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NDA I 2025 General Ability Test with Solutions

Exam: NDA Year: 2025 (Session I) Questions: 150 Marks: 600 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [Reading Comprehension]

Which one of the following is NOT the reason for the difficulty in estimating the number of languages of the world?

(a) New languages continue to be discovered
(b) There are still unexplored regions
(c) New languages are considered a dialect of a known language
(d) People who speak the language do not claim their language ✓

Explanation: The passage discusses difficulties such as ongoing discovery of new languages, unexplored regions, and classification issues (dialect vs. language). People not claiming their own language is not cited as a reason for difficulty in estimation.

Q.2 [Reading Comprehension]

Which one of the following is a way to establish the discovery of a new language?

(a) By establishing contact over a period of time with the speakers of the language ✓
(b) By finding the similarities of the language with other languages
(c) By comparing with the lingua franca of the region
(d) By conducting a survey of all languages of the region

Explanation: Establishing sustained contact with speakers over time is the standard linguistic fieldwork method to document and confirm a new language; the passage implies this approach.

Q.3 [Reading Comprehension]

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Language surveys have been conducted by all nations
(b) There is hardly any language to be discovered in the world
(c) All the languages are either complete languages or dialects of other major languages ✓
(d) No new language needs to be discovered since all languages are known to the world

Explanation: The passage indicates that languages are classified either as distinct languages or as dialects of known languages; options a, b, and d contradict the passage's premise that discovery is still ongoing and surveys are not universal.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.4 [Reading Comprehension]

"The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be," means

(a) People are recognised as different ethnic groups but not necessarily their language ✓
(b) People are recognised as different ethnic groups and their language is recognised
(c) People are not recognised as different ethnic groups, and so are their languages
(d) Because the people are not from different ethnic groups and their language is recognised

Explanation: The sentence directly states that although a group of people may be identified (i.e., their ethnic identity is known), the specific language they speak may still remain unidentified or undocumented.

Q.5 [Reading Comprehension]

Which one of the following words from the passage means "come to be known"?

(a) transpire ✓
(b) lingua franca
(c) straight
(d) variant

Explanation: 'Transpire' in its secondary meaning means 'to come to be known or come to light'; the other options do not carry this meaning.

Q.6 [Direct and Indirect Speech]

Convert from direct speech to indirect speech: Charu said to her friend, "I want you to be here at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting."

(a) Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. the next day for the meeting ✓
(b) Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting
(c) Charu requested her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting
(d) Charu told her friend that she will want her to be here at 6.00 p.m. the next day for the meeting

Explanation: In reported speech, 'here' changes to 'there', 'tomorrow' changes to 'the next day', 'I want' changes to 'she wanted', and the reporting verb 'said to' becomes 'told'. Option (a) correctly applies all these transformations.

Q.7 [Direct and Indirect Speech]

Convert from direct speech to indirect speech: Nitin said to his brother, "What a beautiful painting it is?"

(a) Nitin wondered to his brother that what a beautiful painting it was
(b) Nitin wondered before his brother that it was a beautiful painting ✓
(c) Nitin exclaimed that it is a beautiful painting
(d) Nitin asked his brother whether it was beautiful painting

Explanation: An exclamatory sentence in indirect speech uses 'exclaimed/wondered' and the tense shifts from 'is' to 'was'. Option (b) correctly conveys the exclamation as reported speech with proper tense change, though 'before' is colloquially used; it best fits among the given options.

Q.8 [Direct and Indirect Speech]

Convert from indirect speech to direct speech: The teacher asked her students why they had been quiet in the previous class.

(a) The teacher asked her students, "Why were they keeping quiet in the previous class?"
(b) The teacher said to her students, "Why were you quiet in the previous class?" ✓
(c) The teacher said to her students, "Why had you been quiet in the previous class?"
(d) The teacher said to her students, "Why were you quiet in previous class?"

Explanation: Converting indirect to direct speech: 'asked' becomes 'said to', 'they' becomes 'you', and the past perfect 'had been quiet' reverts to simple past 'were quiet' in direct speech. Option (b) correctly makes these changes and includes the article 'the' before 'previous class'.

Q.9 [Grammar — Sentence Correction]

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

(a) He is considered as the brightest intellectual in the country ✓
(b) He is considered as one among the brightest intellectual in the country
(c) He is considered as one among the brighter intellectual in the country
(d) He is considered as one of the intellectual in the country

Explanation: 'Considered' should not be followed by 'as' in standard usage, but among the given options (a) is the closest to correct; alternatively, 'He is considered the brightest intellectual in the country' is ideal. Options (b) and (c) use 'one among' incorrectly, and (d) lacks the plural 'intellectuals'.

Q.10 [Grammar — Sentence Correction]

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

(a) No other mountain is taller than the Himalayas ✓
(b) No other mountain is tall than the Himalayas
(c) No other mountains taller than the Himalayas
(d) No other mountain is taller then the Himalayas

Explanation: Option (a) correctly uses the comparative adjective 'taller' with 'than'. Option (b) omits '-er', option (c) lacks a verb, and option (d) confuses 'then' (time) with 'than' (comparison).

Q.11 [Vocabulary — Word Meanings]

Confident and Confidant

(a) Confident means certain and confidant means close friend ✓
(b) Confidant means certain and confident means close friend
(c) Confident means belief and confidant means an emissary
(d) Confident means assurance and confidant means intimate person

Explanation: 'Confident' is an adjective meaning sure/certain, while 'confidant' is a noun referring to a trusted close friend with whom one shares secrets. Option (a) gives the most precise standard definitions.

Q.12 [Vocabulary — Word Meanings]

Broke and Brook

(a) Broke means abundance and brook means a flowing water body
(b) Broke means bankrupt and brook means a stream ✓
(c) Broke means fractured and brook means nonsense
(d) Broke means negotiate and brook means a stream

Explanation: 'Broke' means having no money (bankrupt/penniless), and 'brook' as a noun means a small stream. Option (b) correctly defines both words.

Q.13 [Vocabulary — Word Meanings]

Accept and Except

(a) Accept means apart from and except means recognise
(b) Accept means recognise and except means include
(c) Accept means consent and except means apart from ✓
(d) Accept means allude and except means apart from

Explanation: 'Accept' means to agree to receive or consent to something, while 'except' means excluding or apart from. Option (c) correctly defines both.

Q.14 [Vocabulary — Word Meanings]

Accord and Accrued

(a) Accord means collected and accrued means agreement
(b) Accord means agreement and accrued means arrived
(c) Accord means accepted and accrued means received
(d) Accord means agreement and accrued means accumulated ✓

Explanation: 'Accord' means an agreement or settlement, and 'accrued' means accumulated or built up over time (as in interest accrued). Option (d) correctly defines both words.

Q.15 [Vocabulary — Word Meanings]

Guarantee and Warranty

(a) Guarantee is an agreement and warranty is a service contract
(b) Guarantee is a business agreement and warranty is a service contract
(c) Guarantee is a promise and warranty is a service contract ✓
(d) Guarantee is acceptance and warranty is a service contract

Explanation: A 'guarantee' is a formal promise or assurance (often free of charge), while a 'warranty' is a written service/repair contract (usually for a specific period on a product). Option (c) captures this distinction most accurately.

Q.16 [Vocabulary — Synonyms]

The Constitution of India ensures proportionate representation from all regions. (The underlined word is 'proportionate'.)

(a) balanced ✓
(b) partial
(c) unlikely
(d) suffragette

Explanation: 'Proportionate' means corresponding in size or degree; its closest synonym among the options is 'balanced', meaning fair and equal in proportion.

Q.17 [Vocabulary — Synonyms]

There is a feeling of disenchantment among the members of the group. (The underlined word is 'disenchantment'.)

(a) delight
(b) disappointment ✓
(c) idealism
(d) unrelenting

Explanation: 'Disenchantment' means a feeling of disappointment or disillusionment; 'disappointment' in option (b) is the closest synonym.

Q.18 [Vocabulary — Synonyms]

She believed that it was imminent that he would be chosen as the leader of the group. (The underlined word is 'imminent'.)

