

Q.141 [Current Affairs / Defence]

Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise between India and:

(a) Kuwait
(b) Saudi Arabia ✓
(c) United Arab Emirates
(d) Oman

Explanation: Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint bilateral military exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Royal Saudi Land Forces, held in Saudi Arabia.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.142 [Polity / Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements with regard to the constitution of Finance Commission is/are correct? 1. The Government of India has recently constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya. 2. Finance Commission is constituted in pursuance to Article 263 of the Constitution of India. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — the 16th Finance Commission was constituted in January 2024 under Dr. Arvind Panagariya. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution, not Article 263 (which deals with an Inter-State Council).

Q.143 [Current Affairs / Environment]

Recently the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has submitted three nominations from India for Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. Which one among the following cities is not one among them?

(a) Indore ✓
(b) Bhopal
(c) Udaipur
(d) Jodhpur

Explanation: India nominated Bhopal, Udaipur, and Jodhpur for Wetland City Accreditation under the Ramsar Convention. Indore was not among the three nominated cities.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.144 [Current Affairs / General Knowledge]

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In India, 12th March is celebrated as the National Youth Day. 2. National Youth Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda. Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — National Youth Day in India is celebrated on 12th January (not 12th March), which is the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda. Statement 2 is correct. (12th March is the anniversary of the Dandi March / Salt Satyagraha.)

Q.145 [Current Affairs / Defence]

Consider the following statements about INS Sagardhwani: 1. It is an oceanographic research vessel of Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) of DRDO. 2. Recently it embarked on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to establish long-term scientific partnerships with Indian Ocean Rim countries in Ocean Research and Development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct: INS Sagardhwani is the oceanographic research vessel operated by NPOL (a DRDO lab), and it undertook the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to foster scientific collaboration with Indian Ocean Rim countries.

Q.146 [Current Affairs / Polity]

Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee constituted by the Government of India to examine the issue of holding simultaneous elections in the country and to make recommendations thereon?

(a) Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah
(b) Chief Justice of India Shri Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud
(c) Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind ✓
(d) Chief Election Commissioner of India Shri Rajiv Kumar

Explanation: The Government of India constituted a high-level committee in September 2023 under the chairmanship of former President Shri Ram Nath Kovind to examine the feasibility of 'One Nation, One Election' (simultaneous elections).

Q.147 [Current Affairs]

In January 2024, India's first all-girls' Sainik School was inaugurated at:

(a) Bhopal
(b) Kohima
(c) Vrindavan ✓
(d) Namsai

Explanation: India's first all-girls' Sainik School was inaugurated in January 2024 at Vrindavan, Uttar Pradesh, marking a significant step toward gender inclusion in the Sainik Schools system.

Q.148 [Current Affairs / International Relations]

In February 2024, Government of India has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and:

(a) Myanmar ✓
(b) Bhutan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal

Explanation: In February 2024, the Government of India announced the scrapping of the Free Movement Regime (FMR) with Myanmar, which had allowed residents living within 16 km on either side of the border to move freely without a visa.

Q.149 [Current Affairs / Books]

Who among the following is the author of the book Why Bharat Matters?

(a) L.K. Advani
(b) S. Jaishankar ✓
(c) Mohan Bhagwat
(d) Pranab Mukherjee

Explanation: 'Why Bharat Matters' is authored by Dr. S. Jaishankar, India's External Affairs Minister, published in 2023, in which he articulates India's foreign policy vision and strategic interests.