(a) timely
(b) distant
(c) unlikely
(d) inevitable ✓

Explanation: 'Imminent' means about to happen very soon and with certainty; 'inevitable' (certain to happen) is the closest in meaning among the options, though 'imminent' stresses timing, this is the best fit given the choices.

Q.19 [Vocabulary — Synonyms]

The brave soldiers left an indelible impression on the people of the land. (The underlined word is 'indelible'.)

(a) permanent ✓
(b) fleeting
(c) hilarious
(d) eradicable

Explanation: 'Indelible' means impossible to remove or forget; its direct synonym is 'permanent'. Options (b) and (d) are antonyms, and (c) is unrelated.

Q.20 [Vocabulary — Synonyms]

The manager always provides instantaneous replies to all queries. (The underlined word is 'instantaneous'.)

(a) immediate ✓
(b) delayed
(c) deliberate
(d) unwanted

Explanation: 'Instantaneous' means happening instantly or at once; its closest synonym is 'immediate'. Options (b), (c), and (d) are either antonyms or unrelated.

Q.21 [Sentence Ordering]

S1: Although all sources of energy ultimately come from natural processes, non-renewable resources cannot be replaced naturally at the rate they are being used. S6: The sustainable use of natural resources in a manner that provides the maximum benefit of these resources to humans over a period of time can be termed as conservation. P: This will increase the time and cost of mining and once these resources are used up they cannot be replaced. Q: Hence, we must remember that though our country is rich in mineral deposits these resources are short-lived. R: Extraction of these ores through the process of mining will soon become difficult and very expensive because these minerals have to be mined from greater depths over time. S: Mineral resources can be said to be finite and non-renewable. Choose the correct order of P, Q, R, S to complete the passage.

(a) QPRS
(b) SPQR
(c) SQRP
(d) SQPR ✓

Explanation: S introduces mineral resources as finite and non-renewable, Q follows with the caution about mineral deposits, P explains the consequence of deeper mining (cost/time increase), and R explains why extraction becomes difficult — giving the logical chain S→Q→P→R, which matches option (d) SQPR.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.22 [Sentence Ordering]

S1: India, at present, has one of the largest road networks in the world. S6: It passes through Howrah, Delhi and Amritsar and terminates in Kabul (Afghanistan). P: The importance of roads has been recognised in India since the ancient times. Q: The Grand Trunk Road was built by Sher Shah Suri across the Indo-Gangetic plain, from Chittagong (Bangladesh) to Peshawar (Pakistan). R: Kings such as Ashoka and Chandragupta built roads for easy transportation of goods and people. S: Construction of roads continued as an important activity in the late medieval period. Choose the correct order of P, Q, R, S to complete the passage.

(a) QPRS
(b) SPQR
(c) PQRS
(d) PRSQ ✓

Explanation: P states roads were important since ancient times, R gives the ancient example (Ashoka, Chandragupta), S transitions to the late medieval period, and Q provides the medieval example of the Grand Trunk Road built by Sher Shah Suri — giving P→R→S→Q, which is option (d) PRSQ.

Q.23 [Sentence Ordering]

S1: National highways connect one state with another and are of national importance. S6: These road systems are also known as primary road systems and are laid and operated under the supervision of the National Highway Authority of India. P: The road infrastructure of the country is therefore crucial, and their construction and maintenance is of critical importance. Q: They are important because whereas they constitute merely two per cent of the total road networks, they nevertheless carry 40 per cent of the total road traffic. R: They bear the load of traffic because these roads connect long distances and pass through major cities and towns. S: Since they cover the length and breadth of the nation and connect cities and towns, these highways are the primary facilitators of trade and connectivity. Choose the correct order of P, Q, R, S.

(a) PRSQ
(b) SPQR
(c) PRQS
(d) SQRP ✓

Explanation: S states highways facilitate trade and connectivity, Q notes they carry 40% of traffic despite being 2% of roads, R explains why they bear heavy traffic (long distances, major cities), and P concludes that road infrastructure is therefore crucial — giving S→Q→R→P, which is option (d) SQRP.

Q.24 [Sentence Ordering]

S1: The South African Constitution was inaugurated in December 1996. S6: The South African Constitution says that its 'Bill of Rights is a cornerstone of democracy in South Africa.' P: A special constitutional court enforces the rights enshrined in the Constitution. Q: Its creation and promulgation took place at a time when South Africa still faced the threat of a civil war after the dissolution of the Apartheid Government. R: Apropos, it forbids discrimination on the grounds of 'race, gender, pregnancy, marital status, ethnic or social origin, colour, age, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth'. S: The Bill of Rights grants perhaps the most extensive range of rights to the citizens. Choose the correct order of P, Q, R, S.

(a) QSRP ✓
(b) SPQR
(c) PQRS
(d) PQSR

Explanation: Q provides the historical context of the Constitution's creation, S introduces the Bill of Rights and its extensive rights, R elaborates on those rights (anti-discrimination provisions), and P describes the enforcement mechanism — giving Q→S→R→P, which is option (a) QSRP.

Q.25 [Sentence Ordering]

S1: Our Constitution reminds us of the necessity of representation in a large democracy. S6: All citizens cannot participate in taking every decision. P: Elections have today become the most visible symbol of the democratic process. Q: This is why elections become important. R: Therefore representatives are elected by the people. S: Whenever we think of India as a democracy, our mind invariably turns to our successful elections. Choose the correct order of P, Q, R, S.

(a) QSRP
(b) SPQR ✓
(c) PQSR
(d) SQPR

Explanation: S connects India's democracy to successful elections, P elaborates that elections are the most visible symbol of democracy, Q states this is why elections are important, and R concludes that representatives are therefore elected by the people — giving S→P→Q→R, which is option (b) SPQR.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.26 [Discourse Markers]

___________ your transfer request is concerned, we'll be discussing it at the next meeting.

(a) As far as ✓
(b) To begin with
(c) By the way
(d) Talking about

Explanation: 'As far as ... is concerned' is the standard fixed expression used to introduce a specific topic under discussion; the other options do not collocate grammatically with the structure '... your transfer request is concerned'.

Q.27 [Discourse Markers]

______________ , did you know Ravi has a new job?

(a) For one thing
(b) By the way ✓
(c) In the first place
(d) As a result

Explanation: 'By the way' is used to introduce a topic as a digression or casual aside, perfectly fitting the informal introduction of news about Ravi; none of the other markers serve this digressive function.

Q.28 [Discourse Markers]

______________ the wind, it was getting stronger, and I was getting colder.

(a) To begin with
(b) By the way
(c) First of all
(d) Speaking of ✓

Explanation: 'Speaking of [the wind]' is the correct discourse marker to introduce a remark that is directly related to something just mentioned or contextually present; no other option fits this referential structure.

Q.29 [Discourse Markers]

_____________ , what are you doing in my room?

(a) On the other hand
(b) Excuse me ✓
(c) Look there
(d) Eventually

Explanation: 'Excuse me' is the appropriate discourse marker used to politely but firmly confront someone, fitting the confrontational tone of asking what someone is doing in one's room.

Q.30 [Discourse Markers]

___________ an unhappy childhood leads to criminal behaviour.

(a) Still if
(b) Even somewhat
(c) In some cases ✓
(d) In progression

Explanation: 'In some cases' correctly qualifies the generalisation that an unhappy childhood leads to criminal behaviour, indicating this is not universal but occurs in specific instances; the other options are either ungrammatical or nonsensical here.

Q.31 [Discourse Markers]

____________, the problem is nothing but a wrong assumption about processes.

(a) In the meanwhile
(b) Somewhat
(c) Engagingly
(d) In other words ✓

Explanation: 'In other words' is used to restate or clarify something previously said in simpler or different terms, which fits the function of summarising the problem as a wrong assumption; none of the other options serve this clarifying discourse function.

Q.32 [Discourse Markers]

Many, ________, hesitate to publicly broach such question for fear of nurturing discrimination.

(a) understandably ✓
(b) despite
(c) until
(d) of course

Explanation: 'Understandably' works as a parenthetical adverb modifying the entire clause, conveying that the hesitation is comprehensible given the fear; 'of course' could also fit but 'understandably' is more precise and natural in this context of explaining the reason for hesitation.

Q.33 [Discourse Markers]

___________ , one notes that in the nineteenth century an important development of reflection and questioning gained momentum.

(a) Particularly speaking
(b) Generally speaking ✓
(c) Otherwise
(d) Of course

Explanation: 'Generally speaking' is the standard phrase used to introduce a broad observation or generalisation, which suits the sweeping historical remark about the nineteenth century; 'particularly speaking' is not a standard English expression.

Q.34 [Discourse Markers]

___________, the situation has completely transformed over the past few years.

(a) Somewhat
(b) Believably
(c) Thus ✓
(d) Predominantly

Explanation: 'Thus' is a discourse marker indicating a conclusion or result, and it logically introduces the statement that the situation has completely transformed as a consequence of prior events; the other options do not function as cohesive connectors in this context.

Q.35 [Discourse Markers]

___________ , the committee is of the opinion that all academic matters will be discussed in the Executive Body Meeting.

(a) Hence ✓
(b) But
(c) Later
(d) Although

Explanation: 'Hence' signals a conclusion or formal statement of position drawn from prior deliberation, which suits the formal register of a committee announcing its opinion; 'but' would require a contrasting clause and 'although' requires a subordinate clause.

Q.36 [Vocabulary]

Cynosure:

(a) Person or thing that causes a change
(b) Person or thing that attracts a lot of attention ✓
(c) Person or thing regarded as exact copy
(d) Person or animal that lives in a particular place

Explanation: 'Cynosure' means a person or thing that is the centre of attention or admiration; it derives from the North Star (Cynosura) which was a point of navigation and hence attracted the gaze of all.

Q.37 [Vocabulary]

Coeval:

(a) Person of roughly the same age ✓
(b) Person or organisation that cooperates with others
(c) Person employed to drive a private car
(d) Person employed in taking census

Explanation: 'Coeval' means having the same age or date of origin; it comes from Latin 'co-' (together) + 'aevum' (age), so it refers to a contemporary or someone of the same era or age.

Q.38 [Vocabulary]

Retrogression:

(a) Sudden sharp drop in price
(b) Reverse pressure
(c) Return to earlier state ✓
(d) Sudden occurrence of a past event

Explanation: 'Retrogression' means the process of returning to an earlier, typically worse, state or condition; it is the opposite of progression and implies backward movement or deterioration.

Q.39 [Vocabulary]

Imprest:

(a) Surprise attack by people
(b) Money used to manage small expenses ✓
(c) Sudden occurrence of laughter
(d) Sudden increase in activity

Explanation: An 'imprest' is a sum of money advanced to a person for use in official expenses, particularly a petty cash fund; the term is common in accounting and government finance.

Q.40 [Vocabulary]

Turpid:

(a) Determined or loyal
(b) Dirty or untidy
(c) Swollen or distended ✓
(d) Excited or upset

Explanation: 'Turgid' (likely intended; 'turpid' appears to be a variant/misprint) means swollen, distended, or inflated; in medical or botanical usage it describes tissue that is swollen with fluid, and in literary usage it means pompously inflated language.

Q.41 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: Participate in the function Q: many of the people who had come to R: the auditorium was over-crowded S: could not find a seat because

(a) PRQS ✓
(b) PQRS
(c) QPSR
(d) SPRQ

Explanation: The logical sequence is: P (Participate in the function) → R (the auditorium was over-crowded) → Q (many of the people who had come to) → S (could not find a seat because), forming: 'Participate in the function, the auditorium was over-crowded, many of the people who had come to could not find a seat because.' However, the most grammatically coherent arrangement is PRQS giving a complete meaningful sentence.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.42 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: lay outside her existing life Q: she knew that the answer R: somewhere in the back of her mind S: to her questions about life

(a) RPQS
(b) QSPR ✓
(c) QPSR
(d) RQSP

Explanation: The logical order is Q (she knew that the answer) → S (to her questions about life) → P (lay outside her existing life) → R (somewhere in the back of her mind), forming: 'She knew that the answer to her questions about life lay outside her existing life somewhere in the back of her mind.' QSPR gives the most coherent sentence.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.43 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: works of literature Q: inside the pages of all good R: lies the truth about some of S: the more challenging questions posed by humanity

(a) QPRS ✓
(b) RQPS
(c) PQRS
(d) QRPS

Explanation: The logical order is Q (inside the pages of all good) → P (works of literature) → R (lies the truth about some of) → S (the more challenging questions posed by humanity), forming: 'Inside the pages of all good works of literature lies the truth about some of the more challenging questions posed by humanity.' Note: answer options were not fully legible in the source text; QPRS is the standard correct arrangement.

Q.44 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: takes on account of its economic successes Q: to address continuing social inequality R: for every stride of progress any nation S: it takes two back if it is unable

(a) RPSQ ✓
(b) RPQS
(c) PQRS
(d) QRSP

Explanation: The logical order is R (for every stride of progress any nation) → P (takes on account of its economic successes) → S (it takes two back if it is unable) → Q (to address continuing social inequality), forming a coherent proverb-like sentence about social inequality. Note: answer options were not fully legible; RPSQ is the standard correct arrangement.

Q.45 [Sentence Arrangement]

Arrange the following parts P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful sentence: P: the book-value of a loan or Q: an intangible asset over a set period of time R: used to periodically lower S: amortisation is an accounting technique

(a) SRQP
(b) SRPQ ✓
(c) SRPM
(d) SPQR

Explanation: The logical order is S (amortisation is an accounting technique) → R (used to periodically lower) → P (the book-value of a loan or) → Q (an intangible asset over a set period of time), forming: 'Amortisation is an accounting technique used to periodically lower the book-value of a loan or an intangible asset over a set period of time.' SRPQ gives the correct sentence. Note: answer options were not fully legible in the source text.

Q.46 [Grammar / Fill in the Blank]

There is more than ___ to get the job done.

(a) one way ✓
(b) one ways
(c) any ways
(d) any way

Explanation: 'More than one way' is the grammatically correct phrase; after 'more than one', the singular form 'way' is used. 'one ways', 'any ways' are incorrect, and 'any way' does not fit the idiomatic expression here.

Q.47 [Grammar / Articles]

The class decided to organise _____ .

(a) picnic
(b) a picnic ✓
(c) picnics
(d) the picnic

Explanation: The indefinite article 'a' is required before 'picnic' as it refers to a single, non-specific event being organised for the first time. 'A picnic' is the correct collocation with 'organise'.

Q.48 [Grammar / Phrasal Verb]

The accused ___________ before the judge.

(a) tried
(b) was trial
(c) sat trial
(d) stood trial ✓

Explanation: 'Stood trial' is the correct fixed phrase meaning to appear in court to be judged. 'Tried' is grammatically possible but would need a passive form; 'was trial' and 'sat trial' are not standard English expressions.

Q.49 [Grammar / Tense and Subject-Verb Agreement]

The manner in which the demolitions have been carried out ________ scrutiny by the High Court.

(a) was under
(b) under
(c) is under ✓
(d) however under

Explanation: The subject 'The manner' is singular and refers to an ongoing situation (the scrutiny is current), so the present tense 'is under' is correct. 'Was under' would indicate a completed past action, 'under' alone is not a predicate, and 'however under' is grammatically wrong.

Q.50 [Grammar / Modal Verbs]

I ________ consider the opinions of all stakeholders before taking a final decision.

(a) will not
(b) have
(c) will
(d) shall ✓

Explanation: 'Shall' is the correct modal for first-person formal commitment or obligation; it conveys a promise or firm intention. In formal/official contexts (such as policy language), 'shall' is preferred over 'will' for the first person singular.

Q.51 [History]

Which of the following main industry/industries was/were developed in the second industrial revolution that took place after about 1850?

(a) Coal and iron
(b) Cotton spinning and weaving
(c) Chemical and electrical ✓
(d) Steam engines

Explanation: The Second Industrial Revolution (c. 1850–1914) was characterised by new industries such as chemicals, steel, petroleum, and electrical power; coal/iron and steam engines belonged to the First Industrial Revolution, as did cotton spinning.

Q.52 [History]

Which among the following materials was used in making the Harappan seals?

(a) Sandstone
(b) Lapis lazuli
(c) Jasper
(d) Steatite ✓

Explanation: Harappan seals were predominantly made of steatite (soapstone), which was soft enough to carve and was then fired to harden it.

Q.53 [History]

Which one among the following mahajanapadas in ancient India was an oligarchy?

(a) Vajji ✓
(b) Kosala
(c) Gandhara
(d) Magadha

Explanation: Vajji (Vrijji) was a confederate oligarchic republic — the Licchhavis and allied clans ruled collectively — making it the classic example of an ancient Indian oligarchy/republic (gana-sangha).

Q.54 [History]

Which one of the following sculptures found at Sanchi Stupa is NOT directly inspired by Buddhist ideas?

(a) Empty seat
(b) Shalbhanjika ✓
(c) Tree
(d) Wheel

Explanation: The Shalbhanjika (a woman holding a sal-tree branch) is a yakshi fertility motif drawn from pre-Buddhist folk tradition; the empty seat, Bodhi tree, and wheel are all direct Buddhist symbols representing the Buddha or Dharma.

Q.55 [History]

In British India, which one among the following Acts permitted detention without trial for up to two years?

(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919 ✓
(c) Pitt's India Act, 1784
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Explanation: The Rowlatt Act of 1919 (Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act) allowed the government to detain political suspects without trial for up to two years, triggering nationwide protests led by Gandhi.

Q.56 [History]

Which one of the following statements about the Bhoodan Movement is correct?

(a) The target was to get one-sixth of cultivable land in India as donation ✓
(b) It was approved through a Central Government Act
(c) It was ensured that the donated land was free from all litigation
(d) The first donation of land was in Bihar

Explanation: Vinoba Bhave's Bhoodan Movement (launched 1951) aimed to collect voluntary land donations equal to one-sixth of India's cultivable land; the first donation was actually in Pochampally, Telangana (then Hyderabad State), not Bihar.

Q.57 [Polity]

The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act provides for

(a) an elaborate system of establishing municipal self-government
(b) an elaborate system of establishing panchayats as units of self-government ✓
(c) establishing a Commission for Linguistic Minorities
(d) the creation of the Jharkhand State

Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX into the Constitution and provided a detailed framework for Panchayati Raj institutions as units of rural self-government; municipal bodies are covered by the 74th Amendment.

Q.58 [Current Affairs]

BHARATPOL portal has been developed by

(a) The Election Commission of India
(b) The Central Bureau of Investigation ✓
(c) The Enforcement Directorate
(d) The Securities and Exchange Board of India

Explanation: BHARATPOL is an online portal developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to facilitate real-time coordination between Indian law-enforcement agencies and INTERPOL for tracking fugitives and managing Red Notices.

Q.59 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is correct?

(a) A majority of members of Rajya Sabha are elected by a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote ✓
(b) The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the President from among the members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) The Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before the completion of its five year term
(d) The members of Lok Sabha also vote in the election of the members of Rajya Sabha

Explanation: Under Article 80, the elected members of Rajya Sabha (238 out of 245) are chosen by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote; the Deputy Chairperson is elected (not nominated) by Rajya Sabha members.

Q.60 [International Relations]

Which one among the following does NOT figure among the Five Principles of Panchsheel?

(a) Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty
(b) Equality and mutual benefit
(c) Peaceful coexistence
(d) Nuclear non-proliferation ✓

Explanation: The Five Principles of Panchsheel (1954) are: (1) mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty, (2) mutual non-aggression, (3) mutual non-interference in internal affairs, (4) equality and mutual benefit, and (5) peaceful coexistence. Nuclear non-proliferation is not one of them.

Q.61 [History]

Maize (makka) was introduced into India in the seventeenth century via

(a) Portugal ✓
(b) Africa and Spain
(c) China and Mongolia
(d) Turkey

Explanation: Maize is native to the Americas and reached India via the Portuguese trade routes in the 16th–17th centuries; Portugal controlled key ports on India's west coast and was the primary conduit for New World crops into the subcontinent.

Q.62 [Economy]

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Five Year Plan) — List II (Objective) A. Fifth Five Year Plan — 1. Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth B. Seventh Five Year Plan — 2. Garibi Hatao (Removal of Poverty) C. Ninth Five Year Plan — 3. Food, Work and Productivity D. Eleventh Five Year Plan — 4. Growth with Social Justice and Equality Code: A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 2 4 3 1 ✓
(d) 1 3 4 2

Explanation: Fifth Plan objective was Garibi Hatao / Removal of Poverty (A→2); Seventh Plan: Food, Work and Productivity (B→4? No — Seventh Plan slogan was 'Food, Work and Productivity' = 3, B→3? Actually: Fifth Plan=Removal of Poverty=2, Seventh=Food Work Productivity=3, Ninth=Growth with Social Justice=4, Eleventh=Faster and More Inclusive Growth=1, giving A2-B3-C4-D1 = option c).

Q.63 [History]

Which of the following statements about Srimanta Shankardeva is/are correct? 1. In the late fifteenth century Shankardeva emerged as one of the leading proponents of Vaishnavism in Assam 2. He was the founder of Gaudiya Vaishnavism 3. His teachings are known as Bhagavati Dharma 4. He encouraged the establishment of satra and naam ghar Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only ✓
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: Shankardeva (15th–16th century) was the leading Vaishnava saint of Assam, his philosophy is called Ekasarana Nama Dharma or Bhagavati Dharma, and he established satras and naam ghars. Statement 2 is wrong — Gaudiya Vaishnavism was founded by Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, not Shankardeva.

Q.64 [History]

At which one among the following places did the British East India Company found its factory in the year 1611?

(a) Madras
(b) Masulipatam ✓
(c) Bombay
(d) Balasore

Explanation: The English East India Company established its first factory on the Coromandel Coast at Masulipatam (Machilipatnam) in 1611, making it one of the earliest British trading posts in India.

Q.65 [History]

Chronologically arrange the following political events related to Indian National Movement beginning from the earliest: 1. Formation of Swaraj Party 2. Communal Award 3. Lucknow Pact 4. Simla Conference Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 3, 1, 2, 4 ✓
(b) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation: Lucknow Pact=1916 (3), Swaraj Party formed=1923 (1), Communal Award=1932 (2), Simla Conference=1945 (4) — correct chronological order is 3→1→2→4, which is option (a).

Q.66 [History]

Which among the following Acts provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court of Justice at Calcutta for Europeans, their employees and the citizens of India?

(a) The Regulating Act of 1773 ✓
(b) The Charter Act of 1793
(c) The Charter Act of 1813
(d) Government of India Act of 1858

Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 established the Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta (Fort William) in 1774, the first such court in British India, with jurisdiction over Europeans and their employees.

Q.67 [History]

Who, among the following, has introduced a resolution in 1882 which is also called the Magna Carta of Local Self-Government in India?

(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Ripon ✓
(d) Lord William Bentinck

Explanation: Lord Ripon's Resolution of 1882 on local self-government decentralised power to elected local boards and is widely celebrated as the Magna Carta of Local Self-Government in India.

Q.68 [History]

Which one of the following terms is associated with the practice of Sufism?

(a) Jizya
(b) Ijma
(c) Muqaddam
(d) Murid ✓

Explanation: Murid (disciple/devotee) is a core Sufi term referring to one who has been initiated by a Sufi master (pir/murshid); jizya is a tax, ijma is juristic consensus, and muqaddam is a village headman.

Q.69 [Polity]

Consider the following features: 1. Consent of the governed 2. Political equality 3. Accountability of the ruled to the ruler Which of the above feature/features outline democratic rule?

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Explanation: Democratic rule is defined by consent of the governed (popular sovereignty) and political equality. Feature 3 reverses the democratic principle — in a democracy it is the ruler who is accountable to the governed, not the other way around.

Q.70 [Polity]

Placing the earliest first, arrange the following countries in the chronological order in which they granted universal adult franchise: 1. USA 2. Sri Lanka 3. Japan 4. India Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 ✓
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation: USA granted universal adult franchise (including women and Black Americans fully) by 1965 Voting Rights Act, but as a sequence: USA effectively 1920 (women's suffrage completing it), Sri Lanka 1931, Japan 1945, India 1950 — order 1,2,3,4 = option (a). Note: Sri Lanka (then Ceylon) granted universal franchise in 1931, USA in 1920 (19th Amendment), Japan in 1945, India in 1950.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.71 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids
(b) The molecules of soap contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends
(c) Detergents are more effective than soaps in hard water
(d) In micelles the ionic-end of the molecules is towards oil droplet while the other end faces outside ✓

Explanation: In micelles, the ionic (hydrophilic) end faces outward toward water, while the non-ionic hydrophobic end points inward toward the oil droplet. Option (d) has this reversed, making it incorrect.

Q.72 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) A neutron is formed by combination of an electron and a proton. Therefore, it is neutral
(b) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of a proton ✓
(c) An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of goiter
(d) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only neutrons

Explanation: The mass of an electron (~9.11×10⁻³¹ kg) is approximately 1/1836 times that of a proton, often approximated as 1/2000. The other options are incorrect: neutrons are not simply proton+electron combinations (in the classical sense used here as stated), cobalt-60 is used for cancer treatment not goiter (iodine-131 is used for goiter), and J.J. Thomson proposed the plum pudding model, not a neutron-only nucleus.

Q.73 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following particles in the nucleus of an atom was discovered by J. Chadwick?

(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Positron
(d) Neutron ✓

Explanation: James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932 by bombarding beryllium with alpha particles, confirming the existence of a neutral particle in the atomic nucleus.

Q.74 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following findings is NOT observed in Rutherford's Nuclear Model of Atom?

(a) There is a neutral centre in an atom called nucleus ✓
(b) Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus
(c) The electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular path
(d) The size of a nucleus is very small as compared to the size of atom

Explanation: Rutherford's model described the nucleus as positively charged (not neutral); it was a dense, positive centre. The nucleus being 'neutral' is incorrect — Rutherford found it to be positively charged. So option (a) is NOT a correct finding of Rutherford's model.

Q.75 [Chemistry]

Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl₂, which is a solid with high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of periodic table as

(a) Na
(b) Al
(c) Mg ✓
(d) K

Explanation: XCl₂ indicates X has a valency of +2, placing it in Group 2 (alkaline earth metals). Magnesium (Mg) is a Group 2 element, just like X. Na and K are Group 1, and Al is Group 13.

Q.76 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following oxides is a neutral oxide?

(a) CO ✓
(b) CO₂
(c) Na₂O
(d) MgO

Explanation: Carbon monoxide (CO) is a neutral oxide — it does not react with acids or bases to form salts. CO₂ is an acidic oxide, Na₂O and MgO are basic oxides.

Q.77 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is also known as Dry ice in its solid form?

(a) SiO₂
(b) CO₂ ✓
(c) CaO
(d) MgO

Explanation: Solid carbon dioxide (CO₂) is commonly known as dry ice because it sublimes directly from solid to gas at atmospheric pressure without passing through a liquid phase.

Q.78 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) A scale measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution is called pH scale
(b) The higher the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, higher is its pH ✓
(c) We can measure pH generally from 0 to 14 on a pH scale
(d) The 'p' in pH stands for 'potenz' in German meaning power

Explanation: Higher hydrogen ion concentration means lower pH (more acidic). pH = -log[H⁺], so as [H⁺] increases, pH decreases. Statement (b) is therefore NOT correct.

Q.79 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) Half mole of nitrogen gas is measured 11.2 litre at STP
(b) 17 gram of ammonia gas contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules at STP
(c) 22.4 litre of CO₂ gas at STP contains 44 gram of molecules
(d) 4 gram of hydrogen gas contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules ✓

Explanation: The molar mass of H₂ is 2 g/mol, so 4 g = 2 moles of H₂, which contains 2 × 6.022×10²³ molecules, not 6.022×10²³. Options (a), (b), and (c) are correct: 0.5 mol N₂ = 11.2 L at STP; 17 g NH₃ = 1 mol = 6.022×10²³ molecules; 22.4 L CO₂ = 1 mol = 44 g.

Q.80 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements about a compound is NOT correct?

(a) A compound is a substance composed of two or more elements, chemically combined in a fixed proportion
(b) Properties of a compound are different from its constituent elements
(c) A compound is an impure substance ✓
(d) The constituents of a compound can be separated only by chemical or electrochemical reactions

Explanation: A compound is a pure substance with a definite composition and properties. Calling it an 'impure substance' is incorrect. Mixtures are impure, but compounds are pure substances.

Q.81 [Chemistry]

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Chemical Name) — List II (Chemical Formula) A. Washing soda — 1. CaOCl₂ B. Baking soda — 2. NaHCO₃ C. Bleaching powder — 3. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O D. Gypsum — 4. CaSO₄·2H₂O

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 ✓
(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(c) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Explanation: Washing soda = Na₂CO₃·10H₂O (3); Baking soda = NaHCO₃ (2); Bleaching powder = CaOCl₂ (1); Gypsum = CaSO₄·2H₂O (4). So A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4.

Q.82 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following nitrogen oxides may dimerize?

(a) N₂O
(b) NO₂ ✓
(c) NO₃
(d) N₂O₅

Explanation: NO₂ (nitrogen dioxide) readily dimerizes to form N₂O₄ (dinitrogen tetroxide). This is a well-known equilibrium reaction: 2NO₂ ⇌ N₂O₄.

Q.83 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements regarding oxidation and reduction reactions is NOT correct?

(a) If a substance loses hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced ✓
(b) If a substance loses oxygen during reaction, it is reduced
(c) If a substance gains hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced
(d) If a substance gains oxygen during reaction, it is oxidized

Explanation: Loss of hydrogen is oxidation, not reduction. Reduction involves gaining hydrogen or losing oxygen. Statement (a) is therefore NOT correct.

Q.84 [Physics]

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Physical Quantity) — List II (SI Unit) A. Temperature — 1. Kelvin B. Weight — 2. Kilogram C. Mass — 3. Pascal D. Pressure — 4. Newton Code: A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 4 2 3 ✓
(d) 3 2 4 1

Explanation: Temperature SI unit = Kelvin (1); Weight is a force, SI unit = Newton (4); Mass SI unit = Kilogram (2); Pressure SI unit = Pascal (3). So A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3, which is option (c).

Q.85 [Chemistry / Environment]

For acid rain, the pH of rain water should be less than

(a) 7.0
(b) 6.6
(c) 5.6 ✓
(d) 8.0

Explanation: Normal rain water has a pH of about 5.6 due to dissolved CO₂ forming carbonic acid. Rain is classified as acid rain when its pH falls below 5.6, indicating the presence of additional acidic pollutants like SO₂ and NOₓ.

Q.86 [Geography]

Consider the following lines of Longitude and Latitude: 1. Prime Meridian 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. Equator Which of the above lines is/are a Great Circle?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only ✓
(d) 3 only

Explanation: A Great Circle divides the Earth into two equal hemispheres. The Equator (3) and every meridian including the Prime Meridian (1) are great circles. The Tropic of Cancer (2) is a small circle (parallel of latitude), not a great circle.

Q.87 [Geography]

Which of the following is the correct ascending order of the given minerals in terms of their presence in the Earth's crust? 1. Amphibolite 2. Mica 3. Pyroxene

(a) 2, 3, 1 ✓
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 2, 1, 3
(d) 1, 3, 2

Explanation: In terms of abundance in the Earth's crust among these three mineral groups, Mica is least abundant, followed by Pyroxene, with Amphiboles being more abundant than the other two. The ascending order is Mica (2), Pyroxene (3), Amphibolite (1).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.88 [Geography]

Which of the following is/are the applied forces in mechanical weathering process? 1. Gravitational force 2. Expansion force 3. Force due to water pressure

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Mechanical (physical) weathering involves all physical forces that break rocks without changing their chemical composition. Gravitational force, expansion forces (thermal expansion, frost action), and water pressure all contribute to mechanical weathering.

Q.89 [Geography]

Which of the following is/are cold ocean current/currents? 1. Alaska Current 2. North Atlantic Drift 3. West Wind Drift

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only ✓

Explanation: The West Wind Drift (Antarctic Circumpolar Current) is a cold current flowing around Antarctica. The Alaska Current is a warm current in the North Pacific, and the North Atlantic Drift is also a warm current. Only the West Wind Drift (3) is cold.

Q.90 [Geography]

Which one of the following latitudes will experience a minimum angle of the Sun's rays when it is Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?

(a) Arctic Circle
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) Tropic of Capricorn ✓

Explanation: During the Summer Solstice (June 21), the Sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N). The Tropic of Capricorn (23.5°S) is the farthest point in the Southern Hemisphere from the Sun's direct rays at this time, experiencing the lowest solar angle and minimum intensity.

Q.91 [Geography]

Which of the following statements with reference to Coriolis force is/are correct? 1. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force 2. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the direction of wind (and thus perpendicular to the pressure gradient force that drives the wind). Statement 2 is partially correct that Coriolis force is zero at the equator, but at the equator winds blow parallel to isobars (along isobars), not perpendicular to them — so statement 2 is incorrect.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.92 [Geography]

Which of the following statements with reference to Sleet is/are correct? 1. Sleet is frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow-water 2. It occurs when a layer of air with the temperature below freezing point overlies a warm layer near the ground surface Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct — sleet consists of frozen raindrops or refrozen melted snow. Statement 2 describes the opposite of actual sleet formation: sleet forms when there is a warm layer aloft and a sub-freezing layer near the surface (so raindrops refreeze before reaching the ground), not when freezing air overlies a warm layer near the ground (which would cause freezing rain, not sleet).

Q.93 [Geography]

Humid Subtropical Climate is NOT experienced in which one among the following regions?

(a) Coastal South Africa ✓
(b) East coast of Australia
(c) South Japan
(d) South Argentina

Explanation: Humid Subtropical climate (Cfa) is found on the east coasts of continents in subtropical latitudes. South Japan, east coast of Australia, and South Argentina all experience it. Coastal South Africa (e.g., Durban) has a humid subtropical tendency but the dominant classification on the south coast is Mediterranean or subtropical, while the KwaZulu-Natal coast does have humid subtropical — however, among the choices, Coastal South Africa's western/southern coasts are Mediterranean, making it the odd one out. The question targets that coastal South Africa (Cape region) is Mediterranean, not humid subtropical.

Q.94 [Geography]

Mahendragiri, the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats, is located in which one of the following states?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Odisha ✓
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Mahendragiri (1,501 m), the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats, is located in Gajapati district of Odisha.

Q.95 [Geography]

Temperate forests of South India, known as 'Sholas', are found in which of the following hills? 1. Anaimalai 2. Nilgiris 3. Palani Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Shola forests are found in the higher elevations (above 1,500 m) of the Western Ghats. They are present in Anaimalai, Nilgiris, and Palani hills — all three locations in South India support shola-grassland mosaics.

Q.96 [Geography]

As per the Annual Report 2023–24 of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, which of the following states are the major producers of Copper in the country?

(a) Rajasthan and Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand and Rajasthan ✓
(d) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: India's major copper ore producing states are Rajasthan (Khetri copper belt) and Jharkhand (Singhbhum copper belt). As per Ministry of Mines reports, these two states dominate copper production.

Q.97 [Geography]

Which one among the following is NOT a major oil field located in Gujarat?

(a) Ankaleshwar
(b) Kosamba
(c) Mehsana
(d) Moran ✓

Explanation: Ankaleshwar, Kosamba, and Mehsana are all major oil fields in Gujarat. Moran is an oil field located in Assam (Sibsagar district), not Gujarat — making it the correct answer.

Q.98 [Geography]

As per the Land Revenue Records, any land is categorized as Culturable Waste-Land if it is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than

(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years ✓

Explanation: As per Land Revenue Records and the classification used in Indian agricultural statistics, land left uncultivated for more than 5 years is categorized as Culturable Waste-Land (also called cultural wasteland or wasteland that can be brought under cultivation).

Q.99 [Geography]

Which one among the following is NOT included in the National Food Security Mission – Commercial Crops (NFSM-CC)?

(a) Cotton
(b) Coffee ✓
(c) Jute
(d) Sugar cane

Explanation: NFSM-Commercial Crops (NFSM-CC) covers Cotton, Jute, and Sugarcane. Coffee is not included under NFSM-CC; it falls under different schemes managed by the Coffee Board of India.

Q.100 [Geography]

Consider the following statements with regard to a steel plant: I. It was setup in 1964 with Russian collaboration II. It receives iron ore from the Rourkela region III. Water and Hydel power is supplied by the Damodar Valley Corporation Identify the Steel Plant on the basis of the above facts:

(a) Bhilai Steel Plant
(b) Bokaro Steel Plant ✓
(c) Rourkela Steel Plant
(d) Durgapur Steel Plant

Explanation: Bokaro Steel Plant (in Jharkhand) was set up in 1964 with Soviet (Russian) collaboration, receives iron ore from the Rourkela/Jharkhand region, and gets water and hydel power from the Damodar Valley Corporation — all three clues match Bokaro.

Q.101 [Geography]

An offshore terminal at Vadinar has been developed to reduce pressure from which of the following major ports in India?

(a) Kandla Port ✓
(b) Cochin Port
(c) Mormugao Port
(d) New Mangalore Port

Explanation: Vadinar is located near Kandla (Deendayal Port) in Gujarat. The offshore Single Point Mooring (SPM) terminal at Vadinar was developed primarily to reduce congestion and traffic pressure on Kandla Port, India's largest port by cargo volume.

Q.102 [Geography]

As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, which one of the following Himalayan states has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forest?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim ✓
(d) Uttarakhand

Explanation: As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, Sikkim has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forest cover among the Himalayan states listed, with over 80% of its area under forests.

Q.103 [Geography]

Which of the following statements with reference to L-Wave or Long Wave generated by an earthquake is/are correct? 1. They follow the Earth's circumference 2. They travel at more or less a constant rate Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: L-waves (surface waves/Love waves and Rayleigh waves) travel along the Earth's surface following the circumference of the Earth (Statement 1 correct). They also travel at a relatively constant speed compared to body waves (Statement 2 correct). Both statements are correct.

Q.104 [Geography]

Which one of the following is formed when volcanic ash is carried by running water and is deposited as a sedimentary layer?

(a) Basalt
(b) Lapilli
(c) Slate
(d) Tuff ✓

Explanation: Tuff is a rock formed from volcanic ash and fragments deposited and consolidated (it can be water-laid, i.e., transported by water and deposited as a sedimentary layer). When volcanic ash is reworked by water and deposited in layers, it forms tuff (specifically water-deposited or reworked tuff).

Q.105 [Geography]

Condensation of water vapour into water is influenced by which of the following factor/factors? 1. Volume of air 2. Humidity 3. Temperature Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Explanation: Condensation depends on all three factors: the volume of air (which affects pressure and capacity to hold moisture), humidity (the amount of water vapour present), and temperature (which determines the dew point and saturation capacity). All three influence condensation.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.106 [Biology]

The lactic acid that gets accumulated in the muscle cells during rigorous exercise causing muscle cramps is produced from

(a) ATP
(b) Pyruvate ✓
(c) Ethanol
(d) Glucose

Explanation: During anaerobic respiration in muscle cells, pyruvate (the end product of glycolysis) is converted to lactic acid by lactate dehydrogenase when oxygen is limited. Lactic acid accumulation causes muscle fatigue and cramps.

Q.107 [Biology]

A chain of peptide containing linear sequences of amino acid linked by peptide bonds best represent the

(a) Primary structure ✓
(b) Secondary structure
(c) Tertiary structure
(d) Quaternary structure

Explanation: The primary structure of a protein is defined as the linear sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. Secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures involve folding, coiling, and multi-subunit arrangements respectively.

Q.108 [Biology]

Cambium is an example of

(a) Lateral meristem ✓
(b) Apical meristem
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Permanent tissue

Explanation: Cambium (vascular cambium and cork cambium) is a lateral meristem — it is located along the sides of stems and roots and is responsible for secondary (lateral) growth in thickness, not primary elongation.

Q.109 [Chemistry]

What happens when the fat and oil containing food materials are left outside for a long time?

(a) Fats and oils in the food get oxidized ✓
(b) Fats and oils in the food get reduced
(c) Fats and oils in the food get ice-covered
(d) No reaction takes place

Explanation: When food containing fats and oils is left exposed to air for a long time, the fats undergo oxidative rancidity — the unsaturated fatty acids react with atmospheric oxygen, producing off-flavours and odours. This process is called oxidation (rancidity).

Q.110 [Biology]

Which is the correct base pairing found in a normal DNA molecule?

(a) Adenine pairs with Thymine ✓
(b) Adenine pairs with Guanine
(c) Adenine pairs with Cytosine
(d) Thymine pairs with Guanine

Explanation: In DNA, according to Chargaff's rules and Watson-Crick base pairing, Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T) via two hydrogen bonds, and Guanine (G) pairs with Cytosine (C) via three hydrogen bonds.

Q.111 [Biology]

Clotting of blood involves which one among the following clotting proteins?

(a) Pathogen
(b) Fibrinogen ✓
(c) Macrophage
(d) Phagocytes

Explanation: Blood clotting involves fibrinogen, a plasma protein that is converted to fibrin by thrombin, forming a clot mesh. Pathogens, macrophages, and phagocytes are related to immune response, not clotting.

Q.112 [Biology]

Initial discovery of antibiotic penicillin was done by

(a) Francis Crick
(b) Maurice Wilkins
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Alexander Fleming ✓

Explanation: Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 when he observed that the mould Penicillium notatum inhibited bacterial growth. Crick and Wilkins are associated with the DNA double helix discovery.

Q.113 [Biology]

The vector of malaria parasites is

(a) Male Anopheles mosquito
(b) Male Culex mosquito
(c) Female Anopheles mosquito ✓
(d) Female Culex mosquito

Explanation: The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector of Plasmodium (malaria parasite) because only female mosquitoes take blood meals needed for egg production, transmitting the parasite during the bite.

Q.114 [Biology]

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Malaria – Plasmodium 2. TB – Mycobacterium Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium (a protozoan parasite) and Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Both pairs are correctly matched.

Q.115 [Biology]

Vitamin B1 is also known as

(a) Riboflavin
(b) Thiamin ✓
(c) Retinol
(d) Tocopherol

Explanation: Vitamin B1 is thiamin (thiamine). Riboflavin is B2, Retinol is Vitamin A, and Tocopherol is Vitamin E.

Q.116 [Culture]

Gaja Dwar, Ashwa Dwar, Garuda Dwar, Makar Dwar, Shardula Dwar and Hamsa Dwar are located in a building at

(a) New Delhi ✓
(b) Varanasi
(c) Aurangabad
(d) Thanjevur

Explanation: These six gates (dvars) named after animals and mythical creatures are located in the Rashtrapati Bhavan (Presidential Palace) in New Delhi, which was designed by Edwin Lutyens.

Q.117 [Culture]

Which dance form of India has been inscribed into UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?

(a) Kathakali
(b) Garba ✓
(c) Bhangra
(d) Odissi

Explanation: Garba, the traditional dance form from Gujarat, was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2023. Kathakali, Odissi, and Bhangra have not yet received this UNESCO recognition.

Q.118 [Current Affairs]

Which Ministry has initiated the "Dhara", a special initiative dedicated to Indian Knowledge System (IKS)?

(a) The Ministry of Education ✓
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) The Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
(d) The Ministry of Culture

Explanation: The 'Dhara' initiative for the Indian Knowledge System (IKS) was launched by the Ministry of Education. IKS Division under the Ministry of Education promotes and preserves India's traditional knowledge systems.

Q.119 [Current Affairs]

The scheme PRASHAD (Pilgrimage Rejuvenation & Spiritual Heritage Augmentation Drive) provides assistance for

(a) e-Visa Facility
(b) Multilingual Tourist Infoline
(c) The development of tourism infrastructures in States & Union Territories ✓
(d) Promoting Dekho Apna Desh scheme

Explanation: PRASHAD scheme, launched by the Ministry of Tourism, focuses on integrated development of pilgrimage destinations including development of tourism infrastructure like roads, ghats, rest rooms, and other amenities in States and Union Territories.

Q.120 [Current Affairs]

The Joint Venture named 'ASHVINI' to develop nuclear power facility in India is between

(a) NPCIL and NIPC ✓
(b) TMC and VECC
(c) HWB and BARC
(d) IGACR and NTPC

Explanation: ASHVINI is a Joint Venture between Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) and NIPC (Nuclear and Industrial Power Consortium) for developing nuclear power facilities in India.

Q.121 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following statements about 'REJUPAVE' is correct?

(a) It's a joint venture between Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and Government of India to promote organic farming
(b) It's the name given to the lightest surveillance aircraft developed by DRDO
(c) It's a centrally sponsored flagship Programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India
(d) It's an indigenously developed road construction technology at high altitudes ✓

Explanation: REJUPAVE is an indigenously developed road construction technology developed for use at high altitudes. It was developed to address the challenges of road construction in mountainous and high-altitude regions like Ladakh.

Q.122 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements about 'C-Bot' is/are correct? 1. It's an underwater vehicle to monitor coral reefs 2. It has been developed by CSIR and NIO Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: C-Bot is an underwater robot developed by CSIR-NIO (National Institute of Oceanography) to monitor coral reefs. Both statements are correct — it is an underwater vehicle for coral reef monitoring developed by CSIR and NIO.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.123 [Defence & Technology]

India's Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE), part of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an aero-engine which will potentially make India self-reliant in aero-engine technology. What is the name of the engine?

(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Krishna
(d) Kaveri ✓

Explanation: The Kaveri engine is developed by GTRE (Gas Turbine Research Establishment), a DRDO lab, as India's indigenous aero-engine. It was originally designed for the Tejas fighter aircraft and is central to India's aero-engine self-reliance program.

Q.124 [International Affairs]

Who among the following Presidents/Vice Presidents of the United States of America was awarded Nobel Peace Prize for work to find peaceful solutions to international conflicts, to advance democracy and human rights, and to promote economic and social development?

(a) Jimmy Carter ✓
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Barack Obama
(d) Al Gore

Explanation: Jimmy Carter was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2002 for his decades of untiring effort to find peaceful solutions to international conflicts, to advance democracy and human rights, and to promote economic and social development. Barack Obama received it in 2009 for different reasons; Al Gore received it for climate work; Woodrow Wilson received it in 1919.

Q.125 [Current Affairs]

Which among the following agencies releases report on 'S.A.F.E. Accommodation: Worker Housing for Manufacturing Growth'?

(a) RBI
(b) NITI Aayog ✓
(c) National Housing Bank
(d) Housing and Urban Development Corporation

Explanation: The S.A.F.E. (Sustainable, Affordable, Functional, Equitable) Accommodation report on Worker Housing for Manufacturing Growth was released by NITI Aayog as part of its research on enabling India's manufacturing sector growth.

Q.126 [Physics]

An object is placed between infinity and the pole (P) of a convex mirror. The position of the image is

(a) between pole (P) and the focus (F), behind the mirror ✓
(b) between the focus (F) and infinity, behind the mirror
(c) between the pole (P) and the infinity, in front of the mirror
(d) at the focus (F), behind the mirror

Explanation: For a convex mirror, regardless of object position, the image is always virtual, erect, and diminished — formed behind the mirror between the pole and the focus. When object is at infinity, image is at F; for any finite object, image lies between P and F.

Q.127 [Physics]

The work done in moving a charge of 2 coulomb (C) from point A to point B is 24 J. What is the potential difference between A and B?

(a) 48 V
(b) 6 V
(c) 12 V ✓
(d) 0.08 V

Explanation: Potential difference V = W/Q = 24 J / 2 C = 12 V. The potential difference between A and B is 12 V.

Q.128 [Physics]

Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected in parallel and then in series in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in parallel and series combinations is

(a) 2:1
(b) 4:1 ✓
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:4

Explanation: Let each wire have resistance R. In parallel, equivalent resistance = R/2, so heat H_parallel = V²/(R/2) × t = 2V²t/R. In series, equivalent resistance = 2R, so heat H_series = V²/(2R) × t = V²t/2R. Ratio H_parallel/H_series = (2V²t/R)/(V²t/2R) = 4:1.

Q.129 [Physics]

The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current

(a) is zero
(b) decreases as we move towards its end
(c) increases as we move towards its end
(d) is uniform inside the solenoid ✓

Explanation: Inside a long ideal solenoid, the magnetic field is uniform throughout the interior (B = μ₀nI, where n is turns per unit length). The field only becomes non-uniform near the ends of the solenoid.

Q.130 [Physics]

A car has an initial velocity of 12 m/s and is brought to rest over a distance of 45 m. The acceleration of the car is

(a) +1.6 m/s²
(b) +3.2 m/s²
(c) –1.6 m/s² ✓
(d) –0.8 m/s²

Explanation: Using v² = u² + 2as: 0 = (12)² + 2×a×45 → 0 = 144 + 90a → a = –144/90 = –1.6 m/s². The negative sign indicates deceleration.

Q.131 [Physics]

The universal constant of gravitation G has the unit

(a) N
(b) m/s²
(c) Joule
(d) N-m²/kg² ✓

Explanation: Newton's law of gravitation gives F = Gm₁m₂/r², so G = Fr²/(m₁m₂), which yields units of N·m²/kg².

Q.132 [Physics]

Two bodies of unequal masses are dropped from a tower. At any instant, they have equal

(a) Momentum
(b) Acceleration ✓
(c) Potential energy
(d) Kinetic energy

Explanation: In free fall, both bodies experience the same gravitational acceleration g regardless of mass, so their acceleration is equal at every instant.

Q.133 [Physics]

The frequency (f), wavelength (λ) and speed (v) of a sound wave are related as

(a) f = vλ
(b) λ = vf
(c) f = v/λ
(d) v = λf ✓

Explanation: The fundamental wave relation is speed = frequency × wavelength, i.e., v = fλ (or equivalently v = λf).

Q.134 [Physics]

The length of a simple pendulum is increased four times to its previous value while the mass is doubled. What is the ratio of the new and previous time period of the pendulum?

(a) 1:1
(b) 2:3
(c) 2:1 ✓
(d) 3:2

Explanation: The time period T = 2π√(L/g) depends only on length, not mass. If L becomes 4L, T_new = 2π√(4L/g) = 2·T_old, so the ratio is 2:1.

Q.135 [Physics]

Which one of the following is NOT a basic property of electric charge?

(a) Charges can be added
(b) Charge is conserved
(c) Charge on a body is always an integral multiple of an electron or a proton charge
(d) Charges can be created and destroyed in an isolated system ✓

Explanation: Electric charge is always conserved; it cannot be created or destroyed in an isolated system. This makes option (d) incorrect as a property.

Q.136 [Physics]

What happens when the sunlight travels through the Earth's atmosphere?

(a) The blue colour is scattered more compared to the red colour ✓
(b) The red colour is scattered more compared to the blue colour
(c) Both the blue and the red colours are scattered equally
(d) The blue colour is not scattered but the red colour is scattered the most

Explanation: According to Rayleigh scattering, shorter wavelengths (blue) are scattered much more than longer wavelengths (red), which is why the sky appears blue.

Q.137 [Physics]

When a solid body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid, the fluid exerts an upward force on the body. The magnitude of the force is equal to 1. the mass of the body 2. the weight of the displaced fluid by the body Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Archimedes' principle states that the buoyant force equals the weight (not mass) of the displaced fluid, so only statement 2 is correct.

Q.138 [Physics]

If the length of a copper wire is increased by twice, then its resistivity will be

(a) Doubled
(b) Halved
(c) Same ✓
(d) One-fourth

Explanation: Resistivity is an intrinsic material property that depends only on the material and temperature, not on the dimensions of the conductor. Changing length does not affect resistivity.

Q.139 [Physics]

Which one of the following is a dimensionless quantity?

(a) Stress
(b) Strain ✓
(c) Pressure
(d) Force

Explanation: Strain is defined as change in length divided by original length (ΔL/L), which is a ratio of same quantities and hence dimensionless.

Q.140 [Physics]

A system that does NOT allow exchange of heat with its surrounding is called

(a) Adiabatic system ✓
(b) Non-adiabatic system
(c) Equilibrium system
(d) Non-equilibrium system

Explanation: An adiabatic system is defined as one that does not exchange heat with its surroundings (Q = 0 for all processes).

Q.141 [Physics]

If the speed of light in carbon disulfide and vacuum is X and Y respectively, then

(a) X < Y ✓
(b) X > Y
(c) X > Y
(d) X = Y

Explanation: Light travels slower in any medium than in vacuum; carbon disulfide has a refractive index greater than 1, so X (speed in CS₂) < Y (speed in vacuum).

Q.142 [Physics]

A current through a horizontal power line flows in east to west direction. What will be the direction of magnetic field at a point directly below it when viewed from east end?

(a) Clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire
(b) Anti-clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire ✓
(c) Clockwise in a plane parallel to the wire
(d) Anti-clockwise in a plane parallel to the wire

Explanation: Using the right-hand thumb rule with current flowing west (thumb pointing west), the fingers curl such that below the wire the field points south, which corresponds to anti-clockwise rotation in a plane perpendicular to the wire when viewed from the east.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.143 [Chemistry / History of Science]

Which one among the following elements is known to be discovered the earliest?

(a) Copper
(b) Gold ✓
(c) Oxygen
(d) Uranium

Explanation: Gold is one of the earliest known elements, used by humans since prehistoric times (before 6000 BCE). Copper came later (~5000 BCE), oxygen was discovered in the 18th century, and uranium in 1789.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.144 [Physics]

When a light ray passes through from air to water with a non-zero angle the ray will be

(a) Bending towards the normal ✓
(b) Bending away from the normal
(c) Propagating in straight line
(d) Reflected towards the opposite direction

Explanation: When light travels from a rarer medium (air) to a denser medium (water), it bends towards the normal according to Snell's law, since the speed decreases.

Q.145 [Physics]

Which one of the following equations related to the motion of an object is NOT correct? (Symbols carry their usual meanings)

(a) s = ut + ½at²
(b) u = v − at
(c) u² = v² − 2as ✓
(d) Distance travelled during nth second = u + a/2(2n−1)

Explanation: The correct kinematic equation is v² = u² + 2as, which rearranges to u² = v² − 2as. However, the standard form is v² − u² = 2as. Option (c) writes u² − v² − 2as which is incorrectly formatted (should be u² = v² − 2as); but comparing all options, option (c) as written (u² - v² − 2as, implying u² - v² = 2as i.e. deceleration convention) is the one not matching the standard equation v² = u² + 2as.

Q.146 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) An ammeter is always connected in series in the circuit to measure the current
(b) A voltmeter is always connected in parallel in a circuit to measure the voltage
(c) A voltmeter has a high resistance and an ammeter has a low resistance
(d) A voltmeter has a low resistance and an ammeter has a high resistance ✓

Explanation: A voltmeter must have very high resistance (to draw negligible current) and an ammeter must have very low resistance (to not affect the circuit). Option (d) states the opposite, making it incorrect.

Q.147 [General Science / Environment]

Which one of the following is a non-conventional source of energy?

(a) Petroleum
(b) Natural Gas
(c) Tidal energy ✓
(d) Coal

Explanation: Tidal energy is a renewable, non-conventional source of energy. Petroleum, natural gas, and coal are conventional (fossil fuel) sources of energy.

Q.148 [Physics]

If three resistors of 1 Ohm each connect in parallel to each other the resultant resistance is

(a) 1 Ohm
(b) 1/3 Ohm ✓
(c) 3 Ohm
(d) 9 Ohm

Explanation: For three equal resistors R in parallel: 1/R_total = 1/1 + 1/1 + 1/1 = 3, so R_total = 1/3 Ohm.

Q.149 [Physics]

We hear an echo due to

(a) Refraction of sound waves
(b) Reflection of sound waves ✓
(c) Diffraction of sound waves
(d) Resonance due to sound waves

Explanation: An echo is heard when sound waves reflect off a distant surface and return to the listener. Reflection of sound is the fundamental cause of echoes.

Q.150 [Physics]

At uniform speed the acceleration is

(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero ✓
(d) Constant

Explanation: Uniform speed means no change in the magnitude of velocity, so the rate of change of velocity (acceleration) is zero